UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025: Statement-I: The NIC 2025 has explicitly introduced new classification classes for emerging sectors such as cloud services, blockchain, and AYUSH. Statement-II: The primary objective of the NIC 2025 revision is to align India’s economic activity coding system with the UN’s International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 5. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A The National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025 represents a significant structural update to reflect the evolving nature of the Indian economy. Statement-I is correct because the classification has been granularly expanded to explicitly include modern and emerging sectors like cloud services, blockchain, platform-based services, renewable energy, waste management, and AYUSH. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I. The revision was necessitated by the need to align with global standards, specifically the UN’s International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 5. By aligning with ISIC Rev 5, India adopts a framework that recognizes these new technological and service-oriented sectors, thereby explaining why specific new classes for cloud services or blockchain were introduced. The alignment allows for better international comparability and policy design. Incorrect Solution: A The National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025 represents a significant structural update to reflect the evolving nature of the Indian economy. Statement-I is correct because the classification has been granularly expanded to explicitly include modern and emerging sectors like cloud services, blockchain, platform-based services, renewable energy, waste management, and AYUSH. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I. The revision was necessitated by the need to align with global standards, specifically the UN’s International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 5. By aligning with ISIC Rev 5, India adopts a framework that recognizes these new technological and service-oriented sectors, thereby explaining why specific new classes for cloud services or blockchain were introduced. The alignment allows for better international comparability and policy design.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025:

Statement-I: The NIC 2025 has explicitly introduced new classification classes for emerging sectors such as cloud services, blockchain, and AYUSH.

Statement-II: The primary objective of the NIC 2025 revision is to align India’s economic activity coding system with the UN’s International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 5.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• The National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025 represents a significant structural update to reflect the evolving nature of the Indian economy.

• Statement-I is correct because the classification has been granularly expanded to explicitly include modern and emerging sectors like cloud services, blockchain, platform-based services, renewable energy, waste management, and AYUSH.

• Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I. The revision was necessitated by the need to align with global standards, specifically the UN’s International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 5. By aligning with ISIC Rev 5, India adopts a framework that recognizes these new technological and service-oriented sectors, thereby explaining why specific new classes for cloud services or blockchain were introduced. The alignment allows for better international comparability and policy design.

Solution: A

• The National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025 represents a significant structural update to reflect the evolving nature of the Indian economy.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Sentinel-6B Satellite: It is a mission led by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in collaboration with NASA. The satellite utilizes a Radar Altimeter to measure sea-surface height with millimetre-level accuracy. It includes an Advanced Microwave Radiometer to correct errors caused by atmospheric water vapour. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Sentinel-6B is a critical asset for global climate monitoring. Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission is not led by ISRO. It is a joint mission involving NASA, NOAA, the European Space Agency (ESA), Eumetsat, and the European Commission, with support from CNES. Statement 2 is correct: The satellite features a Radar Altimeter which measures sea-surface height by timing radar pulses, achieving millimetre accuracy. This is essential for tracking sea-level rise. Statement 3 is correct: To ensure precision, it carries an Advanced Microwave Radiometer. This instrument corrects errors in altimetry data that occur due to atmospheric water vapour, which can distort radar signals. The satellite orbits Earth at approximately 2 km/s and is part of the legacy line of Topex-Poseidon and Jason satellites. Incorrect Solution: A The Sentinel-6B is a critical asset for global climate monitoring. Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission is not led by ISRO. It is a joint mission involving NASA, NOAA, the European Space Agency (ESA), Eumetsat, and the European Commission, with support from CNES. Statement 2 is correct: The satellite features a Radar Altimeter which measures sea-surface height by timing radar pulses, achieving millimetre accuracy. This is essential for tracking sea-level rise. Statement 3 is correct: To ensure precision, it carries an Advanced Microwave Radiometer. This instrument corrects errors in altimetry data that occur due to atmospheric water vapour, which can distort radar signals. The satellite orbits Earth at approximately 2 km/s and is part of the legacy line of Topex-Poseidon and Jason satellites.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Sentinel-6B Satellite:

• It is a mission led by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in collaboration with NASA.

• The satellite utilizes a Radar Altimeter to measure sea-surface height with millimetre-level accuracy.

• It includes an Advanced Microwave Radiometer to correct errors caused by atmospheric water vapour.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Sentinel-6B is a critical asset for global climate monitoring.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission is not led by ISRO. It is a joint mission involving NASA, NOAA, the European Space Agency (ESA), Eumetsat, and the European Commission, with support from CNES.

• Statement 2 is correct: The satellite features a Radar Altimeter which measures sea-surface height by timing radar pulses, achieving millimetre accuracy. This is essential for tracking sea-level rise.

• Statement 3 is correct: To ensure precision, it carries an Advanced Microwave Radiometer. This instrument corrects errors in altimetry data that occur due to atmospheric water vapour, which can distort radar signals.

The satellite orbits Earth at approximately 2 km/s and is part of the legacy line of Topex-Poseidon and Jason satellites.

Solution: A

The Sentinel-6B is a critical asset for global climate monitoring.

The satellite orbits Earth at approximately 2 km/s and is part of the legacy line of Topex-Poseidon and Jason satellites.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Blackbuck’ (Antilope cervicapra), consider the following statements: It is naturally found in dense tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Only the mature males possess spirally twisted horns, exhibiting distinct sexual dimorphism. Territorial males use preorbital gland secretions to mark their domain. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Blackbuck is a species of antelope native to the Indian subcontinent. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Blackbuck prefers open short grasslands, semi-desert areas, and agricultural margins. It explicitly avoids dense forests as its primary defense mechanism is speed, which requires open terrain. Statement 2 is correct: It is afforded the highest level of protection in India, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 3 is correct: The species exhibits pronounced sexual dimorphism. Only mature males possess the long, spirally twisted horns and the dark coat; females are generally fawn-colored and hornless. Statement 4 is correct: Socially, territorial males mark their exclusive territories using dung middens and secretions from preorbital glands deposited on grass and twigs. Incorrect Solution: C The Blackbuck is a species of antelope native to the Indian subcontinent. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Blackbuck prefers open short grasslands, semi-desert areas, and agricultural margins. It explicitly avoids dense forests as its primary defense mechanism is speed, which requires open terrain. Statement 2 is correct: It is afforded the highest level of protection in India, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 3 is correct: The species exhibits pronounced sexual dimorphism. Only mature males possess the long, spirally twisted horns and the dark coat; females are generally fawn-colored and hornless. Statement 4 is correct: Socially, territorial males mark their exclusive territories using dung middens and secretions from preorbital glands deposited on grass and twigs.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the ‘Blackbuck’ (Antilope cervicapra), consider the following statements:

• It is naturally found in dense tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.

• It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Only the mature males possess spirally twisted horns, exhibiting distinct sexual dimorphism.

• Territorial males use preorbital gland secretions to mark their domain.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The Blackbuck is a species of antelope native to the Indian subcontinent.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Blackbuck prefers open short grasslands, semi-desert areas, and agricultural margins. It explicitly avoids dense forests as its primary defense mechanism is speed, which requires open terrain.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is afforded the highest level of protection in India, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Statement 3 is correct: The species exhibits pronounced sexual dimorphism. Only mature males possess the long, spirally twisted horns and the dark coat; females are generally fawn-colored and hornless.

• Statement 4 is correct: Socially, territorial males mark their exclusive territories using dung middens and secretions from preorbital glands deposited on grass and twigs.

Solution: C

The Blackbuck is a species of antelope native to the Indian subcontinent.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is afforded the highest level of protection in India, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Statement 4 is correct: Socially, territorial males mark their exclusive territories using dung middens and secretions from preorbital glands deposited on grass and twigs.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘YUVA AI for ALL’ initiative, consider the following statements: It is a paid certification course introduced by the Ministry of Education for engineering students. The initiative aims to democratize AI literacy by offering content tailored specifically to the Indian context using local examples. The course is developed under the IndiaAI Mission. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The YUVA AI for ALL initiative is a strategic move to enhance digital literacy. Statement 1 is incorrect: The course is completely free, not paid. Furthermore, it is designed for a broad audience (aiming to empower 1 crore Indians), including students, professionals, and curious learners, not just engineering students. It was launched by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and IT), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the course is its focus on democratizing AI literacy by using Indian examples to make the learning relatable and practical for the domestic population. Statement 3 is correct: The initiative was launched by MeitY under the IndiaAI Mission, highlighting the government’s focus on creating a future-ready workforce. Incorrect Solution: B The YUVA AI for ALL initiative is a strategic move to enhance digital literacy. Statement 1 is incorrect: The course is completely free, not paid. Furthermore, it is designed for a broad audience (aiming to empower 1 crore Indians), including students, professionals, and curious learners, not just engineering students. It was launched by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and IT), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the course is its focus on democratizing AI literacy by using Indian examples to make the learning relatable and practical for the domestic population. Statement 3 is correct: The initiative was launched by MeitY under the IndiaAI Mission, highlighting the government’s focus on creating a future-ready workforce.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the ‘YUVA AI for ALL’ initiative, consider the following statements:

• It is a paid certification course introduced by the Ministry of Education for engineering students.

• The initiative aims to democratize AI literacy by offering content tailored specifically to the Indian context using local examples.

• The course is developed under the IndiaAI Mission.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The YUVA AI for ALL initiative is a strategic move to enhance digital literacy.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The course is completely free, not paid. Furthermore, it is designed for a broad audience (aiming to empower 1 crore Indians), including students, professionals, and curious learners, not just engineering students. It was launched by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and IT), not the Ministry of Education.

• Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the course is its focus on democratizing AI literacy by using Indian examples to make the learning relatable and practical for the domestic population.

• Statement 3 is correct: The initiative was launched by MeitY under the IndiaAI Mission, highlighting the government’s focus on creating a future-ready workforce.

Solution: B

The YUVA AI for ALL initiative is a strategic move to enhance digital literacy.

• Statement 3 is correct: The initiative was launched by MeitY under the IndiaAI Mission, highlighting the government’s focus on creating a future-ready workforce.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0 (NAP-AMR 2.0): It is a strategic framework that operates exclusively under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare without the involvement of other ministries. It adopts a ‘One Health’ approach, integrating human health, animal husbandry, and environmental sectors. It strictly prohibits the use of all antibiotics in the livestock and agricultural sectors. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A NAP-AMR 2.0 (2025–29) is India’s updated response to the AMR crisis. Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is fundamentally multi-sectoral. It is not exclusive to the Health Ministry; it involves a “Whole-of-Government” approach. Statement 2 is correct: It is built on the One Health framework, recognizing that AMR is a connected issue involving human health, animals, agriculture, and the environment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The plan aims to regulate and reduce misuse/overuse of antimicrobials and pesticides in crops and livestock, but it does not impose a blanket prohibition on all antibiotic use, as legitimate therapeutic use is still necessary. Incorrect Solution: A NAP-AMR 2.0 (2025–29) is India’s updated response to the AMR crisis. Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is fundamentally multi-sectoral. It is not exclusive to the Health Ministry; it involves a “Whole-of-Government” approach. Statement 2 is correct: It is built on the One Health framework, recognizing that AMR is a connected issue involving human health, animals, agriculture, and the environment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The plan aims to regulate and reduce misuse/overuse of antimicrobials and pesticides in crops and livestock, but it does not impose a blanket prohibition on all antibiotic use, as legitimate therapeutic use is still necessary.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0 (NAP-AMR 2.0):

• It is a strategic framework that operates exclusively under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare without the involvement of other ministries.

• It adopts a ‘One Health’ approach, integrating human health, animal husbandry, and environmental sectors.

• It strictly prohibits the use of all antibiotics in the livestock and agricultural sectors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

NAP-AMR 2.0 (2025–29) is India’s updated response to the AMR crisis.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is fundamentally multi-sectoral. It is not exclusive to the Health Ministry; it involves a “Whole-of-Government” approach.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is built on the One Health framework, recognizing that AMR is a connected issue involving human health, animals, agriculture, and the environment.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The plan aims to regulate and reduce misuse/overuse of antimicrobials and pesticides in crops and livestock, but it does not impose a blanket prohibition on all antibiotic use, as legitimate therapeutic use is still necessary.

Solution: A

NAP-AMR 2.0 (2025–29) is India’s updated response to the AMR crisis.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is fundamentally multi-sectoral. It is not exclusive to the Health Ministry; it involves a “Whole-of-Government” approach.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is built on the One Health framework, recognizing that AMR is a connected issue involving human health, animals, agriculture, and the environment.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Chile Ecuador Colombia Venezuela Peru Which of the above countries share a land border with Brazil? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only Correct Solution: D Brazil is the largest country in South America and shares borders with every South American nation except two. The exceptions are: Chile and Ecuador. These two countries do not touch Brazil’s border. Bordering Nations: Uruguay, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru (5), Colombia (3), Venezuela (4), Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana. Incorrect Solution: D Brazil is the largest country in South America and shares borders with every South American nation except two. The exceptions are: Chile and Ecuador. These two countries do not touch Brazil’s border. Bordering Nations: Uruguay, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru (5), Colombia (3), Venezuela (4), Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following countries:

Which of the above countries share a land border with Brazil?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 4 and 5 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 5 only

• (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

Solution: D

Brazil is the largest country in South America and shares borders with every South American nation except two.

• The exceptions are: Chile and Ecuador. These two countries do not touch Brazil’s border.

• Bordering Nations: Uruguay, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru (5), Colombia (3), Venezuela (4), Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana.

Solution: D

Brazil is the largest country in South America and shares borders with every South American nation except two.

• The exceptions are: Chile and Ecuador. These two countries do not touch Brazil’s border.

• Bordering Nations: Uruguay, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru (5), Colombia (3), Venezuela (4), Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission: Its standards are recognized as international references by the World Trade Organization (WTO) under the Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement. It currently has less than 100 member countries. India is a member of this body. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Codex Alimentarius Commission sets global food standards. Statement 1 is correct: Codex standards are scientifically based and are recognized by the WTO’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement as the international reference points for food safety. Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission is a massive global body with 189 members (188 countries + the EU), far exceeding 100. Statement 3 is correct: India is a long-standing member, having joined in 1964. India also plays a leadership role, as evidenced by its recent re-election to the Executive Committee. Incorrect Solution: B The Codex Alimentarius Commission sets global food standards. Statement 1 is correct: Codex standards are scientifically based and are recognized by the WTO’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement as the international reference points for food safety. Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission is a massive global body with 189 members (188 countries + the EU), far exceeding 100. Statement 3 is correct: India is a long-standing member, having joined in 1964. India also plays a leadership role, as evidenced by its recent re-election to the Executive Committee.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission:

• Its standards are recognized as international references by the World Trade Organization (WTO) under the Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement.

• It currently has less than 100 member countries.

• India is a member of this body.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Codex Alimentarius Commission sets global food standards.

• Statement 1 is correct: Codex standards are scientifically based and are recognized by the WTO’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement as the international reference points for food safety.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission is a massive global body with 189 members (188 countries + the EU), far exceeding 100.

Statement 3 is correct: India is a long-standing member, having joined in 1964. India also plays a leadership role, as evidenced by its recent re-election to the Executive Committee.

Solution: B

The Codex Alimentarius Commission sets global food standards.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission is a massive global body with 189 members (188 countries + the EU), far exceeding 100.

Statement 3 is correct: India is a long-standing member, having joined in 1964. India also plays a leadership role, as evidenced by its recent re-election to the Executive Committee.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following are the focus areas of the ‘National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0’? Strengthening laboratory surveillance. Promotion of prescription auditing. Development of new diagnostics through the India AMR Innovation Hub. Monitoring of pharmaceutical waste in the environment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D 1 is correct: It focuses on expanding diagnostic networks and strengthening laboratory surveillance to track pathogens. 2 is correct: It includes Antibiotic Stewardship, which involves measures like prescription auditing to control irrational use. 3 is correct: The plan emphasizes an Innovation & Research Push, specifically strengthening the India AMR Innovation Hub for new diagnostics and technologies. 4 is correct: Under the environmental aspect of the “One Health” approach, it includes monitoring pharmaceutical waste and regulating antimicrobial usage in crops. Incorrect Solution: D 1 is correct: It focuses on expanding diagnostic networks and strengthening laboratory surveillance to track pathogens. 2 is correct: It includes Antibiotic Stewardship, which involves measures like prescription auditing to control irrational use. 3 is correct: The plan emphasizes an Innovation & Research Push, specifically strengthening the India AMR Innovation Hub for new diagnostics and technologies. 4 is correct: Under the environmental aspect of the “One Health” approach, it includes monitoring pharmaceutical waste and regulating antimicrobial usage in crops.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following are the focus areas of the ‘National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance 2.0’?

• Strengthening laboratory surveillance.

• Promotion of prescription auditing.

• Development of new diagnostics through the India AMR Innovation Hub.

• Monitoring of pharmaceutical waste in the environment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• 1 is correct: It focuses on expanding diagnostic networks and strengthening laboratory surveillance to track pathogens.

• 2 is correct: It includes Antibiotic Stewardship, which involves measures like prescription auditing to control irrational use.

• 3 is correct: The plan emphasizes an Innovation & Research Push, specifically strengthening the India AMR Innovation Hub for new diagnostics and technologies.

• 4 is correct: Under the environmental aspect of the “One Health” approach, it includes monitoring pharmaceutical waste and regulating antimicrobial usage in crops.

Solution: D

• 1 is correct: It focuses on expanding diagnostic networks and strengthening laboratory surveillance to track pathogens.

• 2 is correct: It includes Antibiotic Stewardship, which involves measures like prescription auditing to control irrational use.

• 3 is correct: The plan emphasizes an Innovation & Research Push, specifically strengthening the India AMR Innovation Hub for new diagnostics and technologies.

• 4 is correct: Under the environmental aspect of the “One Health” approach, it includes monitoring pharmaceutical waste and regulating antimicrobial usage in crops.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the behaviour of Blackbucks: They are nocturnal animals that feed primarily at night to avoid heat. They are known to reach speeds of up to 80 km/h to evade predators. They exhibit a flexible herd system including separate bachelor male herds. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Blackbucks are diurnal (active during the day) antelope, not nocturnal. Statement 2 is correct: They are renowned for their speed and agility, capable of reaching speeds up to 80 km/h. This is their primary adaptation against predators like cheetahs (historically) and wolves. Statement 3 is correct: Their social structure is fluid. They form three types of groups: female herds with young, bachelor male herds, and territorial males. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Blackbucks are diurnal (active during the day) antelope, not nocturnal. Statement 2 is correct: They are renowned for their speed and agility, capable of reaching speeds up to 80 km/h. This is their primary adaptation against predators like cheetahs (historically) and wolves. Statement 3 is correct: Their social structure is fluid. They form three types of groups: female herds with young, bachelor male herds, and territorial males.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the behaviour of Blackbucks:

• They are nocturnal animals that feed primarily at night to avoid heat.

• They are known to reach speeds of up to 80 km/h to evade predators.

• They exhibit a flexible herd system including separate bachelor male herds.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Blackbucks are diurnal (active during the day) antelope, not nocturnal.

• Statement 2 is correct: They are renowned for their speed and agility, capable of reaching speeds up to 80 km/h. This is their primary adaptation against predators like cheetahs (historically) and wolves.

• Statement 3 is correct: Their social structure is fluid. They form three types of groups: female herds with young, bachelor male herds, and territorial males.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Blackbucks are diurnal (active during the day) antelope, not nocturnal.

• Statement 3 is correct: Their social structure is fluid. They form three types of groups: female herds with young, bachelor male herds, and territorial males.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Regarding the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), consider the following: Statement-I: The NSSO conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS). Statement-II: The NSSO is an autonomous body that functions independently of any Ministry to ensure data neutrality. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct: The NSSO is the premier agency responsible for conducting large-scale surveys, including the key Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which provides employment data. Statement-II is incorrect: The NSSO is not fully autonomous in the sense of being outside a ministry. It operates under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is headed by a Director General who reports within this framework. While it aims for data neutrality, structurally it is a wing of the Ministry. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct: The NSSO is the premier agency responsible for conducting large-scale surveys, including the key Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which provides employment data. Statement-II is incorrect: The NSSO is not fully autonomous in the sense of being outside a ministry. It operates under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is headed by a Director General who reports within this framework. While it aims for data neutrality, structurally it is a wing of the Ministry.

#### 10. Question

Regarding the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), consider the following:

Statement-I: The NSSO conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).

Statement-II: The NSSO is an autonomous body that functions independently of any Ministry to ensure data neutrality.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct: The NSSO is the premier agency responsible for conducting large-scale surveys, including the key Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which provides employment data.

• Statement-II is incorrect: The NSSO is not fully autonomous in the sense of being outside a ministry. It operates under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is headed by a Director General who reports within this framework. While it aims for data neutrality, structurally it is a wing of the Ministry.

Solution: C

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