UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 June 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Aravalli Green Wall Initiative: It is a centrally coordinated campaign exclusively funded through the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA). The primary objective of the initiative is to create a green corridor to halt the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert. The initiative focuses solely on afforestation and does not include the rejuvenation of water bodies. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is funded through multiple sources, not exclusively CAMPA. The funds will be sourced from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes, indicating a convergence of financial resources. Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core ecological objective of the initiative. The Aravalli range acts as a natural barrier against desertification. The Green Wall initiative aims to strengthen this barrier by undertaking large-scale plantation and landscape restoration, thereby combating land degradation and preventing the spread of the desert towards the fertile plains of the National Capital Region. Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative has a holistic approach to ecological restoration. The key features include the “rejuvenation of lakes and ponds” in addition to afforestation, agroforestry, and pasture development. About Aravalli Green Wall Initiative: What is it? A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range. Objectives: Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts. Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity. Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC). Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation. Key Features: 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation. 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes. Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds. Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’. Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities. Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is funded through multiple sources, not exclusively CAMPA. The funds will be sourced from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes, indicating a convergence of financial resources. Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core ecological objective of the initiative. The Aravalli range acts as a natural barrier against desertification. The Green Wall initiative aims to strengthen this barrier by undertaking large-scale plantation and landscape restoration, thereby combating land degradation and preventing the spread of the desert towards the fertile plains of the National Capital Region. Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative has a holistic approach to ecological restoration. The key features include the “rejuvenation of lakes and ponds” in addition to afforestation, agroforestry, and pasture development. About Aravalli Green Wall Initiative: What is it? A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range. Objectives: Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts. Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity. Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC). Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation. Key Features: 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation. 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes. Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds. Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’. Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities. Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Aravalli Green Wall Initiative:
• It is a centrally coordinated campaign exclusively funded through the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA).
• The primary objective of the initiative is to create a green corridor to halt the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert.
• The initiative focuses solely on afforestation and does not include the rejuvenation of water bodies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is funded through multiple sources, not exclusively CAMPA. The funds will be sourced from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes, indicating a convergence of financial resources.
• Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core ecological objective of the initiative. The Aravalli range acts as a natural barrier against desertification. The Green Wall initiative aims to strengthen this barrier by undertaking large-scale plantation and landscape restoration, thereby combating land degradation and preventing the spread of the desert towards the fertile plains of the National Capital Region.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative has a holistic approach to ecological restoration. The key features include the “rejuvenation of lakes and ponds” in addition to afforestation, agroforestry, and pasture development.
About Aravalli Green Wall Initiative:
• What is it? A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range.
• A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range.
• Objectives:
• Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts. Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity. Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC). Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation.
• Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts.
• Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity.
• Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC).
• Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation.
• Key Features:
• 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation. 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes. Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds. Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’. Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities. Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh.
• 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation.
• 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes.
• Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds.
• Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’.
• Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities.
• Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh.
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is funded through multiple sources, not exclusively CAMPA. The funds will be sourced from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes, indicating a convergence of financial resources.
• Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core ecological objective of the initiative. The Aravalli range acts as a natural barrier against desertification. The Green Wall initiative aims to strengthen this barrier by undertaking large-scale plantation and landscape restoration, thereby combating land degradation and preventing the spread of the desert towards the fertile plains of the National Capital Region.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative has a holistic approach to ecological restoration. The key features include the “rejuvenation of lakes and ponds” in addition to afforestation, agroforestry, and pasture development.
About Aravalli Green Wall Initiative:
• What is it? A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range.
• A centrally coordinated reforestation and landscape restoration campaign led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), covering the 700-km Aravalli range.
• Objectives:
• Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts. Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity. Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC). Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation.
• Combat land degradation and desertification across 29 districts.
• Restore ecological balance by increasing green cover and protecting biodiversity.
• Strengthen carbon sequestration under India’s climate commitments (NDC-UNFCCC).
• Revive surface water bodies and promote community participation.
• Key Features:
• 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation. 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes. Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds. Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’. Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities. Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh.
• 29 districts across Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi identified for plantation.
• 1,000 nurseries to be developed with native species using funds from CAMPA, MNREGA, and state schemes.
• Focus on agroforestry, pasture development, and rejuvenation of lakes and ponds.
• Integration with existing missions like ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’.
• Promotion of eco-tourism: safaris, trekking, and nature parks to involve local communities.
• Target: Complete Phase I by 2027 and action plan released during COP16 of UNCCD in Riyadh.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN) in India: Statement I: The NPSN was established as a collaborative effort between the World Health Organization and the Indian government. Statement II: The primary function of the NPSN is to track cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) as a key surveillance strategy for polio eradication. Statement III: Following the eradication of wild polio virus, the network’s infrastructure is now being repurposed to support measles-rubella elimination and other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Statements I and II are correct, and Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement II. (b) Statements I, II, and III are correct, and Statement III provides the current context for the evolution of the network described in Statements I and II. (c) Statements I and III are correct, but Statement II is incorrect. (d) All three statements are independent facts and correct. Correct Solution: D Statement I is correct. It accurately states the key partners (WHO and MoHFW, Government of India). Statement II is correct. It correctly identifies the core operational methodology of the NPSN. Tracking all cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP), which presents with symptoms similar to poliomyelitis, is the globally recommended sensitive strategy to ensure that no case of polio is missed. Statement III is correct. It highlights the successful adaptation of the NPSN. With India being polio-free, the robust surveillance infrastructure and trained personnel of the NPSN are now being integrated into broader public health goals, such as the surveillance for measles, rubella, and other diseases, showcasing an efficient use of public health resources. About National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN): What is NPSN? The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases. When was it established? Year: 1997 Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) Organizations Involved: World Health Organization (WHO) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India Objective: To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP). To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus. Key Functions: Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification. Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation. Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols. Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases. Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories. This will eventually integrate with the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP). Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is correct. It accurately states the key partners (WHO and MoHFW, Government of India). Statement II is correct. It correctly identifies the core operational methodology of the NPSN. Tracking all cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP), which presents with symptoms similar to poliomyelitis, is the globally recommended sensitive strategy to ensure that no case of polio is missed. Statement III is correct. It highlights the successful adaptation of the NPSN. With India being polio-free, the robust surveillance infrastructure and trained personnel of the NPSN are now being integrated into broader public health goals, such as the surveillance for measles, rubella, and other diseases, showcasing an efficient use of public health resources. About National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN): What is NPSN? The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases. When was it established? Year: 1997 Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) Organizations Involved: World Health Organization (WHO) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India Objective: To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP). To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus. Key Functions: Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification. Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation. Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols. Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases. Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories. This will eventually integrate with the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN) in India:
Statement I: The NPSN was established as a collaborative effort between the World Health Organization and the Indian government.
Statement II: The primary function of the NPSN is to track cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) as a key surveillance strategy for polio eradication.
Statement III: Following the eradication of wild polio virus, the network’s infrastructure is now being repurposed to support measles-rubella elimination and other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Statements I and II are correct, and Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement II.
• (b) Statements I, II, and III are correct, and Statement III provides the current context for the evolution of the network described in Statements I and II.
• (c) Statements I and III are correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
• (d) All three statements are independent facts and correct.
Solution: D
• Statement I is correct. It accurately states the key partners (WHO and MoHFW, Government of India).
• Statement II is correct. It correctly identifies the core operational methodology of the NPSN. Tracking all cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP), which presents with symptoms similar to poliomyelitis, is the globally recommended sensitive strategy to ensure that no case of polio is missed.
• Statement III is correct. It highlights the successful adaptation of the NPSN. With India being polio-free, the robust surveillance infrastructure and trained personnel of the NPSN are now being integrated into broader public health goals, such as the surveillance for measles, rubella, and other diseases, showcasing an efficient use of public health resources.
About National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN):
• What is NPSN? The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases.
• The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases.
• When was it established? Year: 1997 Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP)
• Year: 1997
• Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP)
• Organizations Involved: World Health Organization (WHO) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India
• World Health Organization (WHO)
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India
• Objective: To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP). To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus.
• To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP).
• To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus.
• Key Functions: Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification. Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation. Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols. Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases. Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories.
• Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification.
• Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation.
• Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols.
• Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases.
• Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories.
• This will eventually integrate with the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).
Solution: D
• Statement I is correct. It accurately states the key partners (WHO and MoHFW, Government of India).
• Statement II is correct. It correctly identifies the core operational methodology of the NPSN. Tracking all cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP), which presents with symptoms similar to poliomyelitis, is the globally recommended sensitive strategy to ensure that no case of polio is missed.
• Statement III is correct. It highlights the successful adaptation of the NPSN. With India being polio-free, the robust surveillance infrastructure and trained personnel of the NPSN are now being integrated into broader public health goals, such as the surveillance for measles, rubella, and other diseases, showcasing an efficient use of public health resources.
About National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN):
• What is NPSN? The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases.
• The National Polio Surveillance Network is India’s key disease surveillance mechanism for detecting and controlling polio and other vaccine-preventable diseases.
• When was it established? Year: 1997 Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP)
• Year: 1997
• Initiative: Originally called the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP)
• Organizations Involved: World Health Organization (WHO) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India
• World Health Organization (WHO)
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India
• Objective: To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP). To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus.
• To support polio eradication by identifying and investigating cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP).
• To monitor immunisation campaigns and ensure zero transmission of wild polio virus.
• Key Functions: Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification. Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation. Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols. Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases. Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories.
• Disease Surveillance: Tracks AFP cases and conducts lab-confirmed verification.
• Vaccination Support: Assists in pulse polio campaigns and routine immunisation.
• Capacity Building: Trains state and district health officials on surveillance protocols.
• Integrated Health Role: Now supports measles-rubella elimination and control of other Vaccine-Preventable Diseases.
• Staff Deployment: Over 200 field units led by Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) spread across all states and union territories.
• This will eventually integrate with the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Polar Research Vessel (PRV): Statement-I: India’s initiative to build its first indigenous Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is primarily a joint venture with Russia, leveraging its long-standing expertise in Arctic technology. Statement-II: The development of the PRV is a significant step under the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Blue Economy’ initiatives, aimed at enhancing India’s self-reliance in polar and oceanographic research. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The international partnership for the PRV is between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata, and Kongsberg, Norway, not Russia. Norway is a global leader in marine and polar technology, making this collaboration strategic. Statement-II is correct. This statement accurately captures the strategic impetus behind the project. Building the vessel indigenously at GRSE aligns perfectly with the ‘Make in India’ initiative, which promotes domestic manufacturing and technological self-sufficiency. The vessel’s purpose—deep-sea exploration, resource mapping, and climate research—directly supports the objectives of the ‘Blue Economy’ policy, which focuses on sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth. This move is crucial for reducing dependence on leased foreign vessels for polar expeditions. About India to Develop Its First Ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV): What it is? A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring. International Partnership: Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway. Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR). Objectives: Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research. Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection. Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives. Key Features: Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support. Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research. Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems. Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols. Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing. Significance: Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology. Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions. Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development. Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030. Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The international partnership for the PRV is between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata, and Kongsberg, Norway, not Russia. Norway is a global leader in marine and polar technology, making this collaboration strategic. Statement-II is correct. This statement accurately captures the strategic impetus behind the project. Building the vessel indigenously at GRSE aligns perfectly with the ‘Make in India’ initiative, which promotes domestic manufacturing and technological self-sufficiency. The vessel’s purpose—deep-sea exploration, resource mapping, and climate research—directly supports the objectives of the ‘Blue Economy’ policy, which focuses on sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth. This move is crucial for reducing dependence on leased foreign vessels for polar expeditions. About India to Develop Its First Ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV): What it is? A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring. International Partnership: Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway. Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR). Objectives: Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research. Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection. Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives. Key Features: Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support. Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research. Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems. Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols. Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing. Significance: Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology. Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions. Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development. Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030. Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Polar Research Vessel (PRV):
Statement-I: India’s initiative to build its first indigenous Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is primarily a joint venture with Russia, leveraging its long-standing expertise in Arctic technology.
Statement-II: The development of the PRV is a significant step under the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Blue Economy’ initiatives, aimed at enhancing India’s self-reliance in polar and oceanographic research.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: D
• Statement-I is incorrect. The international partnership for the PRV is between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata, and Kongsberg, Norway, not Russia. Norway is a global leader in marine and polar technology, making this collaboration strategic.
• Statement-II is correct. This statement accurately captures the strategic impetus behind the project. Building the vessel indigenously at GRSE aligns perfectly with the ‘Make in India’ initiative, which promotes domestic manufacturing and technological self-sufficiency. The vessel’s purpose—deep-sea exploration, resource mapping, and climate research—directly supports the objectives of the ‘Blue Economy’ policy, which focuses on sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth. This move is crucial for reducing dependence on leased foreign vessels for polar expeditions.
About India to Develop Its First Ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV):
• What it is? A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring.
• A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring.
• International Partnership:
• Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway. Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
• Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway.
• Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
• Objectives:
• Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research. Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection. Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives.
• Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research.
• Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection.
• Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives.
• Key Features: Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support. Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research. Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems. Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols. Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing.
• Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support.
• Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research.
• Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems.
• Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols.
• Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing.
• Significance:
• Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology. Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions. Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development. Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030. Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping.
• Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology.
• Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions.
• Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development.
• Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030.
• Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping.
Solution: D
• Statement-I is incorrect. The international partnership for the PRV is between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata, and Kongsberg, Norway, not Russia. Norway is a global leader in marine and polar technology, making this collaboration strategic.
• Statement-II is correct. This statement accurately captures the strategic impetus behind the project. Building the vessel indigenously at GRSE aligns perfectly with the ‘Make in India’ initiative, which promotes domestic manufacturing and technological self-sufficiency. The vessel’s purpose—deep-sea exploration, resource mapping, and climate research—directly supports the objectives of the ‘Blue Economy’ policy, which focuses on sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth. This move is crucial for reducing dependence on leased foreign vessels for polar expeditions.
About India to Develop Its First Ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV):
• What it is? A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring.
• A Polar Research Vessel (PRV) is a specially designed ship capable of navigating polar waters and equipped for deep-sea research, marine biodiversity studies, and climate monitoring.
• International Partnership:
• Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway. Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
• Partnership between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Kongsberg, Norway.
• Supported by India’s Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways and National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
• Objectives:
• Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research. Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection. Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives.
• Strengthen India’s capabilities in Arctic and Antarctic research.
• Enable deep-sea exploration, ocean floor mapping, and climate data collection.
• Promote innovation in marine science under the Make in India and Blue Economy initiatives.
• Key Features: Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support. Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research. Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems. Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols. Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing.
• Polar-Class & Indigenous Build: Designed for extreme Arctic and Antarctic conditions with ice-breaking capabilities; built indigenously by GRSE with Norway’s design support.
• Advanced Scientific Infrastructure: Equipped with seabed samplers, seismic profilers, multibeam sonar, and labs for marine biology, geology, and climate research.
• Deep-Sea and Long-Duration Missions: Capable of exploring depths up to 6 km and sustaining extended polar expeditions with self-support systems.
• Green and Sustainable Technology: Aligns with IMO norms, integrating green fuel usage, energy-efficient systems, and eco-friendly research protocols.
• Strategic National Utility: Enables multidisciplinary polar and ocean research under NCPOR, boosting India’s global scientific and maritime standing.
• Significance:
• Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology. Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions. Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development. Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030. Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping.
• Boosts indigenous shipbuilding infrastructure and polar technology.
• Reduces reliance on leased vessels for India’s polar missions.
• Enhances India’s role in climate research, ocean health, and sustainable marine development.
• Reinforces India’s commitment to the Paris Agreement (UNFCCC) with goals like creating a 2.5 billion tonne carbon sink by 2030.
• Facilitates stronger India–Norway maritime collaboration and investment in green and smart shipping.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following characteristics is not typically associated with thermophilic bacteria? (a) Production of enzymes that are functional at high temperatures. (b) The ability to thrive in environments with temperatures below 40°C. (c) Cell membranes rich in saturated fatty acids to maintain integrity in heat. (d) Possession of unique metabolic pathways for utilizing nutrients like sulfur. Correct Solution: B (a) is a key characteristic. Thermophiles are renowned for their heat-stable enzymes (thermozymes). These enzymes do not denature at high temperatures, which is why they are invaluable in industrial processes like the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which uses Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus. (b) is NOT a characteristic. By definition, thermophiles are “heat-loving” organisms. Their thriving temperature range is 45°C to 70°C. They are adapted to extreme heat and cannot thrive or grow optimally in moderate or low temperatures (mesophilic or psychrophilic ranges), such as below 40°C. (c) is a key characteristic. The cell membranes of thermophiles are specially adapted to resist melting in extreme heat. They contain a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids, which pack together more tightly than unsaturated fats, making the membrane more viscous and stable at high temperatures. (d) is a key characteristic. To survive in extreme environments, which are often low in conventional organic nutrients, many thermophiles have evolved unique metabolic capabilities. They can perform chemosynthesis using inorganic compounds like sulfur or iron as energy sources, allowing them to colonize habitats like hot springs and hydrothermal vents. About Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Definition: Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive. Characters of Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive. Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production. Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat. Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas. Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments. Examples of Thermophiles: Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests) Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs) Key Features of Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation. Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens. Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules. Applications of Thermophiles: Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes. Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions. Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation. Incorrect Solution: B (a) is a key characteristic. Thermophiles are renowned for their heat-stable enzymes (thermozymes). These enzymes do not denature at high temperatures, which is why they are invaluable in industrial processes like the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which uses Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus. (b) is NOT a characteristic. By definition, thermophiles are “heat-loving” organisms. Their thriving temperature range is 45°C to 70°C. They are adapted to extreme heat and cannot thrive or grow optimally in moderate or low temperatures (mesophilic or psychrophilic ranges), such as below 40°C. (c) is a key characteristic. The cell membranes of thermophiles are specially adapted to resist melting in extreme heat. They contain a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids, which pack together more tightly than unsaturated fats, making the membrane more viscous and stable at high temperatures. (d) is a key characteristic. To survive in extreme environments, which are often low in conventional organic nutrients, many thermophiles have evolved unique metabolic capabilities. They can perform chemosynthesis using inorganic compounds like sulfur or iron as energy sources, allowing them to colonize habitats like hot springs and hydrothermal vents. About Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Definition: Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive. Characters of Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive. Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production. Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat. Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas. Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments. Examples of Thermophiles: Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests) Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs) Key Features of Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation. Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens. Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules. Applications of Thermophiles: Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes. Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions. Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation.
#### 4. Question
Which one of the following characteristics is not typically associated with thermophilic bacteria?
• (a) Production of enzymes that are functional at high temperatures.
• (b) The ability to thrive in environments with temperatures below 40°C.
• (c) Cell membranes rich in saturated fatty acids to maintain integrity in heat.
• (d) Possession of unique metabolic pathways for utilizing nutrients like sulfur.
Solution: B
• (a) is a key characteristic. Thermophiles are renowned for their heat-stable enzymes (thermozymes). These enzymes do not denature at high temperatures, which is why they are invaluable in industrial processes like the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which uses Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.
• (b) is NOT a characteristic. By definition, thermophiles are “heat-loving” organisms. Their thriving temperature range is 45°C to 70°C. They are adapted to extreme heat and cannot thrive or grow optimally in moderate or low temperatures (mesophilic or psychrophilic ranges), such as below 40°C.
• (c) is a key characteristic. The cell membranes of thermophiles are specially adapted to resist melting in extreme heat. They contain a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids, which pack together more tightly than unsaturated fats, making the membrane more viscous and stable at high temperatures.
• (d) is a key characteristic. To survive in extreme environments, which are often low in conventional organic nutrients, many thermophiles have evolved unique metabolic capabilities. They can perform chemosynthesis using inorganic compounds like sulfur or iron as energy sources, allowing them to colonize habitats like hot springs and hydrothermal vents.
About Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria:
• Definition: Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive.
• Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive.
• Characters of Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive. Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production. Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat. Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas. Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments.
• Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive.
• Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production.
• Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat.
• Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas.
• Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments.
• Examples of Thermophiles: Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests) Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs)
• Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests)
• Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production)
• Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs)
• Key Features of Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation. Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens. Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules.
• Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation.
• Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens.
• Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules.
• Applications of Thermophiles: Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes. Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions. Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation.
• Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes.
• Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions.
• Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation.
Solution: B
• (a) is a key characteristic. Thermophiles are renowned for their heat-stable enzymes (thermozymes). These enzymes do not denature at high temperatures, which is why they are invaluable in industrial processes like the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which uses Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.
• (b) is NOT a characteristic. By definition, thermophiles are “heat-loving” organisms. Their thriving temperature range is 45°C to 70°C. They are adapted to extreme heat and cannot thrive or grow optimally in moderate or low temperatures (mesophilic or psychrophilic ranges), such as below 40°C.
• (c) is a key characteristic. The cell membranes of thermophiles are specially adapted to resist melting in extreme heat. They contain a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids, which pack together more tightly than unsaturated fats, making the membrane more viscous and stable at high temperatures.
• (d) is a key characteristic. To survive in extreme environments, which are often low in conventional organic nutrients, many thermophiles have evolved unique metabolic capabilities. They can perform chemosynthesis using inorganic compounds like sulfur or iron as energy sources, allowing them to colonize habitats like hot springs and hydrothermal vents.
About Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria:
• Definition: Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive.
• Thermophiles are heat-loving microorganisms that thrive in extreme temperatures ranging from 45°C to 70°C, where most life forms cannot survive.
• Characters of Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive. Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production. Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat. Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas. Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments.
• Heat Tolerance: Thermophilic bacteria grow best at high temperatures between 45°C and 80°C. They thrive where most other microbes cannot survive.
• Heat-Stable Enzymes: They produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures. These enzymes are used in industries like PCR testing and biofuel production.
• Strong Cell Membranes: Their cell membranes contain special fats that resist melting. This helps them stay intact in extreme heat.
• Unique Metabolism: Thermophiles can use unusual nutrients like sulfur or iron. This allows them to live in mineral-rich, low-competition areas.
• Survival Mechanisms: Some thermophiles form spores or have strong DNA repair systems. These features protect them in harsh and changing environments.
• Examples of Thermophiles: Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests) Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production) Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs)
• Thermus aquaticus (used in PCR tests)
• Actinobacteria (noted for antibiotic production)
• Sulfolobus acidocaldarius (found in acidic hot springs)
• Key Features of Antibiotic-Producing Thermophilic Bacteria: Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation. Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens. Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules.
• Heat-Stable Enzymes: Thermophiles produce enzymes that remain active at high temperatures, making them ideal for industrial applications like PCR and fermentation.
• Antibiotic Synthesis: They generate potent antimicrobial compounds to eliminate rival microbes in extreme environments, useful in combating resistant pathogens.
• Unique Metabolic Pathways: Their survival in extreme conditions is enabled by novel metabolic processes, often leading to the discovery of rare bioactive molecules.
• Applications of Thermophiles: Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes. Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions. Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation.
• Medical: They are a promising source of new antibiotics—like diethyl phthalate from Rajgir—which combat drug-resistant infections such as Listeria monocytogenes.
• Agriculture: Thermophilic microbial blends enhance soil fertility and crop resilience by promoting growth under harsh environmental conditions.
• Industrial: Their heat-resistant enzymes are used in processes like polymerase chain reaction (PCR), biofuel generation, and waste degradation.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Kulsi River, a significant habitat for the Gangetic Dolphin, is a major transboundary river originating in Bhutan and flowing through Assam. The Gangetic Dolphin, India’s National Aquatic Animal, navigates and hunts using highly developed eyesight. The proposed hydropower project on the Kulsi River poses a potential threat to the dolphin population in that habitat. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kulsi River originates in the West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) and flows into Assam. It does not originate in Bhutan. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gangetic Dolphin is functionally blind. It lacks a functional eye lens and navigates, hunts, and communicates using a sophisticated system of high-frequency sounds known as echolocation, not eyesight. Statement 3 is correct. The construction of a hydropower project, which involves building a dam or barrage, fundamentally alters a river’s flow, depth, and sediment regime. Such changes can disrupt the habitat of river dolphins, fragment their populations, and interfere with their movement and access to prey. About Kulsi River: Location: Flows through West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) into Kamrup district (Assam). Origin & Course: Originates in Meghalaya. It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River. Key Features: Small, shallow river with average width of 70–80 meters and rich in biodiversity and endangered species habitat. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kulsi River originates in the West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) and flows into Assam. It does not originate in Bhutan. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gangetic Dolphin is functionally blind. It lacks a functional eye lens and navigates, hunts, and communicates using a sophisticated system of high-frequency sounds known as echolocation, not eyesight. Statement 3 is correct. The construction of a hydropower project, which involves building a dam or barrage, fundamentally alters a river’s flow, depth, and sediment regime. Such changes can disrupt the habitat of river dolphins, fragment their populations, and interfere with their movement and access to prey. About Kulsi River: Location: Flows through West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) into Kamrup district (Assam). Origin & Course: Originates in Meghalaya. It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River. Key Features: Small, shallow river with average width of 70–80 meters and rich in biodiversity and endangered species habitat.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Kulsi River, a significant habitat for the Gangetic Dolphin, is a major transboundary river originating in Bhutan and flowing through Assam.
• The Gangetic Dolphin, India’s National Aquatic Animal, navigates and hunts using highly developed eyesight.
• The proposed hydropower project on the Kulsi River poses a potential threat to the dolphin population in that habitat.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kulsi River originates in the West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) and flows into Assam. It does not originate in Bhutan.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gangetic Dolphin is functionally blind. It lacks a functional eye lens and navigates, hunts, and communicates using a sophisticated system of high-frequency sounds known as echolocation, not eyesight.
• Statement 3 is correct. The construction of a hydropower project, which involves building a dam or barrage, fundamentally alters a river’s flow, depth, and sediment regime. Such changes can disrupt the habitat of river dolphins, fragment their populations, and interfere with their movement and access to prey.
About Kulsi River:
• Location: Flows through West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) into Kamrup district (Assam).
• Origin & Course: Originates in Meghalaya. It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River.
• Originates in Meghalaya.
• It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River.
• Key Features: Small, shallow river with average width of 70–80 meters and rich in biodiversity and endangered species habitat.
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kulsi River originates in the West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) and flows into Assam. It does not originate in Bhutan.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gangetic Dolphin is functionally blind. It lacks a functional eye lens and navigates, hunts, and communicates using a sophisticated system of high-frequency sounds known as echolocation, not eyesight.
• Statement 3 is correct. The construction of a hydropower project, which involves building a dam or barrage, fundamentally alters a river’s flow, depth, and sediment regime. Such changes can disrupt the habitat of river dolphins, fragment their populations, and interfere with their movement and access to prey.
About Kulsi River:
• Location: Flows through West Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) into Kamrup district (Assam).
• Origin & Course: Originates in Meghalaya. It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River.
• Originates in Meghalaya.
• It flows ~60 km before joining the Brahmaputra River.
• Key Features: Small, shallow river with average width of 70–80 meters and rich in biodiversity and endangered species habitat.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to Mount Etna, consider the following statements: It is located on the island of Sicily at the convergent boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. It is classified as a shield volcano due to its expansive base and non-explosive eruptions. Its geological and scientific importance has led to its recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Mount Etna is on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, and it lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. The subduction of the African plate beneath the Eurasian plate is the primary driver of volcanic activity in this region, including at Mount Etna. Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Etna is a stratovolcano, not a shield volcano. Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes) are characterized by steep conical shapes built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and ash. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Etna was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. This recognition was granted for its immense geological significance, its role in scientific studies for over two millennia, and its cultural importance. About Mount Etna Volcano: What It Is? Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world. It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations. Location: Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania. Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. History: Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years. In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025. Features of Etna: Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps. Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano. Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions. Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere. World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance. Why Do Volcanoes Erupt? Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma. Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure. Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Mount Etna is on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, and it lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. The subduction of the African plate beneath the Eurasian plate is the primary driver of volcanic activity in this region, including at Mount Etna. Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Etna is a stratovolcano, not a shield volcano. Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes) are characterized by steep conical shapes built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and ash. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Etna was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. This recognition was granted for its immense geological significance, its role in scientific studies for over two millennia, and its cultural importance. About Mount Etna Volcano: What It Is? Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world. It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations. Location: Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania. Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. History: Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years. In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025. Features of Etna: Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps. Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano. Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions. Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere. World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance. Why Do Volcanoes Erupt? Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma. Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure. Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions.
#### 6. Question
With reference to Mount Etna, consider the following statements:
• It is located on the island of Sicily at the convergent boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.
• It is classified as a shield volcano due to its expansive base and non-explosive eruptions.
• Its geological and scientific importance has led to its recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
• Statement 1 is correct. Mount Etna is on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, and it lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. The subduction of the African plate beneath the Eurasian plate is the primary driver of volcanic activity in this region, including at Mount Etna.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Etna is a stratovolcano, not a shield volcano. Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes) are characterized by steep conical shapes built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and ash.
• Statement 3 is correct. Mount Etna was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. This recognition was granted for its immense geological significance, its role in scientific studies for over two millennia, and its cultural importance.
About Mount Etna Volcano:
• What It Is? Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world. It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations.
• Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world.
• It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations.
• Location: Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania. Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.
• Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania.
• Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.
• History: Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years. In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025.
• Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years.
• In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025.
• Features of Etna: Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps. Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano. Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions. Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere. World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance.
• Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps.
• Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano.
• Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions.
• Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere.
• World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance.
• Why Do Volcanoes Erupt? Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma. Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure. Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions.
• Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma.
• Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure.
• Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions.
Solution: C
• Statement 1 is correct. Mount Etna is on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, and it lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. The subduction of the African plate beneath the Eurasian plate is the primary driver of volcanic activity in this region, including at Mount Etna.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Etna is a stratovolcano, not a shield volcano. Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes) are characterized by steep conical shapes built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and ash.
• Statement 3 is correct. Mount Etna was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. This recognition was granted for its immense geological significance, its role in scientific studies for over two millennia, and its cultural importance.
About Mount Etna Volcano:
• What It Is? Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world. It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations.
• Mount Etna is a stratovolcano and one of the most active volcanoes in the world.
• It is classified as a Decade Volcano due to its frequent activity and risk to nearby populations.
• Location: Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania. Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.
• Situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, Italy, between Messina and Catania.
• Lies at the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.
• History: Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years. In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025.
• Etna’s volcanic activity can be traced back over 500,000 years.
• In recent notable eruptions occurred in 2018, 2021, and now in 2025.
• Features of Etna: Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps. Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano. Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions. Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere. World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance.
• Tallest Active Volcano in Europe: Stands at approximately 3,403 metres, making it the highest peak south of the Alps.
• Expansive Volcanic Structure: Spans an area of 1,190 square kilometres with a basal circumference of 140 km, making it Italy’s largest active volcano.
• Complex Crater System: Contains five active summit craters and over 300 flank vents, enabling both summit and lateral (flank) eruptions.
• Strombolian vs Plinian Debate: While some classify it as Strombolian (discrete bursts), others consider it Plinian due to the ash cloud reaching the stratosphere.
• World Heritage Recognition: Inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 for its geological, scientific, and cultural significance.
• Why Do Volcanoes Erupt? Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma. Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure. Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions.
• Subsurface Magma Pooling: High heat and pressure in Earth’s mantle melt rock into magma.
• Gas Expansion: Volatiles like CO₂ and SO₂ expand as magma rises, increasing pressure.
• Surface Fractures: Faults in Earth’s crust let magma escape, triggering eruptions.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the new legal framework for Ladakh: The President of India is empowered to frame these regulations under Article 371 of the Constitution. The definition of ‘domicile’ for job reservations includes residency for 15 years or having studied in Ladakh for 7 years and passed local examinations. The new framework establishes a unicameral legislature for the Union Territory of Ladakh to enact its own laws. The reservation for women in the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils is implemented on a rotational basis. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The President frames these regulations under Article 240 of the Constitution, which grants this power for certain Union Territories, specifically those without their own legislatures. Article 371 provides for special provisions for states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, etc., and is not applicable here. Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately reflects the definition of domicile as per new regulations. It lays down clear criteria based on the duration of residence or education within Ladakh, aiming to protect local employment opportunities. Statement 3 is incorrect. The regulations were framed under Article 240 precisely because Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature. The new framework consists of executive regulations, not the establishment of a legislative body. Statement 4 is correct. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025, specifies that the one-third reservation for women in LAHDC seats will be implemented using a rotational system. This ensures that different constituencies are reserved for women over time, promoting broader political representation. About Centre’s New Regulations for Ladakh: What are these regulations? The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context. Summary of Key Regulations: Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees. Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority. Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage. Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system. Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The President frames these regulations under Article 240 of the Constitution, which grants this power for certain Union Territories, specifically those without their own legislatures. Article 371 provides for special provisions for states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, etc., and is not applicable here. Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately reflects the definition of domicile as per new regulations. It lays down clear criteria based on the duration of residence or education within Ladakh, aiming to protect local employment opportunities. Statement 3 is incorrect. The regulations were framed under Article 240 precisely because Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature. The new framework consists of executive regulations, not the establishment of a legislative body. Statement 4 is correct. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025, specifies that the one-third reservation for women in LAHDC seats will be implemented using a rotational system. This ensures that different constituencies are reserved for women over time, promoting broader political representation. About Centre’s New Regulations for Ladakh: What are these regulations? The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context. Summary of Key Regulations: Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees. Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority. Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage. Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system. Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the new legal framework for Ladakh:
• The President of India is empowered to frame these regulations under Article 371 of the Constitution.
• The definition of ‘domicile’ for job reservations includes residency for 15 years or having studied in Ladakh for 7 years and passed local examinations.
• The new framework establishes a unicameral legislature for the Union Territory of Ladakh to enact its own laws.
• The reservation for women in the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils is implemented on a rotational basis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The President frames these regulations under Article 240 of the Constitution, which grants this power for certain Union Territories, specifically those without their own legislatures. Article 371 provides for special provisions for states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, etc., and is not applicable here.
• Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately reflects the definition of domicile as per new regulations. It lays down clear criteria based on the duration of residence or education within Ladakh, aiming to protect local employment opportunities.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The regulations were framed under Article 240 precisely because Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature. The new framework consists of executive regulations, not the establishment of a legislative body.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025, specifies that the one-third reservation for women in LAHDC seats will be implemented using a rotational system. This ensures that different constituencies are reserved for women over time, promoting broader political representation.
About Centre’s New Regulations for Ladakh:
• What are these regulations? The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context.
• The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context.
• Summary of Key Regulations: Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees. Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority. Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage. Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system. Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
• Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees.
• Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment.
• Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees.
• Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority.
• Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes.
• Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority.
• Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage.
• Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages.
• Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage.
• Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system.
• Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system.
• Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
• First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations.
• Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands.
• Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils.
• Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The President frames these regulations under Article 240 of the Constitution, which grants this power for certain Union Territories, specifically those without their own legislatures. Article 371 provides for special provisions for states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, etc., and is not applicable here.
• Statement 2 is correct. This statement accurately reflects the definition of domicile as per new regulations. It lays down clear criteria based on the duration of residence or education within Ladakh, aiming to protect local employment opportunities.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The regulations were framed under Article 240 precisely because Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature. The new framework consists of executive regulations, not the establishment of a legislative body.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025, specifies that the one-third reservation for women in LAHDC seats will be implemented using a rotational system. This ensures that different constituencies are reserved for women over time, promoting broader political representation.
About Centre’s New Regulations for Ladakh:
• What are these regulations? The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context.
• The Union Government, under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to frame regulations for Union Territories without legislatures, has introduced a set of executive rules tailored to Ladakh’s unique socio-cultural context.
• Summary of Key Regulations: Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees. Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority. Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage. Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system. Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
• Ladakh Civil Services Decentralization and Recruitment (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment. Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees.
• Introduces domicile-based job reservations in government employment.
• Domicile defined as residents of 15 years, students with 7 years of schooling and local exams, and children of long-term Central Government employees.
• Ladakh Civil Services Domicile Certificate Rules, 2025: Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes. Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority.
• Details procedure for domicile certificate issuance, including physical and online application modes.
• Tehsildar as issuing authority; Deputy Commissioner as appellate authority.
• Union Territory of Ladakh Reservation (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Increases caste-based reservation in public employment and professional institutions (e.g., medical, engineering) to 85%, excluding 10% for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
• Ladakh Official Languages Regulation, 2025: Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages. Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage.
• Recognises English, Hindi, Urdu, Bhoti, and Purgi as official languages.
• Promotes Shina, Brokskat, Balti, and Ladakhi to preserve linguistic and tribal heritage.
• Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (Amendment) Regulation, 2025: Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system.
• Reserves one-third of LAHDC seats for women, using a rotational system.
• Significance of the New Legal Framework: First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations. Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands. Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils. Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
• First Indigenous Legal Architecture: These are the first region-specific laws post-bifurcation, distinct from borrowed J&K regulations.
• Protects Local Interests: Domicile clause in jobs and language recognition meet core public demands.
• Empowers Women: Political participation of women institutionalised through reservation in hill development councils.
• Cultural Inclusion: Recognition of tribal dialects addresses identity and heritage concerns in a plural society.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphin: It is exclusively found in the main channel of the Brahmaputra river system. Its conservation status under the IUCN Red List is ‘Critically Endangered’. The species is known to favour counter-current flows within river channels for foraging. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The dolphin’s geographic distribution includes the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN Red List status of the Gangetic Dolphin is Endangered, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Statement 3 is correct. Gangetic dolphins are often found in areas with counter-currents, typically downstream of confluences or sharp meanders. This type of water flow is believed to concentrate fish and other prey, making it an efficient location for foraging for a species that relies on echolocation to hunt. About Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) What is the Gangetic Dolphin? A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally. Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air. Geographic Distribution: Inhabits Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu River systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. Key Biological Features: Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation. Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe. Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels. IUCN Red List: Endangered Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The dolphin’s geographic distribution includes the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN Red List status of the Gangetic Dolphin is Endangered, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Statement 3 is correct. Gangetic dolphins are often found in areas with counter-currents, typically downstream of confluences or sharp meanders. This type of water flow is believed to concentrate fish and other prey, making it an efficient location for foraging for a species that relies on echolocation to hunt. About Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) What is the Gangetic Dolphin? A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally. Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air. Geographic Distribution: Inhabits Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu River systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. Key Biological Features: Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation. Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe. Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels. IUCN Red List: Endangered Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation.
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphin:
• It is exclusively found in the main channel of the Brahmaputra river system.
• Its conservation status under the IUCN Red List is ‘Critically Endangered’.
• The species is known to favour counter-current flows within river channels for foraging.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The dolphin’s geographic distribution includes the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN Red List status of the Gangetic Dolphin is Endangered, not ‘Critically Endangered’.
• Statement 3 is correct. Gangetic dolphins are often found in areas with counter-currents, typically downstream of confluences or sharp meanders. This type of water flow is believed to concentrate fish and other prey, making it an efficient location for foraging for a species that relies on echolocation to hunt.
About Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica)
• What is the Gangetic Dolphin? A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally. Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air.
• A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally.
• Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air.
• Geographic Distribution: Inhabits Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu River systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
• Key Biological Features: Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation. Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe. Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels. IUCN Red List: Endangered Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation.
• Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation.
• Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe.
• Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels.
• IUCN Red List: Endangered
• Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation.
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The dolphin’s geographic distribution includes the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN Red List status of the Gangetic Dolphin is Endangered, not ‘Critically Endangered’.
• Statement 3 is correct. Gangetic dolphins are often found in areas with counter-currents, typically downstream of confluences or sharp meanders. This type of water flow is believed to concentrate fish and other prey, making it an efficient location for foraging for a species that relies on echolocation to hunt.
About Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica)
• What is the Gangetic Dolphin? A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally. Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air.
• A freshwater dolphin species found in South Asia, one of only five river dolphin species globally.
• Locally known as “Susu” for the sound it emits while surfacing for air.
• Geographic Distribution: Inhabits Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli-Sangu River systems across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
• Key Biological Features: Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation. Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe. Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels. IUCN Red List: Endangered Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation.
• Blind Species: Lacks functional lenses; navigates and hunts using echolocation.
• Respiration: Surfaces every 30–120 seconds to breathe.
• Feeding Habits: Predominantly eats fish and favors counter-current flows in main river channels.
• IUCN Red List: Endangered
• Declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, symbolizing freshwater ecosystem conservation.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN) functions independently of state and district health authorities to maintain impartiality in surveillance. The establishment of the NPSN was a proactive measure taken by India after being declared polio-free to prevent re-emergence. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPSN works in close coordination and collaboration with state and district health officials. Its key functions include training these officials and supporting their efforts. The Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) are deployed within the existing health system to strengthen it, not to work independently of it. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN was established in 1997, long before India was declared polio-free (which happened in 2014). It was created to achieve the goal of polio eradication by supporting surveillance and immunization campaigns, not as a post-eradication measure. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPSN works in close coordination and collaboration with state and district health officials. Its key functions include training these officials and supporting their efforts. The Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) are deployed within the existing health system to strengthen it, not to work independently of it. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN was established in 1997, long before India was declared polio-free (which happened in 2014). It was created to achieve the goal of polio eradication by supporting surveillance and immunization campaigns, not as a post-eradication measure.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN) functions independently of state and district health authorities to maintain impartiality in surveillance.
• The establishment of the NPSN was a proactive measure taken by India after being declared polio-free to prevent re-emergence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPSN works in close coordination and collaboration with state and district health officials. Its key functions include training these officials and supporting their efforts. The Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) are deployed within the existing health system to strengthen it, not to work independently of it.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN was established in 1997, long before India was declared polio-free (which happened in 2014). It was created to achieve the goal of polio eradication by supporting surveillance and immunization campaigns, not as a post-eradication measure.
Solution: D
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPSN works in close coordination and collaboration with state and district health officials. Its key functions include training these officials and supporting their efforts. The Surveillance Medical Officers (SMOs) are deployed within the existing health system to strengthen it, not to work independently of it.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPSN was established in 1997, long before India was declared polio-free (which happened in 2014). It was created to achieve the goal of polio eradication by supporting surveillance and immunization campaigns, not as a post-eradication measure.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Aravalli Range, consider the following statements: Statement I: The Aravalli Range is one of the world’s oldest fold mountain systems, formed during the Proterozoic Era. Statement II: It acts as a significant climatic divide, preventing moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea from reaching the Thar Desert. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Geologically, the Aravalli Range is one of the most ancient mountain ranges on Earth. It dates back to the Proterozoic Era, formed through the collision of tectonic plates, making it a classic example of an old fold mountain system that has since been heavily eroded. Statement-II is incorrect. The range runs parallel (in a southwest to northeast direction) to the path of the southwest monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea. Because it is parallel and not very high, it fails to act as an effective barrier to these moisture-laden winds. This is a primary reason why western Rajasthan remains arid. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Geologically, the Aravalli Range is one of the most ancient mountain ranges on Earth. It dates back to the Proterozoic Era, formed through the collision of tectonic plates, making it a classic example of an old fold mountain system that has since been heavily eroded. Statement-II is incorrect. The range runs parallel (in a southwest to northeast direction) to the path of the southwest monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea. Because it is parallel and not very high, it fails to act as an effective barrier to these moisture-laden winds. This is a primary reason why western Rajasthan remains arid.
#### 10. Question
With reference to the Aravalli Range, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Aravalli Range is one of the world’s oldest fold mountain systems, formed during the Proterozoic Era.
Statement II: It acts as a significant climatic divide, preventing moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea from reaching the Thar Desert.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: C
• Statement-I is correct. Geologically, the Aravalli Range is one of the most ancient mountain ranges on Earth. It dates back to the Proterozoic Era, formed through the collision of tectonic plates, making it a classic example of an old fold mountain system that has since been heavily eroded.
• Statement-II is incorrect. The range runs parallel (in a southwest to northeast direction) to the path of the southwest monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea. Because it is parallel and not very high, it fails to act as an effective barrier to these moisture-laden winds. This is a primary reason why western Rajasthan remains arid.
Solution: C
• Statement-I is correct. Geologically, the Aravalli Range is one of the most ancient mountain ranges on Earth. It dates back to the Proterozoic Era, formed through the collision of tectonic plates, making it a classic example of an old fold mountain system that has since been heavily eroded.
• Statement-II is incorrect. The range runs parallel (in a southwest to northeast direction) to the path of the southwest monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea. Because it is parallel and not very high, it fails to act as an effective barrier to these moisture-laden winds. This is a primary reason why western Rajasthan remains arid.
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