UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Environmental (Protection) Fund’ in India, consider the following statements: The fund was newly created under the provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023. It is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The fund utilizes penalties collected under both the Air Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Environmental (Protection) Fund is a statutory mechanism in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the fund was actually provided for under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023, played a role in strengthening and operationalizing it by decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties, but it did not create the fund itself. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The fund is administered by the MoEFCC and serves as a repository for penalties imposed under major environmental legislations, including the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The fund adheres to the “polluter pays principle,” ensuring that financial penalties are recycled back into environmental restoration, research, and the strengthening of regulatory bodies. A unique governance feature is the revenue sharing model, where 75% of the proceeds are transferred to the State/UT Consolidated Funds, while 25% is retained by the Centre. Transparency is maintained through CAG audits and a centralized online portal managed by the CPCB. Incorrect Solution: A The Environmental (Protection) Fund is a statutory mechanism in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the fund was actually provided for under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023, played a role in strengthening and operationalizing it by decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties, but it did not create the fund itself. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The fund is administered by the MoEFCC and serves as a repository for penalties imposed under major environmental legislations, including the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The fund adheres to the “polluter pays principle,” ensuring that financial penalties are recycled back into environmental restoration, research, and the strengthening of regulatory bodies. A unique governance feature is the revenue sharing model, where 75% of the proceeds are transferred to the State/UT Consolidated Funds, while 25% is retained by the Centre. Transparency is maintained through CAG audits and a centralized online portal managed by the CPCB.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the ‘Environmental (Protection) Fund’ in India, consider the following statements:

The fund was newly created under the provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023.

• It is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

• The fund utilizes penalties collected under both the Air Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Environmental (Protection) Fund is a statutory mechanism in India.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the fund was actually provided for under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023, played a role in strengthening and operationalizing it by decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties, but it did not create the fund itself.

• Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The fund is administered by the MoEFCC and serves as a repository for penalties imposed under major environmental legislations, including the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The fund adheres to the “polluter pays principle,” ensuring that financial penalties are recycled back into environmental restoration, research, and the strengthening of regulatory bodies.

• A unique governance feature is the revenue sharing model, where 75% of the proceeds are transferred to the State/UT Consolidated Funds, while 25% is retained by the Centre. Transparency is maintained through CAG audits and a centralized online portal managed by the CPCB.

Solution: A

• The Environmental (Protection) Fund is a statutory mechanism in India.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Indian Skimmer’ (Rynchops albicollis): It is currently classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. India is home to approximately 90% of the world’s population of this species. It is a colonial nester that typically breeds on exposed sandbars of large rivers. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Indian Skimmer is a distinctive riverine bird known for its unique feeding method, where it “skims” the water with its elongated lower mandible. Statement 1 is incorrect as the species is classified as Endangered (EN), not Critically Endangered, on the IUCN Red List. With a global population estimated between 3,700 and 4,400 individuals, the species is under significant pressure from habitat loss. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. India is the primary stronghold for this bird, hosting nearly 90% of the global population. Its breeding biology is closely tied to river dynamics; it is a colonial nester that prefers exposed sandbars and islands in large, slow-flowing rivers like the Ganga, Chambal, and Yamuna. Because it relies so heavily on these specific habitats, it serves as a vital indicator species for the health of riverine ecosystems and sediment dynamics. Threats such as sand mining, dam construction, and human disturbance have led to a sharp decline in their numbers. Recent conservation efforts, like those launched by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), focus on protecting these breeding sites across the Ganga Basin to ensure the survival of this specialized bird. Incorrect Solution: B The Indian Skimmer is a distinctive riverine bird known for its unique feeding method, where it “skims” the water with its elongated lower mandible. Statement 1 is incorrect as the species is classified as Endangered (EN), not Critically Endangered, on the IUCN Red List. With a global population estimated between 3,700 and 4,400 individuals, the species is under significant pressure from habitat loss. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. India is the primary stronghold for this bird, hosting nearly 90% of the global population. Its breeding biology is closely tied to river dynamics; it is a colonial nester that prefers exposed sandbars and islands in large, slow-flowing rivers like the Ganga, Chambal, and Yamuna. Because it relies so heavily on these specific habitats, it serves as a vital indicator species for the health of riverine ecosystems and sediment dynamics. Threats such as sand mining, dam construction, and human disturbance have led to a sharp decline in their numbers. Recent conservation efforts, like those launched by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), focus on protecting these breeding sites across the Ganga Basin to ensure the survival of this specialized bird.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the ‘Indian Skimmer’ (Rynchops albicollis):

• It is currently classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.

• India is home to approximately 90% of the world’s population of this species.

• It is a colonial nester that typically breeds on exposed sandbars of large rivers.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Indian Skimmer is a distinctive riverine bird known for its unique feeding method, where it “skims” the water with its elongated lower mandible.

• Statement 1 is incorrect as the species is classified as Endangered (EN), not Critically Endangered, on the IUCN Red List. With a global population estimated between 3,700 and 4,400 individuals, the species is under significant pressure from habitat loss.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. India is the primary stronghold for this bird, hosting nearly 90% of the global population. Its breeding biology is closely tied to river dynamics; it is a colonial nester that prefers exposed sandbars and islands in large, slow-flowing rivers like the Ganga, Chambal, and Yamuna. Because it relies so heavily on these specific habitats, it serves as a vital indicator species for the health of riverine ecosystems and sediment dynamics.

• Threats such as sand mining, dam construction, and human disturbance have led to a sharp decline in their numbers. Recent conservation efforts, like those launched by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), focus on protecting these breeding sites across the Ganga Basin to ensure the survival of this specialized bird.

Solution: B

• The Indian Skimmer is a distinctive riverine bird known for its unique feeding method, where it “skims” the water with its elongated lower mandible.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the ‘Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity (GEI) Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025’, consider the following statements: These rules are the first legally binding industrial emission intensity regulations in India. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for enforcing compliance and imposing penalties. The second round of targets covers sectors such as petroleum refineries and secondary aluminium. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The GEI Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025, mark a significant shift in India’s climate policy. Statement 1 is correct as these rules represent India’s transition from voluntary efficiency measures (like PAT) to legally binding climate compliance. They operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS). Statement 3 is also correct; the second round of sectors notified includes petroleum refineries, petrochemicals, textiles, and secondary aluminium, adding 208 industrial units to the mandate. An earlier round in October 2025 had already covered aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper. Statement 2 is incorrect due to the division of institutional responsibilities. While the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for the issuance and calculation of carbon credits, the enforcement of compliance and the imposition of penalties fall under the jurisdiction of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The rules set a baseline year of 2023–24 and aim for a 3–7% reduction in emission intensity by 2026–27. Non-compliance results in “environmental compensation” penalties equal to twice the average carbon credit price. This framework strengthens the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) and helps India meet its NDC target of a 45% reduction in GDP emission intensity by 2030. Incorrect Solution: C The GEI Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025, mark a significant shift in India’s climate policy. Statement 1 is correct as these rules represent India’s transition from voluntary efficiency measures (like PAT) to legally binding climate compliance. They operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS). Statement 3 is also correct; the second round of sectors notified includes petroleum refineries, petrochemicals, textiles, and secondary aluminium, adding 208 industrial units to the mandate. An earlier round in October 2025 had already covered aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper. Statement 2 is incorrect due to the division of institutional responsibilities. While the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for the issuance and calculation of carbon credits, the enforcement of compliance and the imposition of penalties fall under the jurisdiction of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The rules set a baseline year of 2023–24 and aim for a 3–7% reduction in emission intensity by 2026–27. Non-compliance results in “environmental compensation” penalties equal to twice the average carbon credit price. This framework strengthens the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) and helps India meet its NDC target of a 45% reduction in GDP emission intensity by 2030.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the ‘Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity (GEI) Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025’, consider the following statements:

• These rules are the first legally binding industrial emission intensity regulations in India.

• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for enforcing compliance and imposing penalties.

• The second round of targets covers sectors such as petroleum refineries and secondary aluminium.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The GEI Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025, mark a significant shift in India’s climate policy.

• Statement 1 is correct as these rules represent India’s transition from voluntary efficiency measures (like PAT) to legally binding climate compliance. They operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS). Statement 3 is also correct; the second round of sectors notified includes petroleum refineries, petrochemicals, textiles, and secondary aluminium, adding 208 industrial units to the mandate. An earlier round in October 2025 had already covered aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper.

• Statement 2 is incorrect due to the division of institutional responsibilities. While the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for the issuance and calculation of carbon credits, the enforcement of compliance and the imposition of penalties fall under the jurisdiction of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

• The rules set a baseline year of 2023–24 and aim for a 3–7% reduction in emission intensity by 2026–27. Non-compliance results in “environmental compensation” penalties equal to twice the average carbon credit price. This framework strengthens the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) and helps India meet its NDC target of a 45% reduction in GDP emission intensity by 2030.

Solution: C

• The GEI Target (Amendment) Rules, 2025, mark a significant shift in India’s climate policy.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026’: It was launched by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to complement the Human Development Index. India is the top-ranked Asian nation in the index. The index uses a power-centric metric to evaluate the global dominance of nations. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026 is a new global benchmark aimed at shifting the focus of national assessment. Statement 1 is incorrect because the RNI was launched under the aegis of the World Intellectual Foundation (WIF), not the UNDP. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the index is specifically designed to be responsibility-centric rather than power-centric. It moves away from traditional metrics like GDP or military power, instead focusing on ethical governance, social well-being, environmental stewardship, and global responsibility. Statement 2 is correct. In the 2026 rankings, India is ranked 16th globally with a score of 0.5515, making it the top-ranked Asian nation, ahead of South Korea, Thailand, and Kyrgyzstan. The index highlights a strong European presence in institutional ethics, with 9 of the top 10 countries being European (Singapore is Rank 1). By integrating moral values and humanitarian outcomes into its framework, the RNI encourages policy introspection and international cooperation. It serves as a normative tool to complement global goals like the SDGs, emphasizing that a nation’s success should be measured by its contribution to global well-being and ethical conduct rather than just economic output. Incorrect Solution: A The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026 is a new global benchmark aimed at shifting the focus of national assessment. Statement 1 is incorrect because the RNI was launched under the aegis of the World Intellectual Foundation (WIF), not the UNDP. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the index is specifically designed to be responsibility-centric rather than power-centric. It moves away from traditional metrics like GDP or military power, instead focusing on ethical governance, social well-being, environmental stewardship, and global responsibility. Statement 2 is correct. In the 2026 rankings, India is ranked 16th globally with a score of 0.5515, making it the top-ranked Asian nation, ahead of South Korea, Thailand, and Kyrgyzstan. The index highlights a strong European presence in institutional ethics, with 9 of the top 10 countries being European (Singapore is Rank 1). By integrating moral values and humanitarian outcomes into its framework, the RNI encourages policy introspection and international cooperation. It serves as a normative tool to complement global goals like the SDGs, emphasizing that a nation’s success should be measured by its contribution to global well-being and ethical conduct rather than just economic output.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026’:

• It was launched by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to complement the Human Development Index.

• India is the top-ranked Asian nation in the index.

• The index uses a power-centric metric to evaluate the global dominance of nations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026 is a new global benchmark aimed at shifting the focus of national assessment.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the RNI was launched under the aegis of the World Intellectual Foundation (WIF), not the UNDP.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; the index is specifically designed to be responsibility-centric rather than power-centric. It moves away from traditional metrics like GDP or military power, instead focusing on ethical governance, social well-being, environmental stewardship, and global responsibility.

• Statement 2 is correct. In the 2026 rankings, India is ranked 16th globally with a score of 0.5515, making it the top-ranked Asian nation, ahead of South Korea, Thailand, and Kyrgyzstan. The index highlights a strong European presence in institutional ethics, with 9 of the top 10 countries being European (Singapore is Rank 1).

• By integrating moral values and humanitarian outcomes into its framework, the RNI encourages policy introspection and international cooperation. It serves as a normative tool to complement global goals like the SDGs, emphasizing that a nation’s success should be measured by its contribution to global well-being and ethical conduct rather than just economic output.

Solution: A

• The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) 2026 is a new global benchmark aimed at shifting the focus of national assessment.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the RNI was launched under the aegis of the World Intellectual Foundation (WIF), not the UNDP.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Parbati Giri: She is famously known as the “Mother Teresa of Western Odisha” for her extensive social work. She was a prominent leader of the Quit India Movement and was known as “Banhi Kanya”. She was a contemporary of Mahatma Gandhi and based her social reforms on Gandhian principles. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Parbati Giri was a towering figure in the Indian freedom struggle and social reform movement in Odisha. Born in 1926, she was deeply influenced by the nationalist activities of her family and the broader Congress movement. Statement 1 is correct; her lifelong commitment to the poor, orphans, and marginalized groups earned her the title “Mother Teresa of Western Odisha.” After independence, she did not seek political office but instead dedicated herself to relief work, leprosy eradication, and the welfare of tribal communities. Statement 2 is correct as she played a heroic role in the Quit India Movement of 1942. At the young age of 16, she led rallies and openly defied British authority, which led to her two-year imprisonment. Her fearless nature in mobilizing the masses and her bold acts of resistance earned her the epithet “Banhi Kanya” (Fire Maiden). Statement 3 is also correct; she was a staunch follower of Gandhian principles. She left formal education early to join Congress organizational work and was a key proponent of the Khadi and Charkha movement. Her legacy is marked by a seamless transition from revolutionary nationalism to selfless social service, reflecting the ethical public life advocated by the Mahatma. Incorrect Solution: D Parbati Giri was a towering figure in the Indian freedom struggle and social reform movement in Odisha. Born in 1926, she was deeply influenced by the nationalist activities of her family and the broader Congress movement. Statement 1 is correct; her lifelong commitment to the poor, orphans, and marginalized groups earned her the title “Mother Teresa of Western Odisha.” After independence, she did not seek political office but instead dedicated herself to relief work, leprosy eradication, and the welfare of tribal communities. Statement 2 is correct as she played a heroic role in the Quit India Movement of 1942. At the young age of 16, she led rallies and openly defied British authority, which led to her two-year imprisonment. Her fearless nature in mobilizing the masses and her bold acts of resistance earned her the epithet “Banhi Kanya” (Fire Maiden). Statement 3 is also correct; she was a staunch follower of Gandhian principles. She left formal education early to join Congress organizational work and was a key proponent of the Khadi and Charkha movement. Her legacy is marked by a seamless transition from revolutionary nationalism to selfless social service, reflecting the ethical public life advocated by the Mahatma.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Parbati Giri:

• She is famously known as the “Mother Teresa of Western Odisha” for her extensive social work.

• She was a prominent leader of the Quit India Movement and was known as “Banhi Kanya”.

• She was a contemporary of Mahatma Gandhi and based her social reforms on Gandhian principles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Parbati Giri was a towering figure in the Indian freedom struggle and social reform movement in Odisha. Born in 1926, she was deeply influenced by the nationalist activities of her family and the broader Congress movement.

• Statement 1 is correct; her lifelong commitment to the poor, orphans, and marginalized groups earned her the title “Mother Teresa of Western Odisha.” After independence, she did not seek political office but instead dedicated herself to relief work, leprosy eradication, and the welfare of tribal communities.

• Statement 2 is correct as she played a heroic role in the Quit India Movement of 1942. At the young age of 16, she led rallies and openly defied British authority, which led to her two-year imprisonment. Her fearless nature in mobilizing the masses and her bold acts of resistance earned her the epithet “Banhi Kanya” (Fire Maiden).

• Statement 3 is also correct; she was a staunch follower of Gandhian principles. She left formal education early to join Congress organizational work and was a key proponent of the Khadi and Charkha movement. Her legacy is marked by a seamless transition from revolutionary nationalism to selfless social service, reflecting the ethical public life advocated by the Mahatma.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Hooghly River’, consider the following statements: It is a major distributary of the Ganga River system formed by the junction of the Bhagirathi and Jalangi rivers. The river is non-tidal, which makes it ideal for the navigation of large ocean-going vessels. The Damodar and Rupnarayan are significant tributaries that flow into the Hooghly. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Hooghly River is the lifeblood of West Bengal’s economy and culture. Statement 1 is correct; it is a vital distributary of the Ganga, originating at Nabadwip where the Bhagirathi and Jalangi rivers meet. It flows through several districts before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Hooghly is a highly tidal river. It is famous for its tidal bore, a wall of water that moves upstream during high tide. While this tidal nature aids the navigation of large vessels up to the Port of Kolkata, it also causes significant siltation, requiring constant dredging to maintain the shipping channel. Statement 3 is correct; the river receives water from several important tributaries, including the Damodar, Rupnarayan, Ajay, and Haldi. The river is also home to iconic infrastructure like the Howrah Bridge. However, it faces severe environmental challenges. Recently, the State Mission for Clean Ganga (SMCG) began using drones to map pollution sources along a 120 km stretch of the river. This technological intervention is necessary to address the high levels of sewage discharge and industrial effluents that threaten the river’s ecological health. Incorrect Solution: B The Hooghly River is the lifeblood of West Bengal’s economy and culture. Statement 1 is correct; it is a vital distributary of the Ganga, originating at Nabadwip where the Bhagirathi and Jalangi rivers meet. It flows through several districts before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Hooghly is a highly tidal river. It is famous for its tidal bore, a wall of water that moves upstream during high tide. While this tidal nature aids the navigation of large vessels up to the Port of Kolkata, it also causes significant siltation, requiring constant dredging to maintain the shipping channel. Statement 3 is correct; the river receives water from several important tributaries, including the Damodar, Rupnarayan, Ajay, and Haldi. The river is also home to iconic infrastructure like the Howrah Bridge. However, it faces severe environmental challenges. Recently, the State Mission for Clean Ganga (SMCG) began using drones to map pollution sources along a 120 km stretch of the river. This technological intervention is necessary to address the high levels of sewage discharge and industrial effluents that threaten the river’s ecological health.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the ‘Hooghly River’, consider the following statements:

• It is a major distributary of the Ganga River system formed by the junction of the Bhagirathi and Jalangi rivers.

• The river is non-tidal, which makes it ideal for the navigation of large ocean-going vessels.

• The Damodar and Rupnarayan are significant tributaries that flow into the Hooghly.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Hooghly River is the lifeblood of West Bengal’s economy and culture.

• Statement 1 is correct; it is a vital distributary of the Ganga, originating at Nabadwip where the Bhagirathi and Jalangi rivers meet. It flows through several districts before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the Hooghly is a highly tidal river. It is famous for its tidal bore, a wall of water that moves upstream during high tide. While this tidal nature aids the navigation of large vessels up to the Port of Kolkata, it also causes significant siltation, requiring constant dredging to maintain the shipping channel.

• Statement 3 is correct; the river receives water from several important tributaries, including the Damodar, Rupnarayan, Ajay, and Haldi. The river is also home to iconic infrastructure like the Howrah Bridge. However, it faces severe environmental challenges.

• Recently, the State Mission for Clean Ganga (SMCG) began using drones to map pollution sources along a 120 km stretch of the river. This technological intervention is necessary to address the high levels of sewage discharge and industrial effluents that threaten the river’s ecological health.

Solution: B

• The Hooghly River is the lifeblood of West Bengal’s economy and culture.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Niryat Protsahan’ and ‘Niryat Disha’ under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM): Niryat Protsahan provides interest subvention on pre-shipment and post-shipment credit. Niryat Disha focuses on cluster and district capacity building. Both schemes are designed to merge multiple fragmented export-support frameworks. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is structured to provide both financial and non-financial support to Indian exporters. Statement 1 is correct; Niryat Protsahan is the financial arm of the mission. It offers interest subvention on export credit, which is crucial for maintaining the liquidity and competitiveness of exporters. It also includes modern financial tools like export factoring and e-commerce exporter credit cards. Statement 2 is correct; Niryat Disha handles the non-financial aspects of the mission. Its goal is to make exporters “global market-ready” by focusing on quality certification, branding, and district-level capacity building. This is particularly important for the “One District One Product” (ODOP) initiative. Statement 3 is also correct; a central objective of the EPM is to create a unified mission architecture. By merging previously fragmented and overlapping schemes into these two integrated sub-schemes, the government aims to reduce administrative complexity and provide a single-window digital experience through the DGFT. This holistic approach ensures that an exporter receives both the capital (Protsahan) and the skills/logistics (Disha) needed to succeed internationally. Incorrect Solution: D The Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is structured to provide both financial and non-financial support to Indian exporters. Statement 1 is correct; Niryat Protsahan is the financial arm of the mission. It offers interest subvention on export credit, which is crucial for maintaining the liquidity and competitiveness of exporters. It also includes modern financial tools like export factoring and e-commerce exporter credit cards. Statement 2 is correct; Niryat Disha handles the non-financial aspects of the mission. Its goal is to make exporters “global market-ready” by focusing on quality certification, branding, and district-level capacity building. This is particularly important for the “One District One Product” (ODOP) initiative. Statement 3 is also correct; a central objective of the EPM is to create a unified mission architecture. By merging previously fragmented and overlapping schemes into these two integrated sub-schemes, the government aims to reduce administrative complexity and provide a single-window digital experience through the DGFT. This holistic approach ensures that an exporter receives both the capital (Protsahan) and the skills/logistics (Disha) needed to succeed internationally.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Niryat Protsahan’ and ‘Niryat Disha’ under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM):

• Niryat Protsahan provides interest subvention on pre-shipment and post-shipment credit.

• Niryat Disha focuses on cluster and district capacity building.

• Both schemes are designed to merge multiple fragmented export-support frameworks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is structured to provide both financial and non-financial support to Indian exporters.

• Statement 1 is correct; Niryat Protsahan is the financial arm of the mission. It offers interest subvention on export credit, which is crucial for maintaining the liquidity and competitiveness of exporters. It also includes modern financial tools like export factoring and e-commerce exporter credit cards.

• Statement 2 is correct; Niryat Disha handles the non-financial aspects of the mission. Its goal is to make exporters “global market-ready” by focusing on quality certification, branding, and district-level capacity building. This is particularly important for the “One District One Product” (ODOP) initiative.

• Statement 3 is also correct; a central objective of the EPM is to create a unified mission architecture. By merging previously fragmented and overlapping schemes into these two integrated sub-schemes, the government aims to reduce administrative complexity and provide a single-window digital experience through the DGFT. This holistic approach ensures that an exporter receives both the capital (Protsahan) and the skills/logistics (Disha) needed to succeed internationally.

Solution: D

• The Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is structured to provide both financial and non-financial support to Indian exporters.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to aerosols and their impact on weather, which of the following statements is/are correct? They increase the brightness and longevity of clouds, which can alter rainfall patterns. High aerosol concentration always leads to increased ground-level temperatures. Natural sources like volcanic ash and sea spray contribute more to aerosol levels than human-made sources globally. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Aerosols act as surfaces for water vapor to condense. By increasing the number of droplets in a cloud, they make the cloud more reflective (brighter) and can change how long the cloud lasts, which directly impacts rainfall patterns. Statement 2 is incorrect. Aerosols do not “always” increase temperature. While Black Carbon absorbs heat, most aerosols (like sulfates) reflect sunlight back to space, leading to a cooling effect at the surface. Statement 3 is incorrect as a general rule in the context of recent climate studies; while natural sources (dust, sea spray) are massive, in many regions—especially North India during winter—anthropogenic (human) sources like biomass burning, vehicle emissions, and industrial pollution are the dominant drivers of local weather phenomena like smog and intensified fog. The IIT Madras study highlighted that human-led pollution aerosols are specifically responsible for the intensifying winter fog in the Indo-Gangetic plain. Aerosols are diverse in origin and effect, making them a complex factor in climate modeling. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Aerosols act as surfaces for water vapor to condense. By increasing the number of droplets in a cloud, they make the cloud more reflective (brighter) and can change how long the cloud lasts, which directly impacts rainfall patterns. Statement 2 is incorrect. Aerosols do not “always” increase temperature. While Black Carbon absorbs heat, most aerosols (like sulfates) reflect sunlight back to space, leading to a cooling effect at the surface. Statement 3 is incorrect as a general rule in the context of recent climate studies; while natural sources (dust, sea spray) are massive, in many regions—especially North India during winter—anthropogenic (human) sources like biomass burning, vehicle emissions, and industrial pollution are the dominant drivers of local weather phenomena like smog and intensified fog. The IIT Madras study highlighted that human-led pollution aerosols are specifically responsible for the intensifying winter fog in the Indo-Gangetic plain. Aerosols are diverse in origin and effect, making them a complex factor in climate modeling.

#### 8. Question

With reference to aerosols and their impact on weather, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• They increase the brightness and longevity of clouds, which can alter rainfall patterns.

• High aerosol concentration always leads to increased ground-level temperatures.

• Natural sources like volcanic ash and sea spray contribute more to aerosol levels than human-made sources globally.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) None of the above

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Aerosols act as surfaces for water vapor to condense. By increasing the number of droplets in a cloud, they make the cloud more reflective (brighter) and can change how long the cloud lasts, which directly impacts rainfall patterns.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Aerosols do not “always” increase temperature. While Black Carbon absorbs heat, most aerosols (like sulfates) reflect sunlight back to space, leading to a cooling effect at the surface.

• Statement 3 is incorrect as a general rule in the context of recent climate studies; while natural sources (dust, sea spray) are massive, in many regions—especially North India during winter—anthropogenic (human) sources like biomass burning, vehicle emissions, and industrial pollution are the dominant drivers of local weather phenomena like smog and intensified fog.

• The IIT Madras study highlighted that human-led pollution aerosols are specifically responsible for the intensifying winter fog in the Indo-Gangetic plain. Aerosols are diverse in origin and effect, making them a complex factor in climate modeling.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Coconut Root Wilt disease, recently in news is caused by which of the following? (a) A fungus that limits water transport in the xylem. (b) A virus transmitted through contaminated soil. (c) A phytoplasma that is phloem-limited. (d) A bacterium that infects the roots through waterlogging. Correct Solution: C Coconut Root Wilt (CRW) is caused by phytoplasmas, which are specialized bacteria-like organisms without cell walls. They are phloem-limited, meaning they live and multiply within the plant’s food-conducting tissues (phloem). This blockage of the phloem leads to the characteristic “wilting” or flaccidity symptoms because nutrients cannot be efficiently distributed. Unlike many fungal diseases, CRW is non-fatal, but it leads to a gradual decline in productivity, often reducing yield by over 50%. It is spread by insect vectors like the lace bug (Stephanitis typica) and the plant hopper (Proutista moesta). Because there is no chemical cure for phytoplasmas in the field, management focuses on integrated nutrient management, removing diseased palms that act as “inoculum sources,” and planting tolerant varieties like Kalparaksha or Kalpasree. Incorrect Solution: C Coconut Root Wilt (CRW) is caused by phytoplasmas, which are specialized bacteria-like organisms without cell walls. They are phloem-limited, meaning they live and multiply within the plant’s food-conducting tissues (phloem). This blockage of the phloem leads to the characteristic “wilting” or flaccidity symptoms because nutrients cannot be efficiently distributed. Unlike many fungal diseases, CRW is non-fatal, but it leads to a gradual decline in productivity, often reducing yield by over 50%. It is spread by insect vectors like the lace bug (Stephanitis typica) and the plant hopper (Proutista moesta). Because there is no chemical cure for phytoplasmas in the field, management focuses on integrated nutrient management, removing diseased palms that act as “inoculum sources,” and planting tolerant varieties like Kalparaksha or Kalpasree.

#### 9. Question

Coconut Root Wilt disease, recently in news is caused by which of the following?

• (a) A fungus that limits water transport in the xylem.

• (b) A virus transmitted through contaminated soil.

• (c) A phytoplasma that is phloem-limited.

• (d) A bacterium that infects the roots through waterlogging.

Solution: C

• Coconut Root Wilt (CRW) is caused by phytoplasmas, which are specialized bacteria-like organisms without cell walls. They are phloem-limited, meaning they live and multiply within the plant’s food-conducting tissues (phloem).

• This blockage of the phloem leads to the characteristic “wilting” or flaccidity symptoms because nutrients cannot be efficiently distributed. Unlike many fungal diseases, CRW is non-fatal, but it leads to a gradual decline in productivity, often reducing yield by over 50%.

• It is spread by insect vectors like the lace bug (Stephanitis typica) and the plant hopper (Proutista moesta). Because there is no chemical cure for phytoplasmas in the field, management focuses on integrated nutrient management, removing diseased palms that act as “inoculum sources,” and planting tolerant varieties like Kalparaksha or Kalpasree.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Lokpal’s jurisdiction: The Lokpal has the power to inquire into allegations of corruption against any Member of Parliament. The Lokpal can grant sanction for prosecution in respect of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. The Lokpal can investigate the activities of any society or trust receiving foreign contributions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against Members of Parliament under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. However, this power is subject to a crucial constitutional limitation: matters relating to speeches, votes, or actions taken inside Parliament are excluded from inquiry. Outside these protected legislative functions, MPs are treated as public servants for the purpose of anti-corruption oversight, bringing them within the Lokpal’s jurisdiction. Statement 2 is also correct. The Lokpal has been vested with the power to grant sanction for prosecution of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. This provision was incorporated to overcome systemic delays and conflicts of interest that arose when sanctioning authority rested with the executive, thereby strengthening independent and time-bound prosecution of corruption cases. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Lokpal does not acquire jurisdiction over a society or trust merely because it receives foreign contributions under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act. Under Section 14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, such bodies fall within Lokpal’s purview only when they receive financial assistance from the Central Government above a prescribed threshold. Foreign funding alone is regulated separately and does not trigger Lokpal jurisdiction. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against Members of Parliament under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. However, this power is subject to a crucial constitutional limitation: matters relating to speeches, votes, or actions taken inside Parliament are excluded from inquiry. Outside these protected legislative functions, MPs are treated as public servants for the purpose of anti-corruption oversight, bringing them within the Lokpal’s jurisdiction. Statement 2 is also correct. The Lokpal has been vested with the power to grant sanction for prosecution of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. This provision was incorporated to overcome systemic delays and conflicts of interest that arose when sanctioning authority rested with the executive, thereby strengthening independent and time-bound prosecution of corruption cases. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Lokpal does not acquire jurisdiction over a society or trust merely because it receives foreign contributions under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act. Under Section 14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, such bodies fall within Lokpal’s purview only when they receive financial assistance from the Central Government above a prescribed threshold. Foreign funding alone is regulated separately and does not trigger Lokpal jurisdiction.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Lokpal’s jurisdiction:

• The Lokpal has the power to inquire into allegations of corruption against any Member of Parliament.

• The Lokpal can grant sanction for prosecution in respect of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

• The Lokpal can investigate the activities of any society or trust receiving foreign contributions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against Members of Parliament under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. However, this power is subject to a crucial constitutional limitation: matters relating to speeches, votes, or actions taken inside Parliament are excluded from inquiry. Outside these protected legislative functions, MPs are treated as public servants for the purpose of anti-corruption oversight, bringing them within the Lokpal’s jurisdiction.

• Statement 2 is also correct. The Lokpal has been vested with the power to grant sanction for prosecution of public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. This provision was incorporated to overcome systemic delays and conflicts of interest that arose when sanctioning authority rested with the executive, thereby strengthening independent and time-bound prosecution of corruption cases.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Lokpal does not acquire jurisdiction over a society or trust merely because it receives foreign contributions under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act. Under Section 14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, such bodies fall within Lokpal’s purview only when they receive financial assistance from the Central Government above a prescribed threshold. Foreign funding alone is regulated separately and does not trigger Lokpal jurisdiction.

Solution: B

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