UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 March 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding legislative powers of the Governor. If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President. If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall declare— (a) that he assents to the Bill; or (b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or (c) that he reserves the Bill for the President’s consideration; or (d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom (First Proviso); or (e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President (Second Proviso). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/power-of-withholding-bills-passed-by-state-assembly/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall declare— (a) that he assents to the Bill; or (b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or (c) that he reserves the Bill for the President’s consideration; or (d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom (First Proviso); or (e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President (Second Proviso). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/power-of-withholding-bills-passed-by-state-assembly/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding legislative powers of the Governor.

• If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President. If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.

• If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President.

• If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall declare—

(a) that he assents to the Bill; or

(b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or

(d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom (First Proviso); or

• (e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President (Second Proviso).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/power-of-withholding-bills-passed-by-state-assembly/

Explanation:

• Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall declare—

(a) that he assents to the Bill; or

(b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/power-of-withholding-bills-passed-by-state-assembly/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following heritage sites: Gwalior Fort Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley Bhimbetka rock shelters How many of the above are included in UNESCO’s tentative list recently? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Madhya Pradesh celebrates a significant achievement as six of its heritage sites are included in UNESCO’s tentative list. The sites included are Gwalior Fort, the Historical Group of Dhamnar, Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple, Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley, Khooni Bhandara in Burhanpur, and God Memorial of Ramnagar in Mandla. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/unescos-tentative-list/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Madhya Pradesh celebrates a significant achievement as six of its heritage sites are included in UNESCO’s tentative list. The sites included are Gwalior Fort, the Historical Group of Dhamnar, Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple, Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley, Khooni Bhandara in Burhanpur, and God Memorial of Ramnagar in Mandla. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/unescos-tentative-list/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following heritage sites:

• Gwalior Fort Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley Bhimbetka rock shelters

• Gwalior Fort

• Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple

• Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley

• Bhimbetka rock shelters

How many of the above are included in UNESCO’s tentative list recently?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Context: Madhya Pradesh celebrates a significant achievement as six of its heritage sites are included in UNESCO’s tentative list.

• The sites included are Gwalior Fort, the Historical Group of Dhamnar, Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple, Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley, Khooni Bhandara in Burhanpur, and God Memorial of Ramnagar in Mandla.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/unescos-tentative-list/

Explanation:

• Context: Madhya Pradesh celebrates a significant achievement as six of its heritage sites are included in UNESCO’s tentative list.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/unescos-tentative-list/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Model Code of Conduct (MCC): The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out. It has no statutory backing. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) has been enforced by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, beginning from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results. This code regulates the behaviour of political parties and candidates during the election period, aiming to ensure free and fair elections. It includes provisions regarding general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos. Key restrictions imposed by the MCC include prohibiting the announcement of policy decisions by the ruling party, using official positions for campaigning, combining official visits with election work, using government resources for campaigning, and making ad-hoc appointments that may influence voters. The MCC is not legally binding but is enforced through moral sanction or censure by the ECI. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/model-code-of-conduct-3/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) has been enforced by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, beginning from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results. This code regulates the behaviour of political parties and candidates during the election period, aiming to ensure free and fair elections. It includes provisions regarding general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos. Key restrictions imposed by the MCC include prohibiting the announcement of policy decisions by the ruling party, using official positions for campaigning, combining official visits with election work, using government resources for campaigning, and making ad-hoc appointments that may influence voters. The MCC is not legally binding but is enforced through moral sanction or censure by the ECI. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/model-code-of-conduct-3/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Model Code of Conduct (MCC):

• The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out. It has no statutory backing.

• The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.

• It has no statutory backing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) has been enforced by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, beginning from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results.

• This code regulates the behaviour of political parties and candidates during the election period, aiming to ensure free and fair elections.

• It includes provisions regarding general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.

• Key restrictions imposed by the MCC include prohibiting the announcement of policy decisions by the ruling party, using official positions for campaigning, combining official visits with election work, using government resources for campaigning, and making ad-hoc appointments that may influence voters.

• The MCC is not legally binding but is enforced through moral sanction or censure by the ECI.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/model-code-of-conduct-3/

Explanation:

• This code regulates the behaviour of political parties and candidates during the election period, aiming to ensure free and fair elections.

• It includes provisions regarding general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.

• The MCC is not legally binding but is enforced through moral sanction or censure by the ECI.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/model-code-of-conduct-3/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman and functions with headquarters at Pune. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 3 is not correct. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The members of the panels are nominated by the Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cinematograph-certification-rules-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 3 is not correct. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The members of the panels are nominated by the Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cinematograph-certification-rules-2024/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman and functions with headquarters at Pune.

• The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

• Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.

• The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman and functions with headquarters at Pune.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 3 is not correct.

• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952.

• Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.

• The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The members of the panels are nominated by the Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cinematograph-certification-rules-2024/

Explanation:

• Statement 3 is not correct.

• Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cinematograph-certification-rules-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following materials: sugar cane corn soybeans How many of the above materials are used to make biofuels? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Biofuels are usually liquid fuels created using organic materials, such as biomass and natural waste. Typical materials used to make biofuels are sugar cane, corn and soybeans. “Most biofuels are used as transportation fuels, but they may also be used for heating and electricity generation,” the US Energy Information Administration says. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/22-defence-and-foreign-ministerial-dialogue/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Biofuels are usually liquid fuels created using organic materials, such as biomass and natural waste. Typical materials used to make biofuels are sugar cane, corn and soybeans. “Most biofuels are used as transportation fuels, but they may also be used for heating and electricity generation,” the US Energy Information Administration says. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/22-defence-and-foreign-ministerial-dialogue/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following materials:

• sugar cane corn soybeans

• sugar cane

How many of the above materials are used to make biofuels?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Biofuels are usually liquid fuels created using organic materials, such as biomass and natural waste. Typical materials used to make biofuels are sugar cane, corn and soybeans.

• “Most biofuels are used as transportation fuels, but they may also be used for heating and electricity generation,” the US Energy Information Administration says.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/22-defence-and-foreign-ministerial-dialogue/

Explanation:

• Biofuels are usually liquid fuels created using organic materials, such as biomass and natural waste. Typical materials used to make biofuels are sugar cane, corn and soybeans.

• “Most biofuels are used as transportation fuels, but they may also be used for heating and electricity generation,” the US Energy Information Administration says.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/22-defence-and-foreign-ministerial-dialogue/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to Private Placement of Securities, consider the following statements: Private Placement of Securities refers to the process of selling stocks, bonds, or other securities directly to a select group of investors, rather than making them available to the general public. This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Sebi has decided to repeal certain circulars related to the private placement of securities, which provided relaxation for allotment. What is Private Placement of Securities? Private Placement of Securities refers to the process of selling stocks, bonds, or other securities directly to a select group of investors, rather than making them available to the general public. This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/private-placement-of-securities/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Sebi has decided to repeal certain circulars related to the private placement of securities, which provided relaxation for allotment. What is Private Placement of Securities? Private Placement of Securities refers to the process of selling stocks, bonds, or other securities directly to a select group of investors, rather than making them available to the general public. This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/private-placement-of-securities/

#### 6. Question

With reference to Private Placement of Securities, consider the following statements:

• Private Placement of Securities refers to the process of selling stocks, bonds, or other securities directly to a select group of investors, rather than making them available to the general public. This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering.

• This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Sebi has decided to repeal certain circulars related to the private placement of securities, which provided relaxation for allotment.

• What is Private Placement of Securities? Private Placement of Securities refers to the process of selling stocks, bonds, or other securities directly to a select group of investors, rather than making them available to the general public. This method is often used by companies to raise capital without having to go through the extensive regulatory requirements associated with a public offering.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/private-placement-of-securities/

Explanation:

• Context: Sebi has decided to repeal certain circulars related to the private placement of securities, which provided relaxation for allotment.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/private-placement-of-securities/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points ‘Kalpa Suvarna’, recently seen in news, is a/an/the (a) hybrid variety of rice (b) new dwarf coconut variety (c) variety of wheat (d) genetically modified pest-resistant plant cotton variety Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Union Minister of State for Agriculture, Farmers’ Welfare, and Food Processing Industries, unveiled a new dwarf coconut variety called ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ and two hybrid cocoa varieties developed by the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI). The new cocoa varieties, VTL CH I and VTL CH II, are high-yielding and one of them is tolerant to black pod rot, particularly beneficial in regions with high rainfall. ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ is recommended for tender coconut and copra production. Both cocoa varieties have high fat and nutrient contents, suitable for cultivation in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cpcri/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Union Minister of State for Agriculture, Farmers’ Welfare, and Food Processing Industries, unveiled a new dwarf coconut variety called ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ and two hybrid cocoa varieties developed by the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI). The new cocoa varieties, VTL CH I and VTL CH II, are high-yielding and one of them is tolerant to black pod rot, particularly beneficial in regions with high rainfall. ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ is recommended for tender coconut and copra production. Both cocoa varieties have high fat and nutrient contents, suitable for cultivation in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cpcri/

#### 7. Question

‘Kalpa Suvarna’, recently seen in news, is a/an/the

• (a) hybrid variety of rice

• (b) new dwarf coconut variety

• (c) variety of wheat

• (d) genetically modified pest-resistant plant cotton variety

Explanation:

• Context: Union Minister of State for Agriculture, Farmers’ Welfare, and Food Processing Industries, unveiled a new dwarf coconut variety called ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ and two hybrid cocoa varieties developed by the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI).

• The new cocoa varieties, VTL CH I and VTL CH II, are high-yielding and one of them is tolerant to black pod rot, particularly beneficial in regions with high rainfall.

• ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ is recommended for tender coconut and copra production.

• Both cocoa varieties have high fat and nutrient contents, suitable for cultivation in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cpcri/

Explanation:

• The new cocoa varieties, VTL CH I and VTL CH II, are high-yielding and one of them is tolerant to black pod rot, particularly beneficial in regions with high rainfall.

• ‘Kalpa Suvarna’ is recommended for tender coconut and copra production.

• Both cocoa varieties have high fat and nutrient contents, suitable for cultivation in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/cpcri/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about biomining is/are correct? (a) It is a process that uses microorganisms to extract metals from ores. (b) It can only be used for extracting precious metals like gold and silver. (c) It has high environmental impact and involves the use of toxic chemicals and large amounts of energy. (d) It is a rapid process that yields metals without any pre-treatment of the ore. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The biomining project aimed at clearing Delhi’s landfill sites in Ghazipur and Bhalswa is likely to miss the 2024 deadline due to slow progress. Biomining is also known as bioleaching. It involves digging up waste, segregating it, and treating and separating the toxins.The soil is then treated with bacteria and pathogens to cleanse it. Biomining is indeed a process that involves the use of microorganisms such as bacteria to extract metals from ores. These microorganisms break down the ores and separate the metals from them. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/biomining/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The biomining project aimed at clearing Delhi’s landfill sites in Ghazipur and Bhalswa is likely to miss the 2024 deadline due to slow progress. Biomining is also known as bioleaching. It involves digging up waste, segregating it, and treating and separating the toxins.The soil is then treated with bacteria and pathogens to cleanse it. Biomining is indeed a process that involves the use of microorganisms such as bacteria to extract metals from ores. These microorganisms break down the ores and separate the metals from them. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/biomining/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about biomining is/are correct?

• (a) It is a process that uses microorganisms to extract metals from ores.

• (b) It can only be used for extracting precious metals like gold and silver.

• (c) It has high environmental impact and involves the use of toxic chemicals and large amounts of energy.

• (d) It is a rapid process that yields metals without any pre-treatment of the ore.

Explanation:

• Context: The biomining project aimed at clearing Delhi’s landfill sites in Ghazipur and Bhalswa is likely to miss the 2024 deadline due to slow progress. Biomining is also known as bioleaching. It involves digging up waste, segregating it, and treating and separating the toxins.The soil is then treated with bacteria and pathogens to cleanse it.

• Biomining is also known as bioleaching. It involves digging up waste, segregating it, and treating and separating the toxins.The soil is then treated with bacteria and pathogens to cleanse it.

• Biomining is indeed a process that involves the use of microorganisms such as bacteria to extract metals from ores. These microorganisms break down the ores and separate the metals from them.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/biomining/

Explanation:

• Biomining is also known as bioleaching. It involves digging up waste, segregating it, and treating and separating the toxins.The soil is then treated with bacteria and pathogens to cleanse it.

• Biomining is indeed a process that involves the use of microorganisms such as bacteria to extract metals from ores. These microorganisms break down the ores and separate the metals from them.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/biomining/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Recently, which one of the following has unveiled SIMA (Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent), a new AI gaming agent capable of understanding and executing natural language instructions to perform tasks across various video game environments? (a) Microsoft (b) Amazon (c) Google (d) Apple Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Google DeepMind has unveiled SIMA (Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent), a new AI gaming agent capable of understanding and executing natural language instructions to perform tasks across various video game environments. Unlike AI models trained on specific datasets, SIMA functions as a generalist AI agent, able to process instructions and take actions independently. It learns and improves over time through interactions with users, becoming smarter and better at fulfilling requests. SIMA has been trained on a variety of video games in collaboration with game developers, demonstrating its ability to understand diverse gaming worlds and follow instructions like a human player. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/sima/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Google DeepMind has unveiled SIMA (Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent), a new AI gaming agent capable of understanding and executing natural language instructions to perform tasks across various video game environments. Unlike AI models trained on specific datasets, SIMA functions as a generalist AI agent, able to process instructions and take actions independently. It learns and improves over time through interactions with users, becoming smarter and better at fulfilling requests. SIMA has been trained on a variety of video games in collaboration with game developers, demonstrating its ability to understand diverse gaming worlds and follow instructions like a human player. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/sima/

#### 9. Question

Recently, which one of the following has unveiled SIMA (Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent), a new AI gaming agent capable of understanding and executing natural language instructions to perform tasks across various video game environments?

• (a) Microsoft

• (b) Amazon

• (c) Google

Explanation:

• Context: Google DeepMind has unveiled SIMA (Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent), a new AI gaming agent capable of understanding and executing natural language instructions to perform tasks across various video game environments.

• Unlike AI models trained on specific datasets, SIMA functions as a generalist AI agent, able to process instructions and take actions independently.

• It learns and improves over time through interactions with users, becoming smarter and better at fulfilling requests.

• SIMA has been trained on a variety of video games in collaboration with game developers, demonstrating its ability to understand diverse gaming worlds and follow instructions like a human player.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/sima/

Explanation:

• Unlike AI models trained on specific datasets, SIMA functions as a generalist AI agent, able to process instructions and take actions independently.

• It learns and improves over time through interactions with users, becoming smarter and better at fulfilling requests.

• SIMA has been trained on a variety of video games in collaboration with game developers, demonstrating its ability to understand diverse gaming worlds and follow instructions like a human player.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/sima/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news : It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter It is buried deep in the ice. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Astronomers analysing data from the IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica have potentially detected the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, nicknamed “ghost particles” due to their elusive nature. IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars. The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/ghost-particles/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Astronomers analysing data from the IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica have potentially detected the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, nicknamed “ghost particles” due to their elusive nature. IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars. The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/ghost-particles/

#### 10. Question

In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news :

• It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter It is buried deep in the ice.

• It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.

• It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter

• It is buried deep in the ice.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: Astronomers analysing data from the IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica have potentially detected the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, nicknamed “ghost particles” due to their elusive nature.

• IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.

• The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.

• It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/ghost-particles/

Explanation:

• It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/19/ghost-particles/

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