UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): It was originally a part of a combined commission for both Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Commission has the power to participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes. The Chairperson and members are appointed by the Prime Minister of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for SCs & STs. This resulted in the creation of a separate NCST under Article 338A, which became functional in 2004. Statement 2 is correct as it is a core constitutional mandate of the NCST to be involved in the planning and evaluation of development programs for STs. Statement 3 is incorrect. In accordance with the Constitution, the President of India, not the Prime Minister, appoints the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and the three members of the Commission by warrant under his hand and seal. This ensures the commission’s independent constitutional status. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for SCs & STs. This resulted in the creation of a separate NCST under Article 338A, which became functional in 2004. Statement 2 is correct as it is a core constitutional mandate of the NCST to be involved in the planning and evaluation of development programs for STs. Statement 3 is incorrect. In accordance with the Constitution, the President of India, not the Prime Minister, appoints the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and the three members of the Commission by warrant under his hand and seal. This ensures the commission’s independent constitutional status.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):

• It was originally a part of a combined commission for both Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

• The Commission has the power to participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes.

• The Chairperson and members are appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for SCs & STs. This resulted in the creation of a separate NCST under Article 338A, which became functional in 2004.

• Statement 2 is correct as it is a core constitutional mandate of the NCST to be involved in the planning and evaluation of development programs for STs.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. In accordance with the Constitution, the President of India, not the Prime Minister, appoints the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and the three members of the Commission by warrant under his hand and seal. This ensures the commission’s independent constitutional status.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct as it is a core constitutional mandate of the NCST to be involved in the planning and evaluation of development programs for STs.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Shalimar Wheat’ recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: These are early-maturing varieties specifically developed for the mid-altitude regions of Kashmir. They were developed using Transgenic technology to incorporate resistance against yellow rust. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; Shalimar Wheat-3 and 4 are adapted for mid-altitudes (up to 1,850 m) in Kashmir. Statement 2 is incorrect. These varieties were developed through conventional breeding techniques (cross-breeding and pedigree selection), not transgenic (GM) technology. Developing resistance to yellow rust—a major threat in cool, humid climates—was a key goal achieved through traditional selection. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; Shalimar Wheat-3 and 4 are adapted for mid-altitudes (up to 1,850 m) in Kashmir. Statement 2 is incorrect. These varieties were developed through conventional breeding techniques (cross-breeding and pedigree selection), not transgenic (GM) technology. Developing resistance to yellow rust—a major threat in cool, humid climates—was a key goal achieved through traditional selection.

#### 2. Question

With reference to ‘Shalimar Wheat’ recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

• These are early-maturing varieties specifically developed for the mid-altitude regions of Kashmir.

• They were developed using Transgenic technology to incorporate resistance against yellow rust.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; Shalimar Wheat-3 and 4 are adapted for mid-altitudes (up to 1,850 m) in Kashmir.

Statement 2 is incorrect. These varieties were developed through conventional breeding techniques (cross-breeding and pedigree selection), not transgenic (GM) technology. Developing resistance to yellow rust—a major threat in cool, humid climates—was a key goal achieved through traditional selection.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; Shalimar Wheat-3 and 4 are adapted for mid-altitudes (up to 1,850 m) in Kashmir.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding MILAN exercise: Statement I: The MILAN exercise serves as a platform for India’s “Act East Policy” and the “MAHASAGAR” vision. Statement II: The exercise is hosted biennially by the Indian Navy at the Andaman and Nicobar Command. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. MILAN is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy, aligning with the “Act East Policy” by engaging heavily with ASEAN, and the “MAHASAGAR” vision, which emphasizes security and growth for all in the region. Statement II is incorrect. While MILAN was traditionally held at Port Blair (Andaman and Nicobar Command) since its inception in 1995, recent large-scale editions, including MILAN 2022, 2024, and MILAN 2026, have been shifted to Visakhapatnam (Eastern Naval Command). This shift was necessitated by the need for more sea space and better infrastructure to accommodate the increasing number of participating foreign warships. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. MILAN is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy, aligning with the “Act East Policy” by engaging heavily with ASEAN, and the “MAHASAGAR” vision, which emphasizes security and growth for all in the region. Statement II is incorrect. While MILAN was traditionally held at Port Blair (Andaman and Nicobar Command) since its inception in 1995, recent large-scale editions, including MILAN 2022, 2024, and MILAN 2026, have been shifted to Visakhapatnam (Eastern Naval Command). This shift was necessitated by the need for more sea space and better infrastructure to accommodate the increasing number of participating foreign warships.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding MILAN exercise:

Statement I: The MILAN exercise serves as a platform for India’s “Act East Policy” and the “MAHASAGAR” vision.

Statement II: The exercise is hosted biennially by the Indian Navy at the Andaman and Nicobar Command.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. MILAN is a cornerstone of India’s maritime diplomacy, aligning with the “Act East Policy” by engaging heavily with ASEAN, and the “MAHASAGAR” vision, which emphasizes security and growth for all in the region.

• Statement II is incorrect. While MILAN was traditionally held at Port Blair (Andaman and Nicobar Command) since its inception in 1995, recent large-scale editions, including MILAN 2022, 2024, and MILAN 2026, have been shifted to Visakhapatnam (Eastern Naval Command). This shift was necessitated by the need for more sea space and better infrastructure to accommodate the increasing number of participating foreign warships.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Smooth-coated Otter’, consider the following statements: It is the smallest otter species found in Asia. It is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. The presence of these otters is considered a bio-indicator of a healthy aquatic ecosystem. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata) is actually one of the largest otter species in Asia, reaching lengths of up to 1.3 meters. The “Small-clawed otter” is the smallest. Statement 2 is correct; it is categorized as Vulnerable due to habitat loss and pollution. Statement 3 is correct. As apex predators in freshwater systems, otters are highly sensitive to water quality and fish availability. Their presence in the Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary (recorded recently for the first time) indicates that the river systems there are clean and provide a robust prey base of fish and amphibians. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata) is actually one of the largest otter species in Asia, reaching lengths of up to 1.3 meters. The “Small-clawed otter” is the smallest. Statement 2 is correct; it is categorized as Vulnerable due to habitat loss and pollution. Statement 3 is correct. As apex predators in freshwater systems, otters are highly sensitive to water quality and fish availability. Their presence in the Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary (recorded recently for the first time) indicates that the river systems there are clean and provide a robust prey base of fish and amphibians.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the ‘Smooth-coated Otter’, consider the following statements:

• It is the smallest otter species found in Asia.

• It is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.

• The presence of these otters is considered a bio-indicator of a healthy aquatic ecosystem.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata) is actually one of the largest otter species in Asia, reaching lengths of up to 1.3 meters. The “Small-clawed otter” is the smallest.

• Statement 2 is correct; it is categorized as Vulnerable due to habitat loss and pollution.

• Statement 3 is correct. As apex predators in freshwater systems, otters are highly sensitive to water quality and fish availability. Their presence in the Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary (recorded recently for the first time) indicates that the river systems there are clean and provide a robust prey base of fish and amphibians.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct; it is categorized as Vulnerable due to habitat loss and pollution.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the “Vibrant Villages Programme-II”, consider the following statements: It exclusively targets villages on the Indo-China border to counter external influence. The programme is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs. It aims to integrate border populations as active stakeholders in national security. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. VVP-I targeted the northern (Indo-China) border. VVP-II targets the other international land borders, including those with Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan, and Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct; the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for border management and the VVP. Statement 3 is correct. The philosophy of the scheme is that a developed, happy, and integrated border population is the best defense. By calling them the “eyes and ears” of the security forces, the government is moving from a purely military approach to a community-led security model, where local people have a stake in the peace and stability of the region. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. VVP-I targeted the northern (Indo-China) border. VVP-II targets the other international land borders, including those with Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan, and Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct; the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for border management and the VVP. Statement 3 is correct. The philosophy of the scheme is that a developed, happy, and integrated border population is the best defense. By calling them the “eyes and ears” of the security forces, the government is moving from a purely military approach to a community-led security model, where local people have a stake in the peace and stability of the region.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the “Vibrant Villages Programme-II”, consider the following statements:

• It exclusively targets villages on the Indo-China border to counter external influence.

• The programme is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

• It aims to integrate border populations as active stakeholders in national security.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. VVP-I targeted the northern (Indo-China) border. VVP-II targets the other international land borders, including those with Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan, and Pakistan.

• Statement 2 is correct; the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for border management and the VVP.

• Statement 3 is correct. The philosophy of the scheme is that a developed, happy, and integrated border population is the best defense. By calling them the “eyes and ears” of the security forces, the government is moving from a purely military approach to a community-led security model, where local people have a stake in the peace and stability of the region.

Solution: D

• Statement 2 is correct; the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for border management and the VVP.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Drogue Parachute” technology: These parachutes are designed to function effectively under supersonic speeds and rapid turbulence. Unlike main parachutes, drogues have a lower surface area to provide controlled deceleration without shredding. In the Gaganyaan mission, they are deployed before the apex cover is separated. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Drogue parachutes are “workhorses” designed for the harshest part of the descent. They have a smaller surface area (often with a ribbon design) so that the air resistance doesn’t tear them apart at high speeds. This allows for controlled deceleration, bringing the craft to a speed where the much larger, more fragile Main parachutes can be safely deployed. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sequence is vital: the Apex Cover Separation Parachutes must deploy first to remove the protective cover of the module’s parachute bay. Only after this cover is gone can the Drogues be deployed. Reversing this order would lead to a deployment failure. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Drogue parachutes are “workhorses” designed for the harshest part of the descent. They have a smaller surface area (often with a ribbon design) so that the air resistance doesn’t tear them apart at high speeds. This allows for controlled deceleration, bringing the craft to a speed where the much larger, more fragile Main parachutes can be safely deployed. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sequence is vital: the Apex Cover Separation Parachutes must deploy first to remove the protective cover of the module’s parachute bay. Only after this cover is gone can the Drogues be deployed. Reversing this order would lead to a deployment failure.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Drogue Parachute” technology:

• These parachutes are designed to function effectively under supersonic speeds and rapid turbulence.

• Unlike main parachutes, drogues have a lower surface area to provide controlled deceleration without shredding.

• In the Gaganyaan mission, they are deployed before the apex cover is separated.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Drogue parachutes are “workhorses” designed for the harshest part of the descent. They have a smaller surface area (often with a ribbon design) so that the air resistance doesn’t tear them apart at high speeds. This allows for controlled deceleration, bringing the craft to a speed where the much larger, more fragile Main parachutes can be safely deployed.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The sequence is vital: the Apex Cover Separation Parachutes must deploy first to remove the protective cover of the module’s parachute bay. Only after this cover is gone can the Drogues be deployed. Reversing this order would lead to a deployment failure.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC): Statement I: The CEC can be removed from office only through a process of impeachment initiated in the Lok Sabha. Statement II: The grounds for removal of the CEC are the same as those for a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement III: A special majority of both Houses of Parliament is required to pass the motion for removal. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While the procedure is similar to impeachment, the Constitution uses the phrase “in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” Furthermore, the motion can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not just the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 324(5), the CEC is provided with security of tenure. The grounds for removal are specifically “proved misbehaviour or incapacity,” which are the identical grounds stipulated for Supreme Court judges under Article 124(4). Statement 3 is correct: The removal requires a special majority—a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While the procedure is similar to impeachment, the Constitution uses the phrase “in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” Furthermore, the motion can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not just the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 324(5), the CEC is provided with security of tenure. The grounds for removal are specifically “proved misbehaviour or incapacity,” which are the identical grounds stipulated for Supreme Court judges under Article 124(4). Statement 3 is correct: The removal requires a special majority—a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):

Statement I: The CEC can be removed from office only through a process of impeachment initiated in the Lok Sabha.

Statement II: The grounds for removal of the CEC are the same as those for a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement III: A special majority of both Houses of Parliament is required to pass the motion for removal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While the procedure is similar to impeachment, the Constitution uses the phrase “in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” Furthermore, the motion can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not just the Lok Sabha.

• Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 324(5), the CEC is provided with security of tenure. The grounds for removal are specifically “proved misbehaviour or incapacity,” which are the identical grounds stipulated for Supreme Court judges under Article 124(4).

• Statement 3 is correct: The removal requires a special majority—a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative: It is a national governance framework aimed at the responsible adoption of AI within the Indian healthcare sector. The framework mandates that all AI-driven healthcare solutions must operate independently of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to ensure data silos for security. It provides a policy roadmap for both Union and State levels to ensure uniform standards in AI regulation. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D The SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative is a cornerstone of India’s digital health evolution. Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a governance framework and policy compass for ethical, transparent, and people-centric AI adoption. Statement 3 is correct because SAHI establishes clear guidelines for both the Union and State governments to prevent fragmented regulations and ensure uniform healthcare standards across India. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of SAHI is its focus on interoperability. Rather than creating silos, it ensures that AI solutions integrate seamlessly with existing digital infrastructure, specifically the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) This integration is vital for creating a holistic digital health ecosystem where data can flow securely between providers and patients. The initiative emphasizes ethical AI standards, including consent-based data usage and transparency in algorithms to mitigate bias. By fostering multi-stakeholder collaboration among startups, academia, and the government, SAHI aims to align technological innovation with national public health priorities, ensuring that AI serves as a tool for inclusive development rather than an unregulated technological experiment. Incorrect Solution: D The SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative is a cornerstone of India’s digital health evolution. Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a governance framework and policy compass for ethical, transparent, and people-centric AI adoption. Statement 3 is correct because SAHI establishes clear guidelines for both the Union and State governments to prevent fragmented regulations and ensure uniform healthcare standards across India. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of SAHI is its focus on interoperability. Rather than creating silos, it ensures that AI solutions integrate seamlessly with existing digital infrastructure, specifically the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) This integration is vital for creating a holistic digital health ecosystem where data can flow securely between providers and patients. The initiative emphasizes ethical AI standards, including consent-based data usage and transparency in algorithms to mitigate bias. By fostering multi-stakeholder collaboration among startups, academia, and the government, SAHI aims to align technological innovation with national public health priorities, ensuring that AI serves as a tool for inclusive development rather than an unregulated technological experiment.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative:

• It is a national governance framework aimed at the responsible adoption of AI within the Indian healthcare sector.

• The framework mandates that all AI-driven healthcare solutions must operate independently of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to ensure data silos for security.

• It provides a policy roadmap for both Union and State levels to ensure uniform standards in AI regulation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• The SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative is a cornerstone of India’s digital health evolution.

• Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a governance framework and policy compass for ethical, transparent, and people-centric AI adoption.

• Statement 3 is correct because SAHI establishes clear guidelines for both the Union and State governments to prevent fragmented regulations and ensure uniform healthcare standards across India.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of SAHI is its focus on interoperability. Rather than creating silos, it ensures that AI solutions integrate seamlessly with existing digital infrastructure, specifically the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) This integration is vital for creating a holistic digital health ecosystem where data can flow securely between providers and patients.

• The initiative emphasizes ethical AI standards, including consent-based data usage and transparency in algorithms to mitigate bias. By fostering multi-stakeholder collaboration among startups, academia, and the government, SAHI aims to align technological innovation with national public health priorities, ensuring that AI serves as a tool for inclusive development rather than an unregulated technological experiment.

Solution: D

• The SAHI (Strategy for Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare for India) initiative is a cornerstone of India’s digital health evolution.

• Statement 1 is correct as it serves as a governance framework and policy compass for ethical, transparent, and people-centric AI adoption.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt of 1946 is often regarded as the “Last War of Independence” that accelerated the British withdrawal from India. Statement-II: The revolt remained confined to the naval ratings of Bombay and Karachi, failing to garner support from the civilian population or other wings of the armed forces. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt, which began on February 18, 1946, was a watershed moment in the Indian freedom struggle. Statement-I is correct as the uprising signaled to the British that the armed forces—the ultimate instrument of colonial control—could no longer be relied upon. This realization significantly accelerated the British decision to transfer power. Statement-II is incorrect because the revolt was far from isolated. While it began at HMIS Talwar in Bombay, it rapidly spread to 78 ships and 20 shore establishments across Karachi, Madras, Vishakhapatnam, and Kolkata. More importantly, it triggered a massive wave of popular support. In Bombay, workers, students, and common citizens joined the ratings in street battles against British troops, leading to the death of nearly 200 civilians. The revolt also demonstrated remarkable communal harmony, with the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist Party being hoisted together on naval masts. The involvement of the civilian population in the “Bombay Uprising” turned a military mutiny into a broader anti-colonial rebellion, shattering the myth of British invincibility and imperial stability in the post-World War II era. Incorrect Solution: C The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt, which began on February 18, 1946, was a watershed moment in the Indian freedom struggle. Statement-I is correct as the uprising signaled to the British that the armed forces—the ultimate instrument of colonial control—could no longer be relied upon. This realization significantly accelerated the British decision to transfer power. Statement-II is incorrect because the revolt was far from isolated. While it began at HMIS Talwar in Bombay, it rapidly spread to 78 ships and 20 shore establishments across Karachi, Madras, Vishakhapatnam, and Kolkata. More importantly, it triggered a massive wave of popular support. In Bombay, workers, students, and common citizens joined the ratings in street battles against British troops, leading to the death of nearly 200 civilians. The revolt also demonstrated remarkable communal harmony, with the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist Party being hoisted together on naval masts. The involvement of the civilian population in the “Bombay Uprising” turned a military mutiny into a broader anti-colonial rebellion, shattering the myth of British invincibility and imperial stability in the post-World War II era.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt of 1946 is often regarded as the “Last War of Independence” that accelerated the British withdrawal from India.

Statement-II: The revolt remained confined to the naval ratings of Bombay and Karachi, failing to garner support from the civilian population or other wings of the armed forces.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt, which began on February 18, 1946, was a watershed moment in the Indian freedom struggle. Statement-I is correct as the uprising signaled to the British that the armed forces—the ultimate instrument of colonial control—could no longer be relied upon. This realization significantly accelerated the British decision to transfer power.

• Statement-II is incorrect because the revolt was far from isolated. While it began at HMIS Talwar in Bombay, it rapidly spread to 78 ships and 20 shore establishments across Karachi, Madras, Vishakhapatnam, and Kolkata. More importantly, it triggered a massive wave of popular support. In Bombay, workers, students, and common citizens joined the ratings in street battles against British troops, leading to the death of nearly 200 civilians.

• The revolt also demonstrated remarkable communal harmony, with the flags of the Congress, Muslim League, and Communist Party being hoisted together on naval masts. The involvement of the civilian population in the “Bombay Uprising” turned a military mutiny into a broader anti-colonial rebellion, shattering the myth of British invincibility and imperial stability in the post-World War II era.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Beat the Heat programme: Statement I: It is a global initiative focused on accelerating urban resilience against extreme heat through sustainable cooling strategies. Statement II: The programme is supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) through the Cool Coalition. Statement III: It primarily aims to provide financial subsidies for the mass adoption of traditional high-energy air conditioning units in developing nations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C The Beat the Heat programme is a critical climate adaptation initiative. Statement I is correct as it translates the Global Cooling Pledge into city-level action, focusing on urban cooling and resilience. Statement II is also correct; it is supported by the UNEP via the Cool Coalition and was announced under the COP30 Presidency. Statement III is incorrect because the programme’s objective is the opposite of promoting traditional, energy-intensive cooling. Instead, it advocates for efficient cooling technologies, nature-based solutions (like tree cover expansion), and passive cooling (like cool roofs and reflective surfaces). The goal is to protect vulnerable populations while simultaneously cutting greenhouse gas emissions from the cooling sector. Statement II explains Statement I because the UNEP’s involvement provides the institutional framework and expertise needed to implement these urban resilience strategies globally. The distinction between the UNEP’s infrastructure-focused initiative and the WHO’s health-focused initiative (for sports events) is an important nuance for aspirants to note. Incorrect Solution: C The Beat the Heat programme is a critical climate adaptation initiative. Statement I is correct as it translates the Global Cooling Pledge into city-level action, focusing on urban cooling and resilience. Statement II is also correct; it is supported by the UNEP via the Cool Coalition and was announced under the COP30 Presidency. Statement III is incorrect because the programme’s objective is the opposite of promoting traditional, energy-intensive cooling. Instead, it advocates for efficient cooling technologies, nature-based solutions (like tree cover expansion), and passive cooling (like cool roofs and reflective surfaces). The goal is to protect vulnerable populations while simultaneously cutting greenhouse gas emissions from the cooling sector. Statement II explains Statement I because the UNEP’s involvement provides the institutional framework and expertise needed to implement these urban resilience strategies globally. The distinction between the UNEP’s infrastructure-focused initiative and the WHO’s health-focused initiative (for sports events) is an important nuance for aspirants to note.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Beat the Heat programme:

Statement I: It is a global initiative focused on accelerating urban resilience against extreme heat through sustainable cooling strategies.

Statement II: The programme is supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) through the Cool Coalition.

Statement III: It primarily aims to provide financial subsidies for the mass adoption of traditional high-energy air conditioning units in developing nations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• The Beat the Heat programme is a critical climate adaptation initiative.

• Statement I is correct as it translates the Global Cooling Pledge into city-level action, focusing on urban cooling and resilience.

• Statement II is also correct; it is supported by the UNEP via the Cool Coalition and was announced under the COP30 Presidency.

• Statement III is incorrect because the programme’s objective is the opposite of promoting traditional, energy-intensive cooling. Instead, it advocates for efficient cooling technologies, nature-based solutions (like tree cover expansion), and passive cooling (like cool roofs and reflective surfaces). The goal is to protect vulnerable populations while simultaneously cutting greenhouse gas emissions from the cooling sector.

• Statement II explains Statement I because the UNEP’s involvement provides the institutional framework and expertise needed to implement these urban resilience strategies globally. The distinction between the UNEP’s infrastructure-focused initiative and the WHO’s health-focused initiative (for sports events) is an important nuance for aspirants to note.

Solution: C

• The Beat the Heat programme is a critical climate adaptation initiative.

• Statement I is correct as it translates the Global Cooling Pledge into city-level action, focusing on urban cooling and resilience.

• Statement II is also correct; it is supported by the UNEP via the Cool Coalition and was announced under the COP30 Presidency.

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