UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 April 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following are potential consequences of a GPS spoofing attack? Aircraft may be redirected to incorrect coordinates during autopilot navigation. Banks may face real-time transaction failure due to time drift in GPS. Naval vessels may misidentify their location, violating territorial waters. Cyber attackers may gain root access to GPS satellites through spoofing. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time. Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety. Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches. Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions. Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing. Incorrect Solution: c) GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time. Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety. Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches. Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions. Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing.
#### 1. Question
Which of the following are potential consequences of a GPS spoofing attack?
• Aircraft may be redirected to incorrect coordinates during autopilot navigation.
• Banks may face real-time transaction failure due to time drift in GPS.
• Naval vessels may misidentify their location, violating territorial waters.
• Cyber attackers may gain root access to GPS satellites through spoofing.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: c)
• GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time.
• Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety.
• Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches.
• Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions.
• Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing.
Solution: c)
• GPS spoofing is a cybersecurity threat in which false signals are transmitted to GPS receivers, causing them to miscalculate their location or time.
• Statement 1 is correct because aircraft, particularly during autopilot operations, heavily depend on GPS data for navigation. A spoofed signal could redirect them to erroneous coordinates, risking safety.
• Statement 2 is also correct since banking networks use GPS-based time synchronization for precise timestamping in financial transactions; spoofing can introduce subtle time drifts, leading to delays or mismatches.
• Statement 3 is valid as well; maritime vessels use GPS to navigate international waters, and a spoofed position can lead them to unknowingly violate territorial boundaries, potentially triggering diplomatic or military tensions.
• Statement 4 is incorrect — GPS spoofing deceives the end-user receiver, not the satellite infrastructure. Attackers cannot gain control over GPS satellites, as they are managed by secure ground control systems with no direct access via signal spoofing.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Type 5 Diabetes: It typically affects individuals with high BMI and sedentary lifestyles. It mimics symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes but differs in insulin response. It is largely prevalent in parts of Africa and South Asia. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Type 5 Diabetes, often referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct subtype that primarily affects individuals suffering from chronic undernutrition. Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 is not linked to high BMI or sedentary lifestyles. Instead, it emerges in lean individuals, typically due to prolonged nutritional deficiencies during childhood. Statement 2 is correct — the disease clinically resembles Type 1 Diabetes, with hallmark symptoms like excessive urination (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), and weight loss. However, the response to insulin is atypical. These individuals are highly susceptible to hypoglycemia due to fragile glucose reserves and compromised metabolic resilience. Statement 3 is also correct — Type 5 Diabetes is notably prevalent in resource-poor regions, particularly parts of Africa and South Asia, where early-life malnutrition and socio-economic vulnerabilities create fertile ground for its emergence. Awareness is limited, and standardized diagnostic protocols remain underdeveloped. Incorrect Solution: b) Type 5 Diabetes, often referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct subtype that primarily affects individuals suffering from chronic undernutrition. Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 is not linked to high BMI or sedentary lifestyles. Instead, it emerges in lean individuals, typically due to prolonged nutritional deficiencies during childhood. Statement 2 is correct — the disease clinically resembles Type 1 Diabetes, with hallmark symptoms like excessive urination (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), and weight loss. However, the response to insulin is atypical. These individuals are highly susceptible to hypoglycemia due to fragile glucose reserves and compromised metabolic resilience. Statement 3 is also correct — Type 5 Diabetes is notably prevalent in resource-poor regions, particularly parts of Africa and South Asia, where early-life malnutrition and socio-economic vulnerabilities create fertile ground for its emergence. Awareness is limited, and standardized diagnostic protocols remain underdeveloped.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Type 5 Diabetes:
• It typically affects individuals with high BMI and sedentary lifestyles.
• It mimics symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes but differs in insulin response.
• It is largely prevalent in parts of Africa and South Asia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
• Type 5 Diabetes, often referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct subtype that primarily affects individuals suffering from chronic undernutrition.
• Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 is not linked to high BMI or sedentary lifestyles. Instead, it emerges in lean individuals, typically due to prolonged nutritional deficiencies during childhood.
• Statement 2 is correct — the disease clinically resembles Type 1 Diabetes, with hallmark symptoms like excessive urination (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), and weight loss. However, the response to insulin is atypical. These individuals are highly susceptible to hypoglycemia due to fragile glucose reserves and compromised metabolic resilience.
Statement 3 is also correct — Type 5 Diabetes is notably prevalent in resource-poor regions, particularly parts of Africa and South Asia, where early-life malnutrition and socio-economic vulnerabilities create fertile ground for its emergence. Awareness is limited, and standardized diagnostic protocols remain underdeveloped.
Solution: b)
• Type 5 Diabetes, often referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct subtype that primarily affects individuals suffering from chronic undernutrition.
• Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 is not linked to high BMI or sedentary lifestyles. Instead, it emerges in lean individuals, typically due to prolonged nutritional deficiencies during childhood.
• Statement 2 is correct — the disease clinically resembles Type 1 Diabetes, with hallmark symptoms like excessive urination (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), and weight loss. However, the response to insulin is atypical. These individuals are highly susceptible to hypoglycemia due to fragile glucose reserves and compromised metabolic resilience.
Statement 3 is also correct — Type 5 Diabetes is notably prevalent in resource-poor regions, particularly parts of Africa and South Asia, where early-life malnutrition and socio-economic vulnerabilities create fertile ground for its emergence. Awareness is limited, and standardized diagnostic protocols remain underdeveloped.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the significance of AQUASTAT in global water governance? a) It regulates international water treaties under the UN Convention on Watercourses. b) It acts as a centralized financial fund for water infrastructure in developing countries. c) It serves as a global open-access database for water resources and agricultural water use. d) It enforces groundwater withdrawal limits through FAO compliance protocols. Correct Solution: c) AQUASTAT is not a regulatory or financial mechanism but a comprehensive, open-access data platform managed by the FAO’s Land and Water Division. Launched in the 1990s, it provides data on more than 180 water-related variables, including irrigation area, water withdrawal, storage capacity, and water use efficiency. It plays a key role in tracking SDG 6.4, which relates to sustainable water use. Option (a) is incorrect as the UN Watercourses Convention is a separate legal instrument. Option (b) confuses AQUASTAT with funding mechanisms like the Global Environment Facility. Option (d) is also incorrect — AQUASTAT supports policy but has no enforcement power. About AQUASTAT: What it is? AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries. Established by: Initiated in the 1990s by FAO’s Land and Water Division. Launched by: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO). Core Objectives: Monitor water use and irrigation globally. Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress. Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance. Key Functions & Features: Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward. Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools. Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting. Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity. Incorrect Solution: c) AQUASTAT is not a regulatory or financial mechanism but a comprehensive, open-access data platform managed by the FAO’s Land and Water Division. Launched in the 1990s, it provides data on more than 180 water-related variables, including irrigation area, water withdrawal, storage capacity, and water use efficiency. It plays a key role in tracking SDG 6.4, which relates to sustainable water use. Option (a) is incorrect as the UN Watercourses Convention is a separate legal instrument. Option (b) confuses AQUASTAT with funding mechanisms like the Global Environment Facility. Option (d) is also incorrect — AQUASTAT supports policy but has no enforcement power. About AQUASTAT: What it is? AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries. Established by: Initiated in the 1990s by FAO’s Land and Water Division. Launched by: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO). Core Objectives: Monitor water use and irrigation globally. Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress. Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance. Key Functions & Features: Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward. Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools. Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting. Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity.
#### 3. Question
Which of the following best explains the significance of AQUASTAT in global water governance?
• a) It regulates international water treaties under the UN Convention on Watercourses.
• b) It acts as a centralized financial fund for water infrastructure in developing countries.
• c) It serves as a global open-access database for water resources and agricultural water use.
• d) It enforces groundwater withdrawal limits through FAO compliance protocols.
Solution: c)
• AQUASTAT is not a regulatory or financial mechanism but a comprehensive, open-access data platform managed by the FAO’s Land and Water Division.
• Launched in the 1990s, it provides data on more than 180 water-related variables, including irrigation area, water withdrawal, storage capacity, and water use efficiency. It plays a key role in tracking SDG 6.4, which relates to sustainable water use.
• Option (a) is incorrect as the UN Watercourses Convention is a separate legal instrument. Option (b) confuses AQUASTAT with funding mechanisms like the Global Environment Facility. Option (d) is also incorrect — AQUASTAT supports policy but has no enforcement power.
About AQUASTAT:
• What it is? AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries.
• AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries.
• Established by: Initiated in the 1990s by FAO’s Land and Water Division.
• Launched by: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
• Core Objectives:
• Monitor water use and irrigation globally. Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress. Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance.
• Monitor water use and irrigation globally.
• Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress.
• Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance.
• Key Functions & Features:
• Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward. Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools. Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting. Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity.
• Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward.
• Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools.
• Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting.
• Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity.
Solution: c)
• AQUASTAT is not a regulatory or financial mechanism but a comprehensive, open-access data platform managed by the FAO’s Land and Water Division.
• Launched in the 1990s, it provides data on more than 180 water-related variables, including irrigation area, water withdrawal, storage capacity, and water use efficiency. It plays a key role in tracking SDG 6.4, which relates to sustainable water use.
• Option (a) is incorrect as the UN Watercourses Convention is a separate legal instrument. Option (b) confuses AQUASTAT with funding mechanisms like the Global Environment Facility. Option (d) is also incorrect — AQUASTAT supports policy but has no enforcement power.
About AQUASTAT:
• What it is? AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries.
• AQUASTAT is FAO’s global database on water resources and agricultural water management, providing open-access data on more than 180 variables across countries.
• Established by: Initiated in the 1990s by FAO’s Land and Water Division.
• Launched by: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
• Core Objectives:
• Monitor water use and irrigation globally. Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress. Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance.
• Monitor water use and irrigation globally.
• Track Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6.4 on water use efficiency and water stress.
• Support policy-making, planning, and international cooperation on water governance.
• Key Functions & Features:
• Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward. Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools. Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting. Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity.
• Data Coverage: Covers water resources, irrigation infrastructure, and efficiency indicators from 1960 onward.
• Dissemination Platform: New version features interactive maps, multilingual support, CSV/Excel downloads, and advanced search tools.
• Used in Global Reports: Informs UN World Water Development Report, and supports national SDG reporting.
• Collaborative Model: Engages member states to validate data and strengthen country-level capacity.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the long-term goal of the National Quantum Mission (NQM)? a) To build scalable quantum systems ranging from 50 to 1000 qubits b) To develop globally competitive 5G and 6G communication systems c) To launch India's first full-scale space-based quantum satellite d) To replace classical computing architectures with photonic-based systems Correct Solution: a) The National Quantum Mission’s (NQM) most ambitious goal is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 qubits, targeting both fundamental research and real-world applications. These systems will mark a significant advancement from current Noisy Intermediate-Scale Quantum (NISQ) systems. About National Quantum Mission (NQM): What it is? A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials. Launched in: Approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023, with a total budget of ₹6,003.65 crore (2023–2031). Nodal Organisation: Implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). Core Objectives: Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits). Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks. Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials. Mission Components: Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices Promote basic & applied research, innovation, and global competitiveness in quantum technologies. Incorrect Solution: a) The National Quantum Mission’s (NQM) most ambitious goal is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 qubits, targeting both fundamental research and real-world applications. These systems will mark a significant advancement from current Noisy Intermediate-Scale Quantum (NISQ) systems. About National Quantum Mission (NQM): What it is? A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials. Launched in: Approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023, with a total budget of ₹6,003.65 crore (2023–2031). Nodal Organisation: Implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). Core Objectives: Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits). Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks. Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials. Mission Components: Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices Promote basic & applied research, innovation, and global competitiveness in quantum technologies.
#### 4. Question
Which of the following best describes the long-term goal of the National Quantum Mission (NQM)?
• a) To build scalable quantum systems ranging from 50 to 1000 qubits
• b) To develop globally competitive 5G and 6G communication systems
• c) To launch India's first full-scale space-based quantum satellite
• d) To replace classical computing architectures with photonic-based systems
Solution: a)
The National Quantum Mission’s (NQM) most ambitious goal is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 qubits, targeting both fundamental research and real-world applications. These systems will mark a significant advancement from current Noisy Intermediate-Scale Quantum (NISQ) systems.
About National Quantum Mission (NQM):
• What it is? A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials.
• A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials.
• Launched in: Approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023, with a total budget of ₹6,003.65 crore (2023–2031).
• Nodal Organisation: Implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
• Core Objectives: Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits). Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks. Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials.
• Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits).
• Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks.
• Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials.
• Mission Components: Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices
• Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices
• Quantum Computing
• Quantum Communication
• Quantum Sensing & Metrology
• Quantum Materials & Devices
• Promote basic & applied research, innovation, and global competitiveness in quantum technologies.
Solution: a)
The National Quantum Mission’s (NQM) most ambitious goal is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 qubits, targeting both fundamental research and real-world applications. These systems will mark a significant advancement from current Noisy Intermediate-Scale Quantum (NISQ) systems.
About National Quantum Mission (NQM):
• What it is? A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials.
• A strategic national initiative to develop and deploy quantum technologies across computing, communication, sensing, and materials.
• Launched in: Approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023, with a total budget of ₹6,003.65 crore (2023–2031).
• Nodal Organisation: Implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
• Core Objectives: Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits). Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks. Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials.
• Build intermediate-scale quantum computers (50–1000 qubits).
• Develop quantum communication networks, secure quantum satellites, and atomic clocks.
• Promote quantum sensing, metrology, and quantum-grade materials.
• Mission Components: Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices
• Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) for: Quantum Computing Quantum Communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices
• Quantum Computing
• Quantum Communication
• Quantum Sensing & Metrology
• Quantum Materials & Devices
• Promote basic & applied research, innovation, and global competitiveness in quantum technologies.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Ironwood TPU (Tensor Processing Unit), recently in news: It is a general-purpose microprocessor used in Android phones. It supports Google’s AI workloads through Google Cloud infrastructure. It offers higher energy efficiency than CPU (Central Processing Units) and GPU (Graphics Processing Units) for AI-specific tasks. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect—Ironwood TPU is not used in consumer-grade devices like Android phones; it is designed for cloud-based AI processing. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Ironwood is deployed within Google Cloud’s AI infrastructure, powers services like YouTube recommendations and Search, and offers greater energy efficiency than CPUs/GPUs by being tailored for neural network operations, particularly tensor and matrix math. About Ironwood TPU: What it is? Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads. Developed by: Google Cloud’s AI Infrastructure team. Feature: AI-Specific Design: Ironwood is an ASIC chip built to process tensors—fundamental to machine learning. Faster Training: It significantly reduces AI model training time from weeks to just hours. Highly Specialised: More focused than CPUs/GPUs, it handles matrix operations and neural networks Google Ecosystem Backbone: Powers AI in Google Search, YouTube, and DeepMind Cloud-Ready Scalability: Fully integrated with Google Cloud to support large-scale AI applications. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect—Ironwood TPU is not used in consumer-grade devices like Android phones; it is designed for cloud-based AI processing. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Ironwood is deployed within Google Cloud’s AI infrastructure, powers services like YouTube recommendations and Search, and offers greater energy efficiency than CPUs/GPUs by being tailored for neural network operations, particularly tensor and matrix math. About Ironwood TPU: What it is? Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads. Developed by: Google Cloud’s AI Infrastructure team. Feature: AI-Specific Design: Ironwood is an ASIC chip built to process tensors—fundamental to machine learning. Faster Training: It significantly reduces AI model training time from weeks to just hours. Highly Specialised: More focused than CPUs/GPUs, it handles matrix operations and neural networks Google Ecosystem Backbone: Powers AI in Google Search, YouTube, and DeepMind Cloud-Ready Scalability: Fully integrated with Google Cloud to support large-scale AI applications.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about Ironwood TPU (Tensor Processing Unit), recently in news:
• It is a general-purpose microprocessor used in Android phones.
• It supports Google’s AI workloads through Google Cloud infrastructure.
• It offers higher energy efficiency than CPU (Central Processing Units) and GPU (Graphics Processing Units) for AI-specific tasks.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect—Ironwood TPU is not used in consumer-grade devices like Android phones; it is designed for cloud-based AI processing.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Ironwood is deployed within Google Cloud’s AI infrastructure, powers services like YouTube recommendations and Search, and offers greater energy efficiency than CPUs/GPUs by being tailored for neural network operations, particularly tensor and matrix math.
About Ironwood TPU:
• What it is? Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads.
• Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads.
• Developed by: Google Cloud’s AI Infrastructure team.
• Feature:
• AI-Specific Design: Ironwood is an ASIC chip built to process tensors—fundamental to machine learning.
• Faster Training: It significantly reduces AI model training time from weeks to just hours.
• Highly Specialised: More focused than CPUs/GPUs, it handles matrix operations and neural networks
• Google Ecosystem Backbone: Powers AI in Google Search, YouTube, and DeepMind
• Cloud-Ready Scalability: Fully integrated with Google Cloud to support large-scale AI applications.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect—Ironwood TPU is not used in consumer-grade devices like Android phones; it is designed for cloud-based AI processing.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Ironwood is deployed within Google Cloud’s AI infrastructure, powers services like YouTube recommendations and Search, and offers greater energy efficiency than CPUs/GPUs by being tailored for neural network operations, particularly tensor and matrix math.
About Ironwood TPU:
• What it is? Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads.
• Ironwood is the latest TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) developed by Google, designed exclusively for high-performance artificial intelligence workloads.
• Developed by: Google Cloud’s AI Infrastructure team.
• Feature:
• AI-Specific Design: Ironwood is an ASIC chip built to process tensors—fundamental to machine learning.
• Faster Training: It significantly reduces AI model training time from weeks to just hours.
• Highly Specialised: More focused than CPUs/GPUs, it handles matrix operations and neural networks
• Google Ecosystem Backbone: Powers AI in Google Search, YouTube, and DeepMind
• Cloud-Ready Scalability: Fully integrated with Google Cloud to support large-scale AI applications.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Registration System (CRS): The system is administered by the Registrar General of India under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Private hospitals are required to report births and deaths to local registrars. Data collected through CRS will be used to automatically update the National Population Register. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect—The Registrar General of India (RGI), who oversees CRS, functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Health. Statement 2 is correct—Private hospitals are mandated to report births and deaths to local registrars for official entry into the CRS database. Statement 3 is correct—As per the 2023 amendment, data from CRS will be used to automatically update key databases, including the National Population Register (NPR), ration card database, and other central schemes. About Registration of Birth and Death: What is it? A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India. Governing Authority: Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system. Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities). Governing Law: Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment). Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal. 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect—The Registrar General of India (RGI), who oversees CRS, functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Health. Statement 2 is correct—Private hospitals are mandated to report births and deaths to local registrars for official entry into the CRS database. Statement 3 is correct—As per the 2023 amendment, data from CRS will be used to automatically update key databases, including the National Population Register (NPR), ration card database, and other central schemes. About Registration of Birth and Death: What is it? A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India. Governing Authority: Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system. Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities). Governing Law: Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment). Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal. 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Registration System (CRS):
• The system is administered by the Registrar General of India under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Private hospitals are required to report births and deaths to local registrars.
• Data collected through CRS will be used to automatically update the National Population Register.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• a) 1 and 2 only
• b) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect—The Registrar General of India (RGI), who oversees CRS, functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Health.
• Statement 2 is correct—Private hospitals are mandated to report births and deaths to local registrars for official entry into the CRS database.
• Statement 3 is correct—As per the 2023 amendment, data from CRS will be used to automatically update key databases, including the National Population Register (NPR), ration card database, and other central schemes.
About Registration of Birth and Death:
• What is it? A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India.
• A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India.
• Governing Authority: Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system. Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities).
• Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system.
• Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities).
• Governing Law: Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment). Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal. 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
• Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment).
• Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment).
• Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal.
• Government hospitals act as official registrars.
• Private hospitals must report events to registrars.
• Registration must be done within 21 days of the event.
• Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal.
• 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
• Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration.
• Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect—The Registrar General of India (RGI), who oversees CRS, functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Health.
• Statement 2 is correct—Private hospitals are mandated to report births and deaths to local registrars for official entry into the CRS database.
• Statement 3 is correct—As per the 2023 amendment, data from CRS will be used to automatically update key databases, including the National Population Register (NPR), ration card database, and other central schemes.
About Registration of Birth and Death:
• What is it? A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India.
• A statutory process under the Civil Registration System (CRS) that mandates the recording of every birth and death occurring in India.
• Governing Authority: Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system. Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities).
• Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) oversees the system.
• Chief Registrars are appointed by State governments, and Registrars operate at local levels (panchayats, municipalities).
• Governing Law: Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment). Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal. 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
• Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, amended in 2023, makes digital registration mandatory. Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment).
• Section 23(2) of the Act penalises negligence by registrars with a fine (enhanced to ₹1,000 from ₹50 in the amendment).
• Registration Procedure: Government hospitals act as official registrars. Private hospitals must report events to registrars. Registration must be done within 21 days of the event. Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal.
• Government hospitals act as official registrars.
• Private hospitals must report events to registrars.
• Registration must be done within 21 days of the event.
• Post October 1, 2023, all records are maintained digitally through the Civil Registration System (CRS) portal.
• 2023 Amendment Highlights: Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration. Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
• Birth certificates from CRS are now the sole valid document for proving date of birth for: School admissions, Government jobs, Marriage registration, and Electoral rolls and property registration.
• Data from CRS will automatically update the: National Population Register (NPR), Ration card database, and Other central schemes.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the World Pandemic Treaty: 1. It mandates signatory nations to impose lockdowns during health emergencies declared by WHO. 2. It encourages knowledge and technology transfer related to vaccines and therapeutics. 3. It proposes establishing systems for pathogen access and benefit-sharing. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect — the treaty explicitly respects national sovereignty. It does not empower WHO to mandate lockdowns, vaccines, or other coercive public health measures. This has been a central point in discussions, especially to assuage concerns from developing nations. Statement 2 is correct — promoting equitable access through technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics is a core tenet. Statement 3 is also correct — the treaty seeks to establish access and benefit-sharing mechanisms for pathogens and genetic data, addressing long-standing asymmetries in outbreak response and vaccine access. About World Pandemic Treaty: What it is? A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics. Developed by: Negotiated by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), constituted under WHO in December 2021. Aim: To improve pandemic prevention, preparedness, and equitable response, using a One Health approach involving human, animal, and environmental health. Key Features: Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems. Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies. Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics. Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities. Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect — the treaty explicitly respects national sovereignty. It does not empower WHO to mandate lockdowns, vaccines, or other coercive public health measures. This has been a central point in discussions, especially to assuage concerns from developing nations. Statement 2 is correct — promoting equitable access through technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics is a core tenet. Statement 3 is also correct — the treaty seeks to establish access and benefit-sharing mechanisms for pathogens and genetic data, addressing long-standing asymmetries in outbreak response and vaccine access. About World Pandemic Treaty: What it is? A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics. Developed by: Negotiated by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), constituted under WHO in December 2021. Aim: To improve pandemic prevention, preparedness, and equitable response, using a One Health approach involving human, animal, and environmental health. Key Features: Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems. Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies. Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics. Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities. Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the World Pandemic Treaty:
- 1.It mandates signatory nations to impose lockdowns during health emergencies declared by WHO. 2. It encourages knowledge and technology transfer related to vaccines and therapeutics. 3. It proposes establishing systems for pathogen access and benefit-sharing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• a) 1 and 2 only
• b) 1, 2 and 3
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect — the treaty explicitly respects national sovereignty. It does not empower WHO to mandate lockdowns, vaccines, or other coercive public health measures. This has been a central point in discussions, especially to assuage concerns from developing nations.
• Statement 2 is correct — promoting equitable access through technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics is a core tenet.
• Statement 3 is also correct — the treaty seeks to establish access and benefit-sharing mechanisms for pathogens and genetic data, addressing long-standing asymmetries in outbreak response and vaccine access.
About World Pandemic Treaty:
• What it is? A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics.
• A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics.
• Developed by: Negotiated by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), constituted under WHO in December 2021.
• Aim: To improve pandemic prevention, preparedness, and equitable response, using a One Health approach involving human, animal, and environmental health.
• Key Features: Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems. Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies. Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics. Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities. Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines.
• Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems.
• Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies.
• Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics.
• Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities.
• Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines.
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect — the treaty explicitly respects national sovereignty. It does not empower WHO to mandate lockdowns, vaccines, or other coercive public health measures. This has been a central point in discussions, especially to assuage concerns from developing nations.
• Statement 2 is correct — promoting equitable access through technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics is a core tenet.
• Statement 3 is also correct — the treaty seeks to establish access and benefit-sharing mechanisms for pathogens and genetic data, addressing long-standing asymmetries in outbreak response and vaccine access.
About World Pandemic Treaty:
• What it is? A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics.
• A legally binding international instrument aimed at strengthening global response to future pandemics.
• Developed by: Negotiated by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), constituted under WHO in December 2021.
• Aim: To improve pandemic prevention, preparedness, and equitable response, using a One Health approach involving human, animal, and environmental health.
• Key Features: Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems. Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies. Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics. Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities. Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines.
• Establishes pathogen access and benefit-sharing systems.
• Strengthens global supply chains and logistics for health emergencies.
• Promotes technology and knowledge transfer for vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics.
• Mobilises skilled global health workforce and supports geographically balanced R&D capacities.
• Respects national sovereignty — does not allow WHO to mandate lockdowns, travel bans, or vaccines.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1. WHO was founded as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization. 2. The Director-General of WHO is nominated by the United Nations General Assembly. 3. WHO has operational command over national health ministries during pandemics. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA. Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries. About the World Health Organization (WHO): Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health. Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland. Core Objectives: Promote universal health coverage. Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being. Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening. Governance Structure: World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually. Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General. Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa). Funding Mechanism: Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues. Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA. Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries. About the World Health Organization (WHO): Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health. Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland. Core Objectives: Promote universal health coverage. Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being. Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening. Governance Structure: World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually. Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General. Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa). Funding Mechanism: Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues. Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies.
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements:
- 1.WHO was founded as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization. 2. The Director-General of WHO is nominated by the United Nations General Assembly. 3. WHO has operational command over national health ministries during pandemics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA.
• Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries.
About the World Health Organization (WHO):
• Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health.
• Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland.
Core Objectives:
• Promote universal health coverage.
• Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being.
• Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening.
Governance Structure:
• World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually.
• Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General.
• Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa).
• Funding Mechanism:
• Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues.
• Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies.
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is wrong — WHO was established on 7 April 1948 and not as a direct successor to the League of Nations Health Organization, although it inherited many of its health goals.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — the Director-General is elected by the World Health Assembly, not by the UNGA.
• Statement 3 is false — WHO is not an enforcement agency; it coordinates and advises but does not override national sovereignty, even during health emergencies. It cannot command health ministries.
About the World Health Organization (WHO):
• Established in: 1948, as a specialized agency of the United Nations focusing on international public health.
• Headquarters: Based in Geneva, Switzerland.
Core Objectives:
• Promote universal health coverage.
• Combat disease outbreaks, ensure health security, and advance public well-being.
• Support countries in policy development, emergency preparedness, and health system strengthening.
Governance Structure:
• World Health Assembly (WHA): Highest decision-making body; meets annually.
• Secretariat: Executes WHA’s decisions under the Director-General.
• Regional Offices: Six regional offices coordinate implementation (e.g., South-East Asia, Africa).
• Funding Mechanism:
• Assessed contributions: Mandatory membership dues.
• Voluntary contributions: Additional funding from countries, UN bodies, private sector, and philanthropies.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about QpiAI-Indus, India’s first full-stack quantum computer: 1. It uses superconducting qubits to process quantum data. 2. It was developed by a public sector PSU under Bharat Electronics. 3. It supports AI-driven quantum-classical hybrid applications. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. QpiAI-Indus utilizes superconducting qubits, one of the most mature quantum technologies, enabling higher fidelity and noise resistance. The system supports AI-quantum hybrid applications, allowing optimized execution of complex models, particularly in sectors like supply chain, life sciences, and computational chemistry. Statement 2 is incorrect — the quantum system is developed by QpiAI, a private startup supported under the National Quantum Mission and backed by the DST, not a PSU like Bharat Electronics. About India’s First Full-Stack Quantum Computer: What it is? QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing. Developed by: Created by QpiAI, a DST-supported startup under the National Quantum Mission. Key Features: Powered by 25 superconducting qubits. Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software. Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications. Sectors Impacted: Enables solutions in drug discovery, life sciences, logistics, climate action, and materials science. Incorrect Solution: c) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. QpiAI-Indus utilizes superconducting qubits, one of the most mature quantum technologies, enabling higher fidelity and noise resistance. The system supports AI-quantum hybrid applications, allowing optimized execution of complex models, particularly in sectors like supply chain, life sciences, and computational chemistry. Statement 2 is incorrect — the quantum system is developed by QpiAI, a private startup supported under the National Quantum Mission and backed by the DST, not a PSU like Bharat Electronics. About India’s First Full-Stack Quantum Computer: What it is? QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing. Developed by: Created by QpiAI, a DST-supported startup under the National Quantum Mission. Key Features: Powered by 25 superconducting qubits. Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software. Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications. Sectors Impacted: Enables solutions in drug discovery, life sciences, logistics, climate action, and materials science.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements about QpiAI-Indus, India’s first full-stack quantum computer:
- 1.It uses superconducting qubits to process quantum data. 2. It was developed by a public sector PSU under Bharat Electronics. 3. It supports AI-driven quantum-classical hybrid applications.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• a) 1 and 2 only
• b) 2 and 3 only
• c) 1 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. QpiAI-Indus utilizes superconducting qubits, one of the most mature quantum technologies, enabling higher fidelity and noise resistance. The system supports AI-quantum hybrid applications, allowing optimized execution of complex models, particularly in sectors like supply chain, life sciences, and computational chemistry.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — the quantum system is developed by QpiAI, a private startup supported under the National Quantum Mission and backed by the DST, not a PSU like Bharat Electronics.
About India’s First Full-Stack Quantum Computer:
• What it is? QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing.
• QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing.
• Developed by: Created by QpiAI, a DST-supported startup under the National Quantum Mission.
• Key Features: Powered by 25 superconducting qubits. Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software. Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications.
• Powered by 25 superconducting qubits.
• Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software.
• Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications.
• Sectors Impacted: Enables solutions in drug discovery, life sciences, logistics, climate action, and materials science.
Solution: c)
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. QpiAI-Indus utilizes superconducting qubits, one of the most mature quantum technologies, enabling higher fidelity and noise resistance. The system supports AI-quantum hybrid applications, allowing optimized execution of complex models, particularly in sectors like supply chain, life sciences, and computational chemistry.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — the quantum system is developed by QpiAI, a private startup supported under the National Quantum Mission and backed by the DST, not a PSU like Bharat Electronics.
About India’s First Full-Stack Quantum Computer:
• What it is? QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing.
• QpiAI-Indus is India’s first full-stack quantum system, integrating quantum hardware, software, and AI-enhanced hybrid computing.
• Developed by: Created by QpiAI, a DST-supported startup under the National Quantum Mission.
• Key Features: Powered by 25 superconducting qubits. Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software. Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications.
• Powered by 25 superconducting qubits.
• Equipped with next-gen Quantum-HPC platforms and AI-integrated software.
• Supports scalable control systems for real-world quantum applications.
• Sectors Impacted: Enables solutions in drug discovery, life sciences, logistics, climate action, and materials science.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why TPUs (Tensor Processing Unit) outperform GPUs (Graphics Processing Unit) in deep learning model training? a) TPUs use an application-specific architecture optimized for tensor operations. b) TPUs have higher thermal efficiency than GPUs. c) TPUs operate on electrical signals faster than GPUs. d) TPUs are integrated with operating systems better than GPUs. Correct Solution: a) TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models. Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions. This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube. Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU: Feature CPU (Central Processing Unit) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) Nature General-purpose processor Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks Application-specific processor for machine learning Primary Use Handles routine computing and sequential operations Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks Specialised for deep learning tensor computations Cores 2–16 per chip Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations Performance Efficient in sequential tasks Better for concurrent, parallel tasks Fastest in training and inference of ML models Flexibility Highly versatile Moderately flexible Narrow-purpose, highly optimised Example Use Word processing, browsing, OS control Gaming, video editing, ML model training Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models Incorrect Solution: a) TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models. Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions. This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube. Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU: Feature CPU (Central Processing Unit) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) TPU (Tensor Processing Unit) Nature General-purpose processor Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks Application-specific processor for machine learning Primary Use Handles routine computing and sequential operations Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks Specialised for deep learning tensor computations Cores 2–16 per chip Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations Performance Efficient in sequential tasks Better for concurrent, parallel tasks Fastest in training and inference of ML models Flexibility Highly versatile Moderately flexible Narrow-purpose, highly optimised Example Use Word processing, browsing, OS control Gaming, video editing, ML model training Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models
#### 10. Question
Which of the following best explains why TPUs (Tensor Processing Unit) outperform GPUs (Graphics Processing Unit) in deep learning model training?
• a) TPUs use an application-specific architecture optimized for tensor operations.
• b) TPUs have higher thermal efficiency than GPUs.
• c) TPUs operate on electrical signals faster than GPUs.
• d) TPUs are integrated with operating systems better than GPUs.
Solution: a)
• TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models.
• Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions.
• This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube.
Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU:
Feature | CPU (Central Processing Unit) | GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) | TPU (Tensor Processing Unit)
Nature | General-purpose processor | Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks | Application-specific processor for machine learning
Primary Use | Handles routine computing and sequential operations | Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks | Specialised for deep learning tensor computations
Cores | 2–16 per chip | Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution | Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations
Performance | Efficient in sequential tasks | Better for concurrent, parallel tasks | Fastest in training and inference of ML models
Flexibility | Highly versatile | Moderately flexible | Narrow-purpose, highly optimised
Example Use | Word processing, browsing, OS control | Gaming, video editing, ML model training | Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models
Solution: a)
• TPUs (Tensor Processing Units) are application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) designed by Google, built explicitly to accelerate tensor operations that are foundational to deep learning models.
• Unlike GPUs, which are general-purpose parallel processors optimized originally for graphics rendering and later adapted for machine learning, TPUs are architected to handle matrix multiplications efficiently, with hardware-level support for tensor operations like dot products and activation functions.
• This makes TPUs significantly faster and more energy-efficient than GPUs in training and inference of large-scale models. Their specialization allows Google to optimize performance in services like Search and YouTube.
Key Differences between TPU vs GPU vs CPU:
Feature | CPU (Central Processing Unit) | GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) | TPU (Tensor Processing Unit)
Nature | General-purpose processor | Parallel processor, mainly for visual and AI tasks | Application-specific processor for machine learning
Primary Use | Handles routine computing and sequential operations | Ideal for graphics rendering and ML parallel tasks | Specialised for deep learning tensor computations
Cores | 2–16 per chip | Thousands per chip for simultaneous task execution | Fewer, highly specialised cores for AI matrix operations
Performance | Efficient in sequential tasks | Better for concurrent, parallel tasks | Fastest in training and inference of ML models
Flexibility | Highly versatile | Moderately flexible | Narrow-purpose, highly optimised
Example Use | Word processing, browsing, OS control | Gaming, video editing, ML model training | Google Search AI, YouTube AI, DeepMind models
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