UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Project Dolphin, consider the following statements: It is a 10-year conservation initiative focused solely on the protection of the Gangetic Dolphin in riverine ecosystems. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) coordinates the range-wide surveys under this project. The project integrates scientific monitoring with the empowerment of local communities. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Gangetic Dolphin is a primary focus, Project Dolphin is not limited to it. The initiative covers both riverine and oceanic (marine) dolphins across India’s waters. It aims to protect the overall biodiversity of these cetaceans, including the Indus River Dolphin and various coastal species. Statement 2 is correct. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII), an autonomous body under the MoEFCC, serves as the primary technical and coordinating agency for the scientific estimation and range-wide surveys. They use standardized protocols, including acoustic monitoring (hydrophones), to ensure accurate data collection across different states. Statement 3 is correct. A core philosophy of Project Dolphin is involving stakeholder participation, particularly local fishing communities. By linking dolphin conservation with river health and sustainable livelihoods, the project aims to reduce human-wildlife conflict and “by-catch” incidents. This community-centric approach is vital for long-term success in vast, populated river systems like the Ganga and Brahmaputra, where top-down enforcement alone is often insufficient for conservation goals. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Gangetic Dolphin is a primary focus, Project Dolphin is not limited to it. The initiative covers both riverine and oceanic (marine) dolphins across India’s waters. It aims to protect the overall biodiversity of these cetaceans, including the Indus River Dolphin and various coastal species. Statement 2 is correct. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII), an autonomous body under the MoEFCC, serves as the primary technical and coordinating agency for the scientific estimation and range-wide surveys. They use standardized protocols, including acoustic monitoring (hydrophones), to ensure accurate data collection across different states. Statement 3 is correct. A core philosophy of Project Dolphin is involving stakeholder participation, particularly local fishing communities. By linking dolphin conservation with river health and sustainable livelihoods, the project aims to reduce human-wildlife conflict and “by-catch” incidents. This community-centric approach is vital for long-term success in vast, populated river systems like the Ganga and Brahmaputra, where top-down enforcement alone is often insufficient for conservation goals.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Project Dolphin, consider the following statements:

• It is a 10-year conservation initiative focused solely on the protection of the Gangetic Dolphin in riverine ecosystems.

• The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) coordinates the range-wide surveys under this project.

• The project integrates scientific monitoring with the empowerment of local communities.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Gangetic Dolphin is a primary focus, Project Dolphin is not limited to it. The initiative covers both riverine and oceanic (marine) dolphins across India’s waters. It aims to protect the overall biodiversity of these cetaceans, including the Indus River Dolphin and various coastal species.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII), an autonomous body under the MoEFCC, serves as the primary technical and coordinating agency for the scientific estimation and range-wide surveys. They use standardized protocols, including acoustic monitoring (hydrophones), to ensure accurate data collection across different states.

• Statement 3 is correct. A core philosophy of Project Dolphin is involving stakeholder participation, particularly local fishing communities. By linking dolphin conservation with river health and sustainable livelihoods, the project aims to reduce human-wildlife conflict and “by-catch” incidents.

• This community-centric approach is vital for long-term success in vast, populated river systems like the Ganga and Brahmaputra, where top-down enforcement alone is often insufficient for conservation goals.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Treaty: It is a legally binding agreement under the framework of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It mandates the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs). The treaty prohibits any state from claiming sovereign rights over high-seas biological resources. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The BBNJ Treaty, also known as the High Seas Treaty, is a legally binding international instrument negotiated under the umbrella of UNCLOS to address governance gaps in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Statement 1 is correct because the treaty does not exist independently but derives its legal authority from UNCLOS, reinforcing and operationalising its principles for biodiversity conservation in the high seas. Statement 2 is also correct, as one of the four core pillars of the treaty is the access to and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from Marine Genetic Resources, including both monetary and non-monetary benefits such as data, research results, and technology transfer. Statement 3 is correct because the high seas are governed by the principle of non-appropriation; no state can claim sovereignty over biological resources in these areas, and the treaty explicitly reaffirms this principle while creating cooperative mechanisms for conservation and sustainable use. Incorrect Solution: C The BBNJ Treaty, also known as the High Seas Treaty, is a legally binding international instrument negotiated under the umbrella of UNCLOS to address governance gaps in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Statement 1 is correct because the treaty does not exist independently but derives its legal authority from UNCLOS, reinforcing and operationalising its principles for biodiversity conservation in the high seas. Statement 2 is also correct, as one of the four core pillars of the treaty is the access to and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from Marine Genetic Resources, including both monetary and non-monetary benefits such as data, research results, and technology transfer. Statement 3 is correct because the high seas are governed by the principle of non-appropriation; no state can claim sovereignty over biological resources in these areas, and the treaty explicitly reaffirms this principle while creating cooperative mechanisms for conservation and sustainable use.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Treaty:

• It is a legally binding agreement under the framework of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

• It mandates the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs).

• The treaty prohibits any state from claiming sovereign rights over high-seas biological resources.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The BBNJ Treaty, also known as the High Seas Treaty, is a legally binding international instrument negotiated under the umbrella of UNCLOS to address governance gaps in areas beyond national jurisdiction.

• Statement 1 is correct because the treaty does not exist independently but derives its legal authority from UNCLOS, reinforcing and operationalising its principles for biodiversity conservation in the high seas.

• Statement 2 is also correct, as one of the four core pillars of the treaty is the access to and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from Marine Genetic Resources, including both monetary and non-monetary benefits such as data, research results, and technology transfer.

Statement 3 is correct because the high seas are governed by the principle of non-appropriation; no state can claim sovereignty over biological resources in these areas, and the treaty explicitly reaffirms this principle while creating cooperative mechanisms for conservation and sustainable use.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), consider the following: Statement I: ECOSOC is the central platform for the follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Statement II: It has the authority to grant consultative status to non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to participate in UN work. Statement III: It serves as one of the six principal organs of the United Nations established by the 1945 Charter. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B The United Nations Economic and Social Council plays a pivotal role in the UN system’s economic, social, and sustainable development architecture. Statement I is correct because ECOSOC has been explicitly designated as the central platform for follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda, particularly through mechanisms such as the High-Level Political Forum. Statement II is correct, as ECOSOC is empowered under the UN Charter to grant consultative status to NGOs, enabling civil society participation in deliberations, agenda-setting, and policy inputs. Statement III is also correct because ECOSOC is indeed one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, established by the UN Charter in 1945. However, only Statement III explains Statement I. ECOSOC’s status as a principal organ provides the institutional authority and legitimacy for it to function as the central review platform for the 2030 Agenda. Statement II, while factually correct, relates to civil society engagement and does not directly explain why ECOSOC occupies this central coordinating role. Incorrect Solution: B The United Nations Economic and Social Council plays a pivotal role in the UN system’s economic, social, and sustainable development architecture. Statement I is correct because ECOSOC has been explicitly designated as the central platform for follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda, particularly through mechanisms such as the High-Level Political Forum. Statement II is correct, as ECOSOC is empowered under the UN Charter to grant consultative status to NGOs, enabling civil society participation in deliberations, agenda-setting, and policy inputs. Statement III is also correct because ECOSOC is indeed one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, established by the UN Charter in 1945. However, only Statement III explains Statement I. ECOSOC’s status as a principal organ provides the institutional authority and legitimacy for it to function as the central review platform for the 2030 Agenda. Statement II, while factually correct, relates to civil society engagement and does not directly explain why ECOSOC occupies this central coordinating role.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), consider the following:

Statement I: ECOSOC is the central platform for the follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

Statement II: It has the authority to grant consultative status to non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to participate in UN work.

Statement III: It serves as one of the six principal organs of the United Nations established by the 1945 Charter.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• The United Nations Economic and Social Council plays a pivotal role in the UN system’s economic, social, and sustainable development architecture.

• Statement I is correct because ECOSOC has been explicitly designated as the central platform for follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda, particularly through mechanisms such as the High-Level Political Forum.

• Statement II is correct, as ECOSOC is empowered under the UN Charter to grant consultative status to NGOs, enabling civil society participation in deliberations, agenda-setting, and policy inputs.

• Statement III is also correct because ECOSOC is indeed one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, established by the UN Charter in 1945.

• However, only Statement III explains Statement I. ECOSOC’s status as a principal organ provides the institutional authority and legitimacy for it to function as the central review platform for the 2030 Agenda. Statement II, while factually correct, relates to civil society engagement and does not directly explain why ECOSOC occupies this central coordinating role.

Solution: B

• The United Nations Economic and Social Council plays a pivotal role in the UN system’s economic, social, and sustainable development architecture.

• Statement III is also correct because ECOSOC is indeed one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, established by the UN Charter in 1945.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Meiofauna’, a term recently in the news regarding marine discoveries? (a) Large marine mammals that migrate across the High Seas. (a) Large marine mammals that migrate across the High Seas. (c) Genetically modified fish used in open-sea aquaculture. (d) Tiny invertebrates, less than 1 mm in size, living within aquatic sediments. Correct Solution: D The term “meiofauna” refers to a specific size-based category of animals. These are microscopic invertebrates that are larger than microfauna (like protozoa) but smaller than macrofauna (like crabs or shrimp). Typically, they are defined as organisms that pass through a 1 mm mesh but are retained by a 45 micrometre mesh. The discovery of *Indiaphonte bijoyi in the Kavaratti lagoon highlighted the importance of these organisms. Meiofauna, particularly copepods, play a vital role in marine ecosystems by recycling nutrients, grazing on microalgae, and serving as a foundational food source for larger aquatic species. They are often used as indicators of ecosystem health because they are highly sensitive to changes in sediment quality and pollution. Understanding meiofauna is essential for biodiversity mapping, as many species within this group remain undiscovered due to their minuscule size and specialized habitats within the interstitial spaces of sand and silt. Incorrect Solution: D The term “meiofauna” refers to a specific size-based category of animals. These are microscopic invertebrates that are larger than microfauna (like protozoa) but smaller than macrofauna (like crabs or shrimp). Typically, they are defined as organisms that pass through a 1 mm mesh but are retained by a 45 micrometre mesh. The discovery of Indiaphonte bijoyi in the Kavaratti lagoon highlighted the importance of these organisms. Meiofauna, particularly copepods*, play a vital role in marine ecosystems by recycling nutrients, grazing on microalgae, and serving as a foundational food source for larger aquatic species. They are often used as indicators of ecosystem health because they are highly sensitive to changes in sediment quality and pollution. Understanding meiofauna is essential for biodiversity mapping, as many species within this group remain undiscovered due to their minuscule size and specialized habitats within the interstitial spaces of sand and silt.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Meiofauna’, a term recently in the news regarding marine discoveries?

• (a) Large marine mammals that migrate across the High Seas.

• (c) Genetically modified fish used in open-sea aquaculture.

• (d) Tiny invertebrates, less than 1 mm in size, living within aquatic sediments.

Solution: D

• The term “meiofauna” refers to a specific size-based category of animals. These are microscopic invertebrates that are larger than microfauna (like protozoa) but smaller than macrofauna (like crabs or shrimp). Typically, they are defined as organisms that pass through a 1 mm mesh but are retained by a 45 micrometre mesh.

• The discovery of *Indiaphonte bijoyi in the Kavaratti lagoon highlighted the importance of these organisms. Meiofauna, particularly copepods*, play a vital role in marine ecosystems by recycling nutrients, grazing on microalgae, and serving as a foundational food source for larger aquatic species.

• They are often used as indicators of ecosystem health because they are highly sensitive to changes in sediment quality and pollution. Understanding meiofauna is essential for biodiversity mapping, as many species within this group remain undiscovered due to their minuscule size and specialized habitats within the interstitial spaces of sand and silt.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Andaman Sea, consider the following statements: It is a marginal sea of the north-eastern Indian Ocean. It contains an active subduction zone where the Indian Plate subducts beneath the Burma microplate. The northern part of the sea is characterized by a deep oceanic trench due to the Irrawaddy River delta. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Andaman Sea is a significant marginal sea located in the north-eastern Indian Ocean. Statement 2 is correct. Geologically, the region is highly active. The Andaman–Nicobar Ridge marks a boundary where the Indian Plate is subducting under the Burma microplate. This tectonic activity is responsible for the formation of the island arc and the deep submarine valleys within the sea. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Irrawaddy River delta does influence the northern Andaman Sea, it creates a shallow continental shelf due to massive sediment deposition, not a deep trench. The deep zones (exceeding 4,400 meters) are generally found in the central and eastern portions of the basin, away from the river deltas. The shallow nature of the northern shelf significantly affects the salinity and turbidity of the water, making it a unique ecological zone compared to the deeper oceanic parts of the sea. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Andaman Sea is a significant marginal sea located in the north-eastern Indian Ocean. Statement 2 is correct. Geologically, the region is highly active. The Andaman–Nicobar Ridge marks a boundary where the Indian Plate is subducting under the Burma microplate. This tectonic activity is responsible for the formation of the island arc and the deep submarine valleys within the sea. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Irrawaddy River delta does influence the northern Andaman Sea, it creates a shallow continental shelf due to massive sediment deposition, not a deep trench. The deep zones (exceeding 4,400 meters) are generally found in the central and eastern portions of the basin, away from the river deltas. The shallow nature of the northern shelf significantly affects the salinity and turbidity of the water, making it a unique ecological zone compared to the deeper oceanic parts of the sea.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Andaman Sea, consider the following statements:

• It is a marginal sea of the north-eastern Indian Ocean.

• It contains an active subduction zone where the Indian Plate subducts beneath the Burma microplate.

• The northern part of the sea is characterized by a deep oceanic trench due to the Irrawaddy River delta.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The Andaman Sea is a significant marginal sea located in the north-eastern Indian Ocean.

• Statement 2 is correct. Geologically, the region is highly active. The Andaman–Nicobar Ridge marks a boundary where the Indian Plate is subducting under the Burma microplate. This tectonic activity is responsible for the formation of the island arc and the deep submarine valleys within the sea.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Irrawaddy River delta does influence the northern Andaman Sea, it creates a shallow continental shelf due to massive sediment deposition, not a deep trench. The deep zones (exceeding 4,400 meters) are generally found in the central and eastern portions of the basin, away from the river deltas. The shallow nature of the northern shelf significantly affects the salinity and turbidity of the water, making it a unique ecological zone compared to the deeper oceanic parts of the sea.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The Andaman Sea is a significant marginal sea located in the north-eastern Indian Ocean.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The “30 by 30” goal, often mentioned in the context of international environmental agreements like the BBNJ Treaty, refers to: (a) Reducing carbon emissions by 30% by the year 2030. (b) Allocating 30% of the UN budget to biodiversity conservation by 2030. (c) Achieving 30% renewable energy share in the global energy mix by 2030. (d) Protecting 30% of the world's land and 30% of the global ocean area by 2030. Correct Solution: D The “30 by 30” goal is a global target that emerged from the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Its primary objective is to ensure that by 2030, at least 30% of the planet’s land and 30% of its oceans are under effective conservation and management. The BBNJ Treaty (High Seas Treaty) is considered a critical instrument for achieving the “ocean” part of this goal. Since the High Seas cover nearly two-thirds of the global ocean and were previously largely unregulated, creating Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in international waters is the only way to reach the 30% threshold. Without a legal framework like BBNJ, conservation efforts were limited to national territorial waters, which account for only a small fraction of the global marine environment. The treaty enables the international community to identify and protect fragile ecosystems, migratory routes, and biodiversity hotspots in the open ocean, which is essential for maintaining global marine health. Incorrect Solution: D The “30 by 30” goal is a global target that emerged from the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Its primary objective is to ensure that by 2030, at least 30% of the planet’s land and 30% of its oceans are under effective conservation and management. The BBNJ Treaty (High Seas Treaty) is considered a critical instrument for achieving the “ocean” part of this goal. Since the High Seas cover nearly two-thirds of the global ocean and were previously largely unregulated, creating Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in international waters is the only way to reach the 30% threshold. Without a legal framework like BBNJ, conservation efforts were limited to national territorial waters, which account for only a small fraction of the global marine environment. The treaty enables the international community to identify and protect fragile ecosystems, migratory routes, and biodiversity hotspots in the open ocean, which is essential for maintaining global marine health.

#### 6. Question

The “30 by 30” goal, often mentioned in the context of international environmental agreements like the BBNJ Treaty, refers to:

• (a) Reducing carbon emissions by 30% by the year 2030.

• (b) Allocating 30% of the UN budget to biodiversity conservation by 2030.

• (c) Achieving 30% renewable energy share in the global energy mix by 2030.

• (d) Protecting 30% of the world's land and 30% of the global ocean area by 2030.

Solution: D

• The “30 by 30” goal is a global target that emerged from the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Its primary objective is to ensure that by 2030, at least 30% of the planet’s land and 30% of its oceans are under effective conservation and management.

• The BBNJ Treaty (High Seas Treaty) is considered a critical instrument for achieving the “ocean” part of this goal. Since the High Seas cover nearly two-thirds of the global ocean and were previously largely unregulated, creating Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in international waters is the only way to reach the 30% threshold.

Without a legal framework like BBNJ, conservation efforts were limited to national territorial waters, which account for only a small fraction of the global marine environment. The treaty enables the international community to identify and protect fragile ecosystems, migratory routes, and biodiversity hotspots in the open ocean, which is essential for maintaining global marine health.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which one of the following is correct regarding the BRICS Plus naval exercise “Will for Peace 2026”? (a) It was the first-ever formal security meeting institutionalised by the BRICS Secretariat. (b) It was conducted off the coast of Simon’s Town, South Africa, with participation from Brazil as an active navy. (c) The theme of the exercise was "Joint Actions to Ensure the Safety of Key Shipping Lanes". (d) India participated as a lead observer to monitor the involvement of sanctioned states. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The theme of the “Will for Peace 2026” exercise was “Joint Actions to Ensure the Safety of Key Shipping Lanes and Maritime Economic Activities”. The exercise focused on maritime security, counter-terrorism, and search and rescue operations. Option (a) is incorrect because the exercise is non-institutionalised. It is a host-led (South Africa) initiative and is not part of the official, core BRICS framework. India has explicitly clarified this distinction. Option (b) is incorrect. While the location (Simon’s Town, South Africa) is correct, Brazil opted out of active participation, attending only as an observer. Option (d) is incorrect. India did not participate as an observer; it skipped the exercise entirely as a “considered political choice” to maintain its strategic autonomy and distance itself from a security bloc that included China, Russia, and Iran. This decision underscores India’s preference for keeping BRICS as a platform for economic and developmental cooperation rather than military signaling. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The theme of the “Will for Peace 2026” exercise was “Joint Actions to Ensure the Safety of Key Shipping Lanes and Maritime Economic Activities”. The exercise focused on maritime security, counter-terrorism, and search and rescue operations. Option (a) is incorrect because the exercise is non-institutionalised. It is a host-led (South Africa) initiative and is not part of the official, core BRICS framework. India has explicitly clarified this distinction. Option (b) is incorrect. While the location (Simon’s Town, South Africa) is correct, Brazil opted out of active participation, attending only as an observer. Option (d) is incorrect. India did not participate as an observer; it skipped the exercise entirely as a “considered political choice” to maintain its strategic autonomy and distance itself from a security bloc that included China, Russia, and Iran. This decision underscores India’s preference for keeping BRICS as a platform for economic and developmental cooperation rather than military signaling.

#### 7. Question

Which one of the following is correct regarding the BRICS Plus naval exercise “Will for Peace 2026”?

• (a) It was the first-ever formal security meeting institutionalised by the BRICS Secretariat.

• (b) It was conducted off the coast of Simon’s Town, South Africa, with participation from Brazil as an active navy.

• (c) The theme of the exercise was "Joint Actions to Ensure the Safety of Key Shipping Lanes".

• (d) India participated as a lead observer to monitor the involvement of sanctioned states.

Solution: C

• Option (c) is correct. The theme of the “Will for Peace 2026” exercise was “Joint Actions to Ensure the Safety of Key Shipping Lanes and Maritime Economic Activities”. The exercise focused on maritime security, counter-terrorism, and search and rescue operations.

• Option (a) is incorrect because the exercise is non-institutionalised. It is a host-led (South Africa) initiative and is not part of the official, core BRICS framework. India has explicitly clarified this distinction.

• Option (b) is incorrect. While the location (Simon’s Town, South Africa) is correct, Brazil opted out of active participation, attending only as an observer.

• Option (d) is incorrect. India did not participate as an observer; it skipped the exercise entirely as a “considered political choice” to maintain its strategic autonomy and distance itself from a security bloc that included China, Russia, and Iran. This decision underscores India’s preference for keeping BRICS as a platform for economic and developmental cooperation rather than military signaling.

Solution: C

• Option (b) is incorrect. While the location (Simon’s Town, South Africa) is correct, Brazil opted out of active participation, attending only as an observer.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM), consider the following statements: It is a third-generation missile equipped with ‘fire-and-forget’ capability. It utilizes an Infrared Imaging (IIR) homing seeker for target acquisition. The missile is designed to strike the target specifically at the frontal hull where the armor is the thickest. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The MPATGM is a third-generation anti-tank missile developed indigenously by the DRDO. Statement 1 is correct as it features fire-and-forget capability, meaning once the missile is launched, it does not require further guidance from the operator, allowing the soldier to relocate immediately. Statement 2 is correct because it incorporates an Infrared Imaging (IIR) seeker, which allows for high-precision strikes during both day and night by detecting the thermal signature of enemy vehicles. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The missile features top-attack capability, designed to strike the top of a tank where the armor is traditionally the thinnest, rather than the frontal hull which is heavily reinforced. This ensures maximum lethality against modern Main Battle Tanks (MBTs) equipped with advanced armor. The system also uses a Tandem HEAT warhead to bypass Explosive Reactive Armour (ERA). These features collectively enhance the infantry’s combat edge while supporting the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependence on foreign systems like the Javelin or Spike. Incorrect Solution: B The MPATGM is a third-generation anti-tank missile developed indigenously by the DRDO. Statement 1 is correct as it features fire-and-forget capability, meaning once the missile is launched, it does not require further guidance from the operator, allowing the soldier to relocate immediately. Statement 2 is correct because it incorporates an Infrared Imaging (IIR) seeker, which allows for high-precision strikes during both day and night by detecting the thermal signature of enemy vehicles. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The missile features top-attack capability, designed to strike the top of a tank where the armor is traditionally the thinnest, rather than the frontal hull which is heavily reinforced. This ensures maximum lethality against modern Main Battle Tanks (MBTs) equipped with advanced armor. The system also uses a Tandem HEAT warhead to bypass Explosive Reactive Armour (ERA). These features collectively enhance the infantry’s combat edge while supporting the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependence on foreign systems like the Javelin or Spike.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM), consider the following statements:

• It is a third-generation missile equipped with ‘fire-and-forget’ capability.

• It utilizes an Infrared Imaging (IIR) homing seeker for target acquisition.

• The missile is designed to strike the target specifically at the frontal hull where the armor is the thickest.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The MPATGM is a third-generation anti-tank missile developed indigenously by the DRDO.

• Statement 1 is correct as it features fire-and-forget capability, meaning once the missile is launched, it does not require further guidance from the operator, allowing the soldier to relocate immediately.

• Statement 2 is correct because it incorporates an Infrared Imaging (IIR) seeker, which allows for high-precision strikes during both day and night by detecting the thermal signature of enemy vehicles.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The missile features top-attack capability, designed to strike the top of a tank where the armor is traditionally the thinnest, rather than the frontal hull which is heavily reinforced. This ensures maximum lethality against modern Main Battle Tanks (MBTs) equipped with advanced armor.

• The system also uses a Tandem HEAT warhead to bypass Explosive Reactive Armour (ERA). These features collectively enhance the infantry’s combat edge while supporting the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependence on foreign systems like the Javelin or Spike.

Solution: B

• The MPATGM is a third-generation anti-tank missile developed indigenously by the DRDO.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV): The first stage (PS1) utilizes a solid rocket motor and is often supported by strap-on boosters. The second stage (PS2) is powered by the Vikas engine, which uses liquid propellants. The third stage (PS3) provides the final precision maneuvers to place the satellite into the intended orbit. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The PSLV is India’s “workhorse” rocket with a four-stage configuration. Statement 1 is correct; the first stage (PS1) uses the S139 solid motor and HTPB fuel, providing the massive thrust needed for liftoff, often supported by strap-on boosters. Statement 2 is correct; the second stage (PS2) uses the Vikas liquid engine with UDMH and Nitrogen Tetroxide, providing stability and controlled acceleration. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The third stage (PS3) is a high-speed booster using solid fuel (HTPB) to provide the “sprint” to near-orbital velocity. It is the fourth stage (PS4) that is the precision stage. The PS4 uses two liquid engines (MMH + MON) to act as a “fine-tuning” engine for the precise placement of satellites into their designated orbits. Incorrect Solution: B The PSLV is India’s “workhorse” rocket with a four-stage configuration. Statement 1 is correct; the first stage (PS1) uses the S139 solid motor and HTPB fuel, providing the massive thrust needed for liftoff, often supported by strap-on boosters. Statement 2 is correct; the second stage (PS2) uses the Vikas liquid engine with UDMH and Nitrogen Tetroxide, providing stability and controlled acceleration. However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The third stage (PS3) is a high-speed booster using solid fuel (HTPB) to provide the “sprint” to near-orbital velocity. It is the fourth stage (PS4) that is the precision stage. The PS4 uses two liquid engines (MMH + MON) to act as a “fine-tuning” engine for the precise placement of satellites into their designated orbits.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):

• The first stage (PS1) utilizes a solid rocket motor and is often supported by strap-on boosters.

• The second stage (PS2) is powered by the Vikas engine, which uses liquid propellants.

• The third stage (PS3) provides the final precision maneuvers to place the satellite into the intended orbit.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The PSLV is India’s “workhorse” rocket with a four-stage configuration.

• Statement 1 is correct; the first stage (PS1) uses the S139 solid motor and HTPB fuel, providing the massive thrust needed for liftoff, often supported by strap-on boosters.

• Statement 2 is correct; the second stage (PS2) uses the Vikas liquid engine with UDMH and Nitrogen Tetroxide, providing stability and controlled acceleration.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect. The third stage (PS3) is a high-speed booster using solid fuel (HTPB) to provide the “sprint” to near-orbital velocity. It is the fourth stage (PS4) that is the precision stage. The PS4 uses two liquid engines (MMH + MON) to act as a “fine-tuning” engine for the precise placement of satellites into their designated orbits.

Solution: B

• The PSLV is India’s “workhorse” rocket with a four-stage configuration.

• Statement 1 is correct; the first stage (PS1) uses the S139 solid motor and HTPB fuel, providing the massive thrust needed for liftoff, often supported by strap-on boosters.

• Statement 2 is correct; the second stage (PS2) uses the Vikas liquid engine with UDMH and Nitrogen Tetroxide, providing stability and controlled acceleration.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In the context of atmospheric science, consider the following statements about Aerosols: They can act as cloud condensation nuclei, thereby influencing the formation of fog and clouds. All aerosols contribute to global warming by absorbing solar radiation. Primary aerosols are those formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of precursor gases. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Aerosols are suspended solid or liquid particles that significantly impact climate and health. Statement 1 is correct as they serve as condensation nuclei, providing surfaces for water vapor to collect, which can intensify and prolong winter fog, as seen in Northern India. Statement 2 is incorrect because aerosols have diverse radiative effects. While Black Carbon absorbs heat and warms the atmosphere, many other aerosols (like sulfates or sea spray) reflect or scatter sunlight, causing a cooling effect on the Earth’s surface. Statement 3 is incorrect. Primary aerosols are emitted directly into the atmosphere (e.g., dust, sea salt, volcanic ash). It is secondary aerosols that are formed through chemical reactions of gases like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx). Due to their small size, aerosols can penetrate deep into the human respiratory system, causing long-term health issues. They stay in the atmosphere for days to weeks and can be transported across continents by wind. Incorrect Solution: A Aerosols are suspended solid or liquid particles that significantly impact climate and health. Statement 1 is correct as they serve as condensation nuclei, providing surfaces for water vapor to collect, which can intensify and prolong winter fog, as seen in Northern India. Statement 2 is incorrect because aerosols have diverse radiative effects. While Black Carbon absorbs heat and warms the atmosphere, many other aerosols (like sulfates or sea spray) reflect or scatter sunlight, causing a cooling effect on the Earth’s surface. Statement 3 is incorrect. Primary aerosols are emitted directly into the atmosphere (e.g., dust, sea salt, volcanic ash). It is secondary aerosols that are formed through chemical reactions of gases like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx). Due to their small size, aerosols can penetrate deep into the human respiratory system, causing long-term health issues. They stay in the atmosphere for days to weeks and can be transported across continents by wind.

#### 10. Question

In the context of atmospheric science, consider the following statements about Aerosols:

• They can act as cloud condensation nuclei, thereby influencing the formation of fog and clouds.

• All aerosols contribute to global warming by absorbing solar radiation.

• Primary aerosols are those formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of precursor gases.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Aerosols are suspended solid or liquid particles that significantly impact climate and health.

• Statement 1 is correct as they serve as condensation nuclei, providing surfaces for water vapor to collect, which can intensify and prolong winter fog, as seen in Northern India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because aerosols have diverse radiative effects. While Black Carbon absorbs heat and warms the atmosphere, many other aerosols (like sulfates or sea spray) reflect or scatter sunlight, causing a cooling effect on the Earth’s surface.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Primary aerosols are emitted directly into the atmosphere (e.g., dust, sea salt, volcanic ash). It is secondary aerosols that are formed through chemical reactions of gases like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx). Due to their small size, aerosols can penetrate deep into the human respiratory system, causing long-term health issues. They stay in the atmosphere for days to weeks and can be transported across continents by wind.

Solution: A

• Aerosols are suspended solid or liquid particles that significantly impact climate and health.

• Statement 1 is correct as they serve as condensation nuclei, providing surfaces for water vapor to collect, which can intensify and prolong winter fog, as seen in Northern India.

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