UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to Gangaikonda Cholapuram, consider the following statements: The city was established by Rajendra Chola I as the imperial capital after his victorious expedition to the Gangetic plains. The Tiruvalangadu and Karanthai copper plates are key epigraphic sources that document the city’s history. The main temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, features a vimana that is architecturally taller and more massive than the one at the Thanjavur Brihadisvara Temple. The city planning included a massive water reservoir called the Chola Gangam, which was consecrated with water from the Ganga. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Rajendra Chola I, a formidable ruler of the Chola dynasty, established Gangaikonda Cholapuram around 1025 CE. This was done to commemorate his successful military expedition to the north, reaching the Gangetic plains. He assumed the title ‘Gangaikonda Cholan,’ meaning ‘the Chola who conquered the Ganga.’ Statement 2 is correct. The history and grandeur of this capital are well-documented in various historical records. The Tiruvalangadu and Karanthai copper-plate inscriptions, along with literary works like Kalingattuparani and Muvar Ula, provide significant epigraphic and literary evidence of the city’s prominence. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Gangaikonda Cholisvaram temple is a magnificent structure that mirrors the grandeur of the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur (built by his father, Rajaraja Chola I), its vimana (tower) is intentionally shorter and more graceful, with a distinctive curved contour, unlike the taller, more imposing, and straight-lined vimana of the Thanjavur temple. Statement 4 is correct. A key feature of the city was the Chola Gangam, a vast artificial lake. It served as a ‘liquid pillar of victory’ (jalasthambam), filled with water brought from the Ganga river during Rajendra Chola I’s northern campaign, symbolizing the Chola’s military might and supremacy. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Rajendra Chola I, a formidable ruler of the Chola dynasty, established Gangaikonda Cholapuram around 1025 CE. This was done to commemorate his successful military expedition to the north, reaching the Gangetic plains. He assumed the title ‘Gangaikonda Cholan,’ meaning ‘the Chola who conquered the Ganga.’ Statement 2 is correct. The history and grandeur of this capital are well-documented in various historical records. The Tiruvalangadu and Karanthai copper-plate inscriptions, along with literary works like Kalingattuparani and Muvar Ula, provide significant epigraphic and literary evidence of the city’s prominence. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Gangaikonda Cholisvaram temple is a magnificent structure that mirrors the grandeur of the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur (built by his father, Rajaraja Chola I), its vimana (tower) is intentionally shorter and more graceful, with a distinctive curved contour, unlike the taller, more imposing, and straight-lined vimana of the Thanjavur temple. Statement 4 is correct. A key feature of the city was the Chola Gangam, a vast artificial lake. It served as a ‘liquid pillar of victory’ (jalasthambam), filled with water brought from the Ganga river during Rajendra Chola I’s northern campaign, symbolizing the Chola’s military might and supremacy.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Gangaikonda Cholapuram, consider the following statements:

• The city was established by Rajendra Chola I as the imperial capital after his victorious expedition to the Gangetic plains.

• The Tiruvalangadu and Karanthai copper plates are key epigraphic sources that document the city’s history.

• The main temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, features a vimana that is architecturally taller and more massive than the one at the Thanjavur Brihadisvara Temple.

• The city planning included a massive water reservoir called the Chola Gangam, which was consecrated with water from the Ganga.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Rajendra Chola I, a formidable ruler of the Chola dynasty, established Gangaikonda Cholapuram around 1025 CE. This was done to commemorate his successful military expedition to the north, reaching the Gangetic plains. He assumed the title ‘Gangaikonda Cholan,’ meaning ‘the Chola who conquered the Ganga.’

• Statement 2 is correct. The history and grandeur of this capital are well-documented in various historical records. The Tiruvalangadu and Karanthai copper-plate inscriptions, along with literary works like Kalingattuparani and Muvar Ula, provide significant epigraphic and literary evidence of the city’s prominence.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Gangaikonda Cholisvaram temple is a magnificent structure that mirrors the grandeur of the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur (built by his father, Rajaraja Chola I), its vimana (tower) is intentionally shorter and more graceful, with a distinctive curved contour, unlike the taller, more imposing, and straight-lined vimana of the Thanjavur temple.

• Statement 4 is correct. A key feature of the city was the Chola Gangam, a vast artificial lake. It served as a ‘liquid pillar of victory’ (jalasthambam), filled with water brought from the Ganga river during Rajendra Chola I’s northern campaign, symbolizing the Chola’s military might and supremacy.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the measles virus and its prevention: A person infected with measles becomes contagious approximately four days before the onset of the characteristic skin rash. The measles virus is primarily transmitted through direct contact with an infected person’s respiratory droplets and cannot survive in the air or on surfaces. Achieving herd immunity against measles requires a vaccination coverage of over 90% within a population. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A critical feature of measles’ high infectivity is its transmission window. An infected individual is contagious for a period of about eight days, starting four days before the characteristic rash appears and lasting for about four days after. This pre-symptomatic (rash) transmission makes it difficult to control the spread, as individuals can pass on the virus before they are aware of their specific illness. Statement 2 is incorrect. Measles is an airborne disease, which makes it exceptionally contagious. It spreads through coughing and sneezing, releasing infectious droplets into the air. The virus can remain viable and infectious in the air or on contaminated surfaces for up to two hours, allowing it to infect people even after the original carrier has left the area. Statement 3 is correct. Because measles is so infectious (90% of exposed non-immune people get infected), a very high level of population immunity is required to break the chain of transmission. This concept is known as herd immunity. For measles, the threshold is estimated to be around 95% vaccination coverage with two doses of the MMR vaccine. This high threshold protects vulnerable individuals who cannot be vaccinated. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A critical feature of measles’ high infectivity is its transmission window. An infected individual is contagious for a period of about eight days, starting four days before the characteristic rash appears and lasting for about four days after. This pre-symptomatic (rash) transmission makes it difficult to control the spread, as individuals can pass on the virus before they are aware of their specific illness. Statement 2 is incorrect. Measles is an airborne disease, which makes it exceptionally contagious. It spreads through coughing and sneezing, releasing infectious droplets into the air. The virus can remain viable and infectious in the air or on contaminated surfaces for up to two hours, allowing it to infect people even after the original carrier has left the area. Statement 3 is correct. Because measles is so infectious (90% of exposed non-immune people get infected), a very high level of population immunity is required to break the chain of transmission. This concept is known as herd immunity. For measles, the threshold is estimated to be around 95% vaccination coverage with two doses of the MMR vaccine. This high threshold protects vulnerable individuals who cannot be vaccinated.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the measles virus and its prevention:

• A person infected with measles becomes contagious approximately four days before the onset of the characteristic skin rash.

• The measles virus is primarily transmitted through direct contact with an infected person’s respiratory droplets and cannot survive in the air or on surfaces.

• Achieving herd immunity against measles requires a vaccination coverage of over 90% within a population.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A critical feature of measles’ high infectivity is its transmission window. An infected individual is contagious for a period of about eight days, starting four days before the characteristic rash appears and lasting for about four days after. This pre-symptomatic (rash) transmission makes it difficult to control the spread, as individuals can pass on the virus before they are aware of their specific illness.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Measles is an airborne disease, which makes it exceptionally contagious. It spreads through coughing and sneezing, releasing infectious droplets into the air. The virus can remain viable and infectious in the air or on contaminated surfaces for up to two hours, allowing it to infect people even after the original carrier has left the area.

• Statement 3 is correct. Because measles is so infectious (90% of exposed non-immune people get infected), a very high level of population immunity is required to break the chain of transmission. This concept is known as herd immunity. For measles, the threshold is estimated to be around 95% vaccination coverage with two doses of the MMR vaccine. This high threshold protects vulnerable individuals who cannot be vaccinated.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United States’ designation of The Resistance Front (TRF): The TRF was created after the 2019 revocation of Article 370 to present a secular and indigenous facade for militancy in Kashmir. A US designation as a ‘Foreign Terrorist Organization’ (FTO) freezes the group’s assets under US jurisdiction and criminalizes the provision of material support to it by any US person. The simultaneous designation as a ‘Specially Designated Global Terrorist’ (SDGT) enables the application of secondary sanctions on foreign entities that conduct business with the TRF. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Resistance Front (TRF) is an offshoot of the Pakistan-based terror group Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT). It was formed around 2019–2020, following the abrogation of Article 370. Its creation was a strategic move to rebrand the militancy in Jammu and Kashmir as a homegrown, indigenous, and secular resistance, thereby distancing it from the Islamist identity of its parent organization and aiming to gain wider acceptance. Statement 2 is correct. The designation as a Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) under Section 219 of the US Immigration and Nationality Act carries severe legal and financial consequences. It makes it illegal for any US person to knowingly provide “material support or resources” to the group and requires US financial institutions to freeze all assets belonging to the organization. Statement 3 is correct. The designation as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT) complements the FTO status. It is a powerful tool that allows the US to impose secondary sanctions. This means that foreign financial institutions and other entities that knowingly conduct or facilitate significant transactions with the SDGT entity risk being cut off from the US financial system, further isolating the terrorist group globally. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Resistance Front (TRF) is an offshoot of the Pakistan-based terror group Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT). It was formed around 2019–2020, following the abrogation of Article 370. Its creation was a strategic move to rebrand the militancy in Jammu and Kashmir as a homegrown, indigenous, and secular resistance, thereby distancing it from the Islamist identity of its parent organization and aiming to gain wider acceptance. Statement 2 is correct. The designation as a Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) under Section 219 of the US Immigration and Nationality Act carries severe legal and financial consequences. It makes it illegal for any US person to knowingly provide “material support or resources” to the group and requires US financial institutions to freeze all assets belonging to the organization. Statement 3 is correct. The designation as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT) complements the FTO status. It is a powerful tool that allows the US to impose secondary sanctions. This means that foreign financial institutions and other entities that knowingly conduct or facilitate significant transactions with the SDGT entity risk being cut off from the US financial system, further isolating the terrorist group globally.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United States’ designation of The Resistance Front (TRF):

• The TRF was created after the 2019 revocation of Article 370 to present a secular and indigenous facade for militancy in Kashmir.

• A US designation as a ‘Foreign Terrorist Organization’ (FTO) freezes the group’s assets under US jurisdiction and criminalizes the provision of material support to it by any US person.

• The simultaneous designation as a ‘Specially Designated Global Terrorist’ (SDGT) enables the application of secondary sanctions on foreign entities that conduct business with the TRF.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Resistance Front (TRF) is an offshoot of the Pakistan-based terror group Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT). It was formed around 2019–2020, following the abrogation of Article 370. Its creation was a strategic move to rebrand the militancy in Jammu and Kashmir as a homegrown, indigenous, and secular resistance, thereby distancing it from the Islamist identity of its parent organization and aiming to gain wider acceptance.

• Statement 2 is correct. The designation as a Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) under Section 219 of the US Immigration and Nationality Act carries severe legal and financial consequences. It makes it illegal for any US person to knowingly provide “material support or resources” to the group and requires US financial institutions to freeze all assets belonging to the organization.

Statement 3 is correct. The designation as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT) complements the FTO status. It is a powerful tool that allows the US to impose secondary sanctions. This means that foreign financial institutions and other entities that knowingly conduct or facilitate significant transactions with the SDGT entity risk being cut off from the US financial system, further isolating the terrorist group globally.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Radioactive Iodine (RAI) therapy. Statement-I: In Radioactive Iodine (RAI) therapy, Iodine-131 (131I) selectively destroys thyroid tissue while largely sparing other parts of the body. Statement-II: The thyroid gland has a unique metabolic pathway that leads to the preferential uptake and concentration of iodine, whether stable or radioactive. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Radioactive iodine therapy, particularly using the isotope Iodine-131 (131I), is renowned for its precision. It targets and destroys hyperactive thyroid cells or cancerous thyroid tissue with high specificity, thereby minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues and organs. This targeted action is the foundation of its therapeutic success. Statement-II is also correct. The reason for the therapy’s precision lies in the fundamental biology of the thyroid gland. The thyroid is the only major organ in the body that actively absorbs and utilizes iodine to produce thyroid hormones. It cannot distinguish between stable (non-radioactive) iodine and radioactive isotopes like 131I. This preferential uptake means that when 131I is administered, it naturally concentrates in the thyroid tissue. Statement-II provides the precise scientific reason for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Radioactive iodine therapy, particularly using the isotope Iodine-131 (131I), is renowned for its precision. It targets and destroys hyperactive thyroid cells or cancerous thyroid tissue with high specificity, thereby minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues and organs. This targeted action is the foundation of its therapeutic success. Statement-II is also correct. The reason for the therapy’s precision lies in the fundamental biology of the thyroid gland. The thyroid is the only major organ in the body that actively absorbs and utilizes iodine to produce thyroid hormones. It cannot distinguish between stable (non-radioactive) iodine and radioactive isotopes like 131I. This preferential uptake means that when 131I is administered, it naturally concentrates in the thyroid tissue. Statement-II provides the precise scientific reason for Statement-I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Radioactive Iodine (RAI) therapy.

Statement-I: In Radioactive Iodine (RAI) therapy, Iodine-131 (131I) selectively destroys thyroid tissue while largely sparing other parts of the body.

Statement-II: The thyroid gland has a unique metabolic pathway that leads to the preferential uptake and concentration of iodine, whether stable or radioactive.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Radioactive iodine therapy, particularly using the isotope Iodine-131 (131I), is renowned for its precision. It targets and destroys hyperactive thyroid cells or cancerous thyroid tissue with high specificity, thereby minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues and organs. This targeted action is the foundation of its therapeutic success.

• Statement-II is also correct. The reason for the therapy’s precision lies in the fundamental biology of the thyroid gland. The thyroid is the only major organ in the body that actively absorbs and utilizes iodine to produce thyroid hormones. It cannot distinguish between stable (non-radioactive) iodine and radioactive isotopes like 131I. This preferential uptake means that when 131I is administered, it naturally concentrates in the thyroid tissue.

Statement-II provides the precise scientific reason for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II provides the precise scientific reason for Statement-I.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The Sharm el-Sheikh Dialogue, an ongoing platform under the UNFCCC, is primarily concerned with: (a) Negotiating new emission reduction targets for developing countries. (b) Facilitating technology transfer for climate adaptation from developed to developing nations. (c) Advancing the implementation of Article 2.1(c) of the Paris Agreement. (d) Creating a new loss and damage fund to compensate climate-vulnerable countries. Correct Solution: C The Sharm el-Sheikh Dialogue was established specifically to address a crucial, yet complex, goal of the Paris Agreement. Its central purpose is to facilitate a structured exchange on how to implement Article 2.1(c). This article calls for “making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development.” This goes beyond just public climate finance (covered under Article 9) and looks at the systemic alignment of the entire global financial system—public and private—with long-term climate goals. The dialogue explores how to shift trillions of dollars in global investments away from high-carbon activities and towards sustainable ones, ensuring this is done equitably without penalizing developing nations. Incorrect Solution: C The Sharm el-Sheikh Dialogue was established specifically to address a crucial, yet complex, goal of the Paris Agreement. Its central purpose is to facilitate a structured exchange on how to implement Article 2.1(c). This article calls for “making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development.” This goes beyond just public climate finance (covered under Article 9) and looks at the systemic alignment of the entire global financial system—public and private—with long-term climate goals. The dialogue explores how to shift trillions of dollars in global investments away from high-carbon activities and towards sustainable ones, ensuring this is done equitably without penalizing developing nations.

#### 5. Question

The Sharm el-Sheikh Dialogue, an ongoing platform under the UNFCCC, is primarily concerned with:

• (a) Negotiating new emission reduction targets for developing countries.

• (b) Facilitating technology transfer for climate adaptation from developed to developing nations.

• (c) Advancing the implementation of Article 2.1(c) of the Paris Agreement.

• (d) Creating a new loss and damage fund to compensate climate-vulnerable countries.

Solution: C

• The Sharm el-Sheikh Dialogue was established specifically to address a crucial, yet complex, goal of the Paris Agreement. Its central purpose is to facilitate a structured exchange on how to implement Article 2.1(c). This article calls for “making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development.”

This goes beyond just public climate finance (covered under Article 9) and looks at the systemic alignment of the entire global financial system—public and private—with long-term climate goals. The dialogue explores how to shift trillions of dollars in global investments away from high-carbon activities and towards sustainable ones, ensuring this is done equitably without penalizing developing nations.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Port of Eilat, consider the following statements: It is Israel’s only commercial port on the Red Sea, located at the northern tip of the Gulf of Aqaba. The port is a major hub for Israel’s potash and phosphate exports. Its strategic value is significantly amplified by its direct railway connectivity to Israel’s industrial and population centers. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Port of Eilat is geographically unique as it is Israel’s only direct outlet to the Red Sea and, by extension, the Indian Ocean. It is situated at the northernmost point of the Gulf of Aqaba, a critical maritime chokepoint it shares with Jordan (port of Aqaba), Egypt, and Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is correct. While the port handles a significant portion of Israel’s vehicle imports, it also has dedicated infrastructure for exports. It serves as a key terminal for the export of potash and phosphate, which are mined in the Negev desert by companies like Israel Chemicals Ltd (ICL). Statement 3 is incorrect. A major logistical challenge for the Port of Eilat is its lack of railway access. The nearest railhead is over 100 kilometers away in Dimona. This absence of direct rail connectivity limits its efficiency for transporting large volumes of cargo inland, making it more reliant on road transport and constraining its overall capacity compared to Israel’s Mediterranean ports. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Port of Eilat is geographically unique as it is Israel’s only direct outlet to the Red Sea and, by extension, the Indian Ocean. It is situated at the northernmost point of the Gulf of Aqaba, a critical maritime chokepoint it shares with Jordan (port of Aqaba), Egypt, and Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is correct. While the port handles a significant portion of Israel’s vehicle imports, it also has dedicated infrastructure for exports. It serves as a key terminal for the export of potash and phosphate, which are mined in the Negev desert by companies like Israel Chemicals Ltd (ICL). Statement 3 is incorrect. A major logistical challenge for the Port of Eilat is its lack of railway access. The nearest railhead is over 100 kilometers away in Dimona. This absence of direct rail connectivity limits its efficiency for transporting large volumes of cargo inland, making it more reliant on road transport and constraining its overall capacity compared to Israel’s Mediterranean ports.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Port of Eilat, consider the following statements:

• It is Israel’s only commercial port on the Red Sea, located at the northern tip of the Gulf of Aqaba.

• The port is a major hub for Israel’s potash and phosphate exports.

• Its strategic value is significantly amplified by its direct railway connectivity to Israel’s industrial and population centers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Port of Eilat is geographically unique as it is Israel’s only direct outlet to the Red Sea and, by extension, the Indian Ocean. It is situated at the northernmost point of the Gulf of Aqaba, a critical maritime chokepoint it shares with Jordan (port of Aqaba), Egypt, and Saudi Arabia.

• Statement 2 is correct. While the port handles a significant portion of Israel’s vehicle imports, it also has dedicated infrastructure for exports. It serves as a key terminal for the export of potash and phosphate, which are mined in the Negev desert by companies like Israel Chemicals Ltd (ICL).

Statement 3 is incorrect. A major logistical challenge for the Port of Eilat is its lack of railway access. The nearest railhead is over 100 kilometers away in Dimona. This absence of direct rail connectivity limits its efficiency for transporting large volumes of cargo inland, making it more reliant on road transport and constraining its overall capacity compared to Israel’s Mediterranean ports.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The recent resurgence of measles in the United States, a country that had declared it eliminated, is largely attributable to declining immunisation coverage. Statement-II: The measles virus is so contagious that if one person has it, up to 90% of the non-immune people close to that person will also become infected. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The United States had successfully eliminated endemic measles in the year 2000, a major public health achievement. The recent outbreaks are not due to a failure of the vaccine itself, but rather to the formation of clusters of unvaccinated individuals. This decline in immunisation rates, often fueled by vaccine hesitancy and misinformation, has created pockets of vulnerability where the virus can once again spread. Statement-II is also correct. Measles is one of the most contagious viral diseases known. Its high reproductive number means it spreads with extreme efficiency. The statistic that 9 out of 10 non-immune individuals exposed to the virus will contract it underscores its infectiousness. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The United States had successfully eliminated endemic measles in the year 2000, a major public health achievement. The recent outbreaks are not due to a failure of the vaccine itself, but rather to the formation of clusters of unvaccinated individuals. This decline in immunisation rates, often fueled by vaccine hesitancy and misinformation, has created pockets of vulnerability where the virus can once again spread. Statement-II is also correct. Measles is one of the most contagious viral diseases known. Its high reproductive number means it spreads with extreme efficiency. The statistic that 9 out of 10 non-immune individuals exposed to the virus will contract it underscores its infectiousness. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The recent resurgence of measles in the United States, a country that had declared it eliminated, is largely attributable to declining immunisation coverage.

Statement-II: The measles virus is so contagious that if one person has it, up to 90% of the non-immune people close to that person will also become infected.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The United States had successfully eliminated endemic measles in the year 2000, a major public health achievement. The recent outbreaks are not due to a failure of the vaccine itself, but rather to the formation of clusters of unvaccinated individuals. This decline in immunisation rates, often fueled by vaccine hesitancy and misinformation, has created pockets of vulnerability where the virus can once again spread.

• Statement-II is also correct. Measles is one of the most contagious viral diseases known. Its high reproductive number means it spreads with extreme efficiency. The statistic that 9 out of 10 non-immune individuals exposed to the virus will contract it underscores its infectiousness.

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Radioactive Iodine (131I) therapy: The therapeutic effect of Radioactive Iodine (131I) therapy is achieved through the emission of beta particles that destroy thyroid cells. The therapy is considered safe for all patients, including pregnant women, due to its precise targeting of the thyroid gland. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Iodine-131 is a radioisotope that decays through a process that emits both beta particles and gamma rays. The beta particles are responsible for the therapeutic effect. They are a form of ionizing radiation with a very short range, meaning they deposit their energy and destroy cells only within the immediate vicinity of where the iodine is absorbed (i.e., the thyroid tissue), which is ideal for therapy. The gamma rays have a longer range and can be detected outside the body for imaging. Statement 2 is incorrect. Radioactive iodine therapy is strictly contraindicated in pregnant or nursing women. The radioactive iodine can cross the placenta and be absorbed by the fetal thyroid gland, potentially causing irreversible damage. It can also be secreted in breast milk. This is a critical safety exclusion for the procedure. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Iodine-131 is a radioisotope that decays through a process that emits both beta particles and gamma rays. The beta particles are responsible for the therapeutic effect. They are a form of ionizing radiation with a very short range, meaning they deposit their energy and destroy cells only within the immediate vicinity of where the iodine is absorbed (i.e., the thyroid tissue), which is ideal for therapy. The gamma rays have a longer range and can be detected outside the body for imaging. Statement 2 is incorrect. Radioactive iodine therapy is strictly contraindicated in pregnant or nursing women. The radioactive iodine can cross the placenta and be absorbed by the fetal thyroid gland, potentially causing irreversible damage. It can also be secreted in breast milk. This is a critical safety exclusion for the procedure.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Radioactive Iodine (131I) therapy:

• The therapeutic effect of Radioactive Iodine (131I) therapy is achieved through the emission of beta particles that destroy thyroid cells.

• The therapy is considered safe for all patients, including pregnant women, due to its precise targeting of the thyroid gland.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Iodine-131 is a radioisotope that decays through a process that emits both beta particles and gamma rays. The beta particles are responsible for the therapeutic effect. They are a form of ionizing radiation with a very short range, meaning they deposit their energy and destroy cells only within the immediate vicinity of where the iodine is absorbed (i.e., the thyroid tissue), which is ideal for therapy. The gamma rays have a longer range and can be detected outside the body for imaging.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Radioactive iodine therapy is strictly contraindicated in pregnant or nursing women. The radioactive iodine can cross the placenta and be absorbed by the fetal thyroid gland, potentially causing irreversible damage. It can also be secreted in breast milk. This is a critical safety exclusion for the procedure.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following provisions are part of the Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025? Mandatory health and term insurance for drivers. Recognition of non-transport motorcycles for ride-hailing services. A centralised portal for managing licences and compliance. Mandatory inclusion of Divyangjan-accessible vehicles. How many of the above provisions are correct? (a) Only one (a) Only one (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All four statements correctly identify key features of the new Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025. 1 is correct: The guidelines mandate significant social security benefits for drivers, including health insurance of ₹5 lakh and term insurance of ₹10 lakh. 2 is correct: For the first time at a national level, the guidelines provide a framework for the legal recognition of bike-taxis using non-transport (private) motorcycles, although this is subject to state government approval. 3 is correct: To streamline the regulatory process, the guidelines propose a centralised portal for managing aggregator licenses, renewals, and other compliance-related activities, which will ease the administrative burden on companies. 4 is correct: In a move to enhance inclusivity, the guidelines make it compulsory for aggregators to include vehicles that are accessible to persons with disabilities (Divyangjan) in their fleet. Incorrect Solution: D All four statements correctly identify key features of the new Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025. 1 is correct: The guidelines mandate significant social security benefits for drivers, including health insurance of ₹5 lakh and term insurance of ₹10 lakh. 2 is correct: For the first time at a national level, the guidelines provide a framework for the legal recognition of bike-taxis using non-transport (private) motorcycles, although this is subject to state government approval. 3 is correct: To streamline the regulatory process, the guidelines propose a centralised portal for managing aggregator licenses, renewals, and other compliance-related activities, which will ease the administrative burden on companies. 4 is correct: In a move to enhance inclusivity, the guidelines make it compulsory for aggregators to include vehicles that are accessible to persons with disabilities (Divyangjan) in their fleet.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following provisions are part of the Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025?

• Mandatory health and term insurance for drivers.

• Recognition of non-transport motorcycles for ride-hailing services.

• A centralised portal for managing licences and compliance.

• Mandatory inclusion of Divyangjan-accessible vehicles.

How many of the above provisions are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All four statements correctly identify key features of the new Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025.

• 1 is correct: The guidelines mandate significant social security benefits for drivers, including health insurance of ₹5 lakh and term insurance of ₹10 lakh.

• 2 is correct: For the first time at a national level, the guidelines provide a framework for the legal recognition of bike-taxis using non-transport (private) motorcycles, although this is subject to state government approval.

• 3 is correct: To streamline the regulatory process, the guidelines propose a centralised portal for managing aggregator licenses, renewals, and other compliance-related activities, which will ease the administrative burden on companies.

4 is correct: In a move to enhance inclusivity, the guidelines make it compulsory for aggregators to include vehicles that are accessible to persons with disabilities (Divyangjan) in their fleet.

Solution: D

All four statements correctly identify key features of the new Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025.

• 1 is correct: The guidelines mandate significant social security benefits for drivers, including health insurance of ₹5 lakh and term insurance of ₹10 lakh.

4 is correct: In a move to enhance inclusivity, the guidelines make it compulsory for aggregators to include vehicles that are accessible to persons with disabilities (Divyangjan) in their fleet.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The formation of a Roll Cloud is typically associated with which of the following atmospheric conditions? (a) A uniformly stable and homogenous air mass (b) The absence of any wind shear or atmospheric waves (c) High-altitude cirrus cloud formation (d) A temperature inversion with cool air trapped below warm air Correct Solution: D (a) is incorrect. Roll clouds form precisely because of the interaction of contrasting, not homogenous, air masses (e.g., cool, moist air and hot, dry air). (b) is incorrect. Atmospheric gravity waves, which are oscillations in the atmosphere, are a key mechanism in the formation of roll clouds. Wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) can also contribute to the conditions that create them. (c) is incorrect. Roll clouds are low-level clouds, forming in the lower part of the troposphere. Cirrus clouds are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals and are not associated with the dynamics that create roll clouds. (d) is correct. A crucial element for the formation of a roll cloud is a temperature inversion. This is a layer in the atmosphere where temperature increases with altitude, contrary to the normal pattern. This inversion acts like a lid, trapping a layer of cool air near the surface. When a disturbance like a sea breeze front moves through this stable layer, it can generate the gravity waves that form the roll cloud. Incorrect Solution: D (a) is incorrect. Roll clouds form precisely because of the interaction of contrasting, not homogenous, air masses (e.g., cool, moist air and hot, dry air). (b) is incorrect. Atmospheric gravity waves, which are oscillations in the atmosphere, are a key mechanism in the formation of roll clouds. Wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) can also contribute to the conditions that create them. (c) is incorrect. Roll clouds are low-level clouds, forming in the lower part of the troposphere. Cirrus clouds are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals and are not associated with the dynamics that create roll clouds. (d) is correct. A crucial element for the formation of a roll cloud is a temperature inversion. This is a layer in the atmosphere where temperature increases with altitude, contrary to the normal pattern. This inversion acts like a lid, trapping a layer of cool air near the surface. When a disturbance like a sea breeze front moves through this stable layer, it can generate the gravity waves that form the roll cloud.

#### 10. Question

The formation of a Roll Cloud is typically associated with which of the following atmospheric conditions?

• (a) A uniformly stable and homogenous air mass

• (b) The absence of any wind shear or atmospheric waves

• (c) High-altitude cirrus cloud formation

• (d) A temperature inversion with cool air trapped below warm air

Solution: D

• (a) is incorrect. Roll clouds form precisely because of the interaction of contrasting, not homogenous, air masses (e.g., cool, moist air and hot, dry air).

• (b) is incorrect. Atmospheric gravity waves, which are oscillations in the atmosphere, are a key mechanism in the formation of roll clouds. Wind shear (a change in wind speed or direction with height) can also contribute to the conditions that create them.

• (c) is incorrect. Roll clouds are low-level clouds, forming in the lower part of the troposphere. Cirrus clouds are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals and are not associated with the dynamics that create roll clouds.

(d) is correct. A crucial element for the formation of a roll cloud is a temperature inversion. This is a layer in the atmosphere where temperature increases with altitude, contrary to the normal pattern. This inversion acts like a lid, trapping a layer of cool air near the surface. When a disturbance like a sea breeze front moves through this stable layer, it can generate the gravity waves that form the roll cloud.

Solution: D

• (a) is incorrect. Roll clouds form precisely because of the interaction of contrasting, not homogenous, air masses (e.g., cool, moist air and hot, dry air).

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