UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 January 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following factors makes a planet parade visible from Earth? a) The planets align perfectly in a straight line in space. b) The Earth’s axial tilt allows all planets to appear simultaneously. c) The gravitational forces between planets bring them closer together. d) Planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane. Correct Solution: d) A planet parade occurs when planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane from Earth’s perspective. This alignment is an optical effect and does not involve a physical straight-line alignment in space. Gravitational forces and Earth’s axial tilt are unrelated to the phenomenon. What is a Planet Parade? A planet parade occurs when several planets in the solar system are visible simultaneously in the night sky. It is not an official astronomical term but describes the alignment of planets along the plane of the solar system. These alignments can occur in either the morning or evening sky. How does a planet parade occur? Planets orbit the Sun on approximately the same plane, known as the ecliptic plane, making them appear aligned in the sky. Due to their varying orbital speeds and distances, this alignment is temporary and visible only for specific periods. The current alignment features Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, Uranus, and Neptune, forming a curved arc across the sky. Significance of a Planet Parade: Astronomical Education: Encourages public interest in astronomy and celestial mechanics. Cultural Relevance: Historically interpreted as celestial omens or inspiration for folklore. Visibility of Planets: Provides a unique opportunity to view multiple planets, including distant ones like Uranus and Neptune. Scientific Exploration: Alignments offer researchers better opportunities to study planetary light emissions and trajectories. Public Engagement: Sparks curiosity, with astronomers using it as an outreach tool to promote space science. Incorrect Solution: d) A planet parade occurs when planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane from Earth’s perspective. This alignment is an optical effect and does not involve a physical straight-line alignment in space. Gravitational forces and Earth’s axial tilt are unrelated to the phenomenon. What is a Planet Parade? A planet parade occurs when several planets in the solar system are visible simultaneously in the night sky. It is not an official astronomical term but describes the alignment of planets along the plane of the solar system. These alignments can occur in either the morning or evening sky. How does a planet parade occur? Planets orbit the Sun on approximately the same plane, known as the ecliptic plane, making them appear aligned in the sky. Due to their varying orbital speeds and distances, this alignment is temporary and visible only for specific periods. The current alignment features Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, Uranus, and Neptune, forming a curved arc across the sky. Significance of a Planet Parade: Astronomical Education: Encourages public interest in astronomy and celestial mechanics. Cultural Relevance: Historically interpreted as celestial omens or inspiration for folklore. Visibility of Planets: Provides a unique opportunity to view multiple planets, including distant ones like Uranus and Neptune. Scientific Exploration: Alignments offer researchers better opportunities to study planetary light emissions and trajectories. Public Engagement: Sparks curiosity, with astronomers using it as an outreach tool to promote space science.
#### 1. Question
Which of the following factors makes a planet parade visible from Earth?
• a) The planets align perfectly in a straight line in space.
• b) The Earth’s axial tilt allows all planets to appear simultaneously.
• c) The gravitational forces between planets bring them closer together.
• d) Planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane.
Solution: d)
A planet parade occurs when planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane from Earth’s perspective. This alignment is an optical effect and does not involve a physical straight-line alignment in space. Gravitational forces and Earth’s axial tilt are unrelated to the phenomenon.
What is a Planet Parade?
• A planet parade occurs when several planets in the solar system are visible simultaneously in the night sky.
• It is not an official astronomical term but describes the alignment of planets along the plane of the solar system.
• These alignments can occur in either the morning or evening sky.
How does a planet parade occur?
• Planets orbit the Sun on approximately the same plane, known as the ecliptic plane, making them appear aligned in the sky.
• Due to their varying orbital speeds and distances, this alignment is temporary and visible only for specific periods.
• The current alignment features Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, Uranus, and Neptune, forming a curved arc across the sky.
Significance of a Planet Parade:
• Astronomical Education: Encourages public interest in astronomy and celestial mechanics.
• Cultural Relevance: Historically interpreted as celestial omens or inspiration for folklore.
• Visibility of Planets: Provides a unique opportunity to view multiple planets, including distant ones like Uranus and Neptune.
• Scientific Exploration: Alignments offer researchers better opportunities to study planetary light emissions and trajectories.
• Public Engagement: Sparks curiosity, with astronomers using it as an outreach tool to promote space science.
Solution: d)
A planet parade occurs when planets are on the same side of the Sun and appear along the ecliptic plane from Earth’s perspective. This alignment is an optical effect and does not involve a physical straight-line alignment in space. Gravitational forces and Earth’s axial tilt are unrelated to the phenomenon.
What is a Planet Parade?
• A planet parade occurs when several planets in the solar system are visible simultaneously in the night sky.
• It is not an official astronomical term but describes the alignment of planets along the plane of the solar system.
• These alignments can occur in either the morning or evening sky.
How does a planet parade occur?
• Planets orbit the Sun on approximately the same plane, known as the ecliptic plane, making them appear aligned in the sky.
• Due to their varying orbital speeds and distances, this alignment is temporary and visible only for specific periods.
• The current alignment features Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, Uranus, and Neptune, forming a curved arc across the sky.
Significance of a Planet Parade:
• Astronomical Education: Encourages public interest in astronomy and celestial mechanics.
• Cultural Relevance: Historically interpreted as celestial omens or inspiration for folklore.
• Visibility of Planets: Provides a unique opportunity to view multiple planets, including distant ones like Uranus and Neptune.
• Scientific Exploration: Alignments offer researchers better opportunities to study planetary light emissions and trajectories.
• Public Engagement: Sparks curiosity, with astronomers using it as an outreach tool to promote space science.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the location for the Satish Dhawan Space Cente. Statement-I: The Satish Dhawan Space Center’s location allows efficient geostationary and polar satellite launches. Statement-II: Its proximity to the equator reduces the energy required for satellite placement. Select the correct answer: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct: The location of SDSC supports both geostationary and polar satellite launches. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Being near the equator, rockets benefit from Earth’s rotational velocity, reducing fuel requirements for satellite placement. About Satish Dhawan Space Center Launchpad: Established in: The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’ It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR). Located in: Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India. It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches. Reasons for Location Selection East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity. Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches. Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches. Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct: The location of SDSC supports both geostationary and polar satellite launches. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Being near the equator, rockets benefit from Earth’s rotational velocity, reducing fuel requirements for satellite placement. About Satish Dhawan Space Center Launchpad: Established in: The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’ It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR). Located in: Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India. It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches. Reasons for Location Selection East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity. Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches. Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches. Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the location for the Satish Dhawan Space Cente.
Statement-I: The Satish Dhawan Space Center’s location allows efficient geostationary and polar satellite launches. Statement-II: Its proximity to the equator reduces the energy required for satellite placement.
Select the correct answer:
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Solution: a)
Statement-I is correct: The location of SDSC supports both geostationary and polar satellite launches.
Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Being near the equator, rockets benefit from Earth’s rotational velocity, reducing fuel requirements for satellite placement.
About Satish Dhawan Space Center Launchpad:
• Established in:
• The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’ It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR).
• The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’
• It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR).
• Located in: Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India. It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches.
• Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India.
• It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches.
• Reasons for Location Selection
• East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity. Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches. Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches. Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints.
• East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity.
• Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches.
• Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches.
• Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints.
Solution: a)
Statement-I is correct: The location of SDSC supports both geostationary and polar satellite launches.
Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Being near the equator, rockets benefit from Earth’s rotational velocity, reducing fuel requirements for satellite placement.
About Satish Dhawan Space Center Launchpad:
• Established in:
• The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’ It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR).
• The Satish Dhawan Space Center (SDSC) became operational on October 9, 1971, with the launch of the sounding rocket ‘Rohini-125.’
• It was initially known as the Sriharikota Range (SHAR).
• Located in: Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India. It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches.
• Sriharikota is a barrier island off the Bay of Bengal, located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh, India.
• It separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, ensuring a safe flight path over the sea for rocket launches.
• Reasons for Location Selection
• East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity. Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches. Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches. Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints.
• East Coast Advantage: Launching rockets eastwards takes advantage of Earth’s rotation, adding velocity to the rocket and increasing payload capacity.
• Proximity to the Equator: Geostationary satellites require an equatorial plane. Being near the equator makes Sriharikota ideal for such launches.
• Largely Uninhabited Area: The site was sparsely populated, minimizing risks to human settlements during launches.
• Coastal Location: Proximity to the sea ensures rocket debris impacts occur over water, reducing constraints.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary focus of PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM)? a) Universal health insurance for all citizens b) Increasing the number of private healthcare facilities in rural areas c) Promoting indigenous medicine and AYUSH practices d) Strengthening health systems and pandemic preparedness Correct Solution: d) PM-ABHIM focuses on strengthening health infrastructure, enhancing pandemic preparedness, and addressing critical gaps in healthcare systems across primary, secondary, and tertiary levels. It does not focus on universal insurance (Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY does this) or promoting AYUSH practices. PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): What it is: A Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with some Central Sector components (CS), launched to develop and strengthen healthcare infrastructure across India. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. Launched in: 2021-22, with a budget of ₹64,180 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26. Aim: To bridge critical gaps in healthcare infrastructure, strengthen surveillance systems, and enhance health research capabilities at all levels—primary, secondary, and tertiary care. Key Features: National Components: Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks. Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units. Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs. Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings. State Support: Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas. Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas. Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts. Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages. Pandemic Preparedness: Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness. Focus on Urban and Rural Areas: Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions. Incorrect Solution: d) PM-ABHIM focuses on strengthening health infrastructure, enhancing pandemic preparedness, and addressing critical gaps in healthcare systems across primary, secondary, and tertiary levels. It does not focus on universal insurance (Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY does this) or promoting AYUSH practices. PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): What it is: A Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with some Central Sector components (CS), launched to develop and strengthen healthcare infrastructure across India. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. Launched in: 2021-22, with a budget of ₹64,180 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26. Aim: To bridge critical gaps in healthcare infrastructure, strengthen surveillance systems, and enhance health research capabilities at all levels—primary, secondary, and tertiary care. Key Features: National Components: Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks. Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units. Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs. Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings. State Support: Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas. Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas. Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts. Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages. Pandemic Preparedness: Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness. Focus on Urban and Rural Areas: Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions.
#### 3. Question
Which of the following is the primary focus of PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM)?
• a) Universal health insurance for all citizens
• b) Increasing the number of private healthcare facilities in rural areas
• c) Promoting indigenous medicine and AYUSH practices
• d) Strengthening health systems and pandemic preparedness
Solution: d)
PM-ABHIM focuses on strengthening health infrastructure, enhancing pandemic preparedness, and addressing critical gaps in healthcare systems across primary, secondary, and tertiary levels. It does not focus on universal insurance (Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY does this) or promoting AYUSH practices.
PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM):
• What it is: A Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with some Central Sector components (CS), launched to develop and strengthen healthcare infrastructure across India.
• Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
• Launched in: 2021-22, with a budget of ₹64,180 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Aim: To bridge critical gaps in healthcare infrastructure, strengthen surveillance systems, and enhance health research capabilities at all levels—primary, secondary, and tertiary care.
Key Features:
• National Components: Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks. Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units. Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs. Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings.
• Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks.
• Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units.
• Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs.
• Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings.
• State Support: Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas. Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas. Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts. Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages.
• Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas.
• Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas.
• Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts.
• Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages.
• Pandemic Preparedness: Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness.
• Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness.
• Focus on Urban and Rural Areas: Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions.
• Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions.
Solution: d)
PM-ABHIM focuses on strengthening health infrastructure, enhancing pandemic preparedness, and addressing critical gaps in healthcare systems across primary, secondary, and tertiary levels. It does not focus on universal insurance (Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY does this) or promoting AYUSH practices.
PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM):
• What it is: A Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with some Central Sector components (CS), launched to develop and strengthen healthcare infrastructure across India.
• Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
• Launched in: 2021-22, with a budget of ₹64,180 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Aim: To bridge critical gaps in healthcare infrastructure, strengthen surveillance systems, and enhance health research capabilities at all levels—primary, secondary, and tertiary care.
Key Features:
• National Components: Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks. Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units. Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs. Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings.
• Establishment of 12 Central Institutions with 150-bedded Critical Care Blocks.
• Strengthening the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and creation of regional NCDCs and metropolitan health surveillance units.
• Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to link all public health labs.
• Setting up 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres, mobile hospitals, and specialized public health units at airports, seaports, and land crossings.
• State Support: Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas. Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas. Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts. Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages.
• Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for better accessibility in rural and difficult areas.
• Establishment of 11,024 urban HWCs focusing on slum-like areas.
• Development of 3,382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) and Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts.
• Creation of Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts with populations over 5 lakh, ensuring robust referral linkages.
• Pandemic Preparedness: Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness.
• Creation of One Health institutions, new National Institutes for Virology, and Biosafety Level III labs for research and disaster readiness.
• Focus on Urban and Rural Areas: Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions.
• Specific health infrastructure targeting slum populations and hard-to-reach rural regions.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for which of the following criteria? a) Lifetime contribution to sports b) Outstanding performance at the state and national levels c) Exceptional international performance over a continuous four-year period d) Popularity and public votes for achievements in sports Correct Solution: c) The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is awarded for exceptional international performance over four years in sports. It recognizes consistent achievements at global platforms like the Olympics, World Championships, and other international competitions. It is not based on popularity or lifetime contributions, though these are recognized by other awards. About Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Started in: 1991-1992 (as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award). Renamed in: 2021, to honor legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand. Aim: To recognize outstanding performances in sports at the international level, motivate athletes, and inspire future generations. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Eligibility Criteria: Exceptional international performance over four years. Clean anti-doping record. Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships. Nomination and Selection Process: Nominating Authorities: National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association. The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received. Selection Committee: Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts. Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.). Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports. Incorrect Solution: c) The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is awarded for exceptional international performance over four years in sports. It recognizes consistent achievements at global platforms like the Olympics, World Championships, and other international competitions. It is not based on popularity or lifetime contributions, though these are recognized by other awards. About Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Started in: 1991-1992 (as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award). Renamed in: 2021, to honor legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand. Aim: To recognize outstanding performances in sports at the international level, motivate athletes, and inspire future generations. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Eligibility Criteria: Exceptional international performance over four years. Clean anti-doping record. Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships. Nomination and Selection Process: Nominating Authorities: National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association. The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received. Selection Committee: Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts. Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.). Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
#### 4. Question
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for which of the following criteria?
• a) Lifetime contribution to sports
• b) Outstanding performance at the state and national levels
• c) Exceptional international performance over a continuous four-year period
• d) Popularity and public votes for achievements in sports
Solution: c)
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is awarded for exceptional international performance over four years in sports. It recognizes consistent achievements at global platforms like the Olympics, World Championships, and other international competitions. It is not based on popularity or lifetime contributions, though these are recognized by other awards.
About Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• Started in: 1991-1992 (as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award).
• Renamed in: 2021, to honor legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• Aim: To recognize outstanding performances in sports at the international level, motivate athletes, and inspire future generations.
• Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Exceptional international performance over four years. Clean anti-doping record. Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships.
• Exceptional international performance over four years.
• Clean anti-doping record.
• Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships.
Nomination and Selection Process:
• Nominating Authorities: National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association. The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received.
• National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association.
• The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received.
• Selection Committee: Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts. Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.). Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts.
• Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.).
• Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Solution: c)
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is awarded for exceptional international performance over four years in sports. It recognizes consistent achievements at global platforms like the Olympics, World Championships, and other international competitions. It is not based on popularity or lifetime contributions, though these are recognized by other awards.
About Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• Started in: 1991-1992 (as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award).
• Renamed in: 2021, to honor legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• Aim: To recognize outstanding performances in sports at the international level, motivate athletes, and inspire future generations.
• Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Exceptional international performance over four years. Clean anti-doping record. Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships.
• Exceptional international performance over four years.
• Clean anti-doping record.
• Achievements in major competitions like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and World Championships.
Nomination and Selection Process:
• Nominating Authorities: National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association. The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received.
• National Sports Federations, Sports Authority of India (SAI), State Governments, and Indian Olympic Association.
• The Government can nominate up to two sportspersons if no nominations are received.
• Selection Committee: Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts. Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.). Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Includes government officials, Olympians, journalists, and experts.
• Points-based system considering medals in major events (Olympics, Commonwealth, Asian Games, etc.).
• Recommendations finalized by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The Kuka Rebellion was unique among 19th-century uprisings in India due to its: a) Focus on modern technology to counter British forces b) Emphasis on religious reform alongside political resistance c) Collaboration with European powers to overthrow British rule d) Strong support from princely states aligned with the British Correct Solution: b) The Kuka Rebellion combined religious reform and political resistance. Led by the Namdhari sect, it opposed British rule and native collaborators while promoting strict moral discipline, vegetarianism, and rejection of foreign goods. Unlike other uprisings, its foundation lay in both spiritual and socio-political objectives. About Kuka Rebellion: What it is: The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority. Occurred in: The rebellion reached its peak in January 1872, with significant clashes in Malerkotla and Malaudh Fort. Leaders: The rebellion was spearheaded by Satguru Ram Singh, founder of the Namdhari sect, along with leaders like Kuka Hira Singh and Lehna Singh. Reason behind the movement: Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods. Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers. Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas. Events during the movement: Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident. Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance. Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons. Suppression: The British, led by John Lambert Cowan, acted with extreme brutality. Thousands of people were forced to witness these executions to serve as a deterrent. Changes after the revolt: Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement. Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements. Incorrect Solution: b) The Kuka Rebellion combined religious reform and political resistance. Led by the Namdhari sect, it opposed British rule and native collaborators while promoting strict moral discipline, vegetarianism, and rejection of foreign goods. Unlike other uprisings, its foundation lay in both spiritual and socio-political objectives. About Kuka Rebellion: What it is: The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority. Occurred in: The rebellion reached its peak in January 1872, with significant clashes in Malerkotla and Malaudh Fort. Leaders: The rebellion was spearheaded by Satguru Ram Singh, founder of the Namdhari sect, along with leaders like Kuka Hira Singh and Lehna Singh. Reason behind the movement: Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods. Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers. Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas. Events during the movement: Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident. Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance. Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons. Suppression: The British, led by John Lambert Cowan, acted with extreme brutality. Thousands of people were forced to witness these executions to serve as a deterrent. Changes after the revolt: Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement. Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements.
#### 5. Question
The Kuka Rebellion was unique among 19th-century uprisings in India due to its:
• a) Focus on modern technology to counter British forces
• b) Emphasis on religious reform alongside political resistance
• c) Collaboration with European powers to overthrow British rule
• d) Strong support from princely states aligned with the British
Solution: b)
The Kuka Rebellion combined religious reform and political resistance. Led by the Namdhari sect, it opposed British rule and native collaborators while promoting strict moral discipline, vegetarianism, and rejection of foreign goods. Unlike other uprisings, its foundation lay in both spiritual and socio-political objectives.
About Kuka Rebellion:
• What it is: The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority.
• The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority.
• Occurred in: The rebellion reached its peak in January 1872, with significant clashes in Malerkotla and Malaudh Fort.
• Leaders: The rebellion was spearheaded by Satguru Ram Singh, founder of the Namdhari sect, along with leaders like Kuka Hira Singh and Lehna Singh.
• Reason behind the movement:
• Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods. Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers. Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas.
• Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods.
• Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers.
• Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas.
• Events during the movement:
• Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident. Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance. Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons.
• Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident.
• Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance.
• Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons.
• Suppression: The British, led by John Lambert Cowan, acted with extreme brutality. Thousands of people were forced to witness these executions to serve as a deterrent.
• Changes after the revolt:
• Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement. Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements.
• Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement.
• Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements.
Solution: b)
The Kuka Rebellion combined religious reform and political resistance. Led by the Namdhari sect, it opposed British rule and native collaborators while promoting strict moral discipline, vegetarianism, and rejection of foreign goods. Unlike other uprisings, its foundation lay in both spiritual and socio-political objectives.
About Kuka Rebellion:
• What it is: The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority.
• The Kuka Rebellion was an anti-British uprising led by the Namdhari sect, also known as Kukas, in Punjab. The movement combined religious reform and resistance to colonial authority.
• Occurred in: The rebellion reached its peak in January 1872, with significant clashes in Malerkotla and Malaudh Fort.
• Leaders: The rebellion was spearheaded by Satguru Ram Singh, founder of the Namdhari sect, along with leaders like Kuka Hira Singh and Lehna Singh.
• Reason behind the movement:
• Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods. Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers. Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas.
• Religious Reform: Opposition to social vices like meat consumption, alcohol, and foreign goods.
• Colonial Oppression: Discontent with British rule and native collaborators loyal to the colonizers.
• Cow Slaughter: Protests against cow slaughter, which deeply offended the sentiments of the Kukas.
• Events during the movement:
• Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident. Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance. Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons.
• Attack on Malerkotla (January 13, 1872): Kukas clashed with officials following a cow slaughter incident.
• Assault on Malaudh Fort (January 15, 1872): A Kuka contingent attacked the fort under a pro-British ruler but faced strong resistance.
• Mass Executions: After their surrender, 49 Kukas were executed on January 17 and 17 more on January 18 by being blown up with cannons.
• Suppression: The British, led by John Lambert Cowan, acted with extreme brutality. Thousands of people were forced to witness these executions to serve as a deterrent.
• Changes after the revolt:
• Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement. Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements.
• Exile of Leaders: Satguru Ram Singh and key leaders were exiled to Rangoon, Burma, marking the suppression of the movement.
• Legacy of Martyrdom: Stories of bravery, such as the sacrifice of 12-year-old Bishan Singh and Waryam Singh, inspired future resistance movements.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following are features of the SVAMITVA Scheme? The scheme uses drone technology for property mapping. It aims to integrate Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP) with property records. The property cards issued are legally binding documents. It covers both urban and rural areas for property mapping. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Drone technology is a key feature of the SVAMITVA Scheme. Statement 2 is correct: It integrates property records with Gram Panchayat Development Plans to ensure effective planning. Statement 3 is correct: The property cards issued are legally recognized documents for ownership. Statement 4 is incorrect: The scheme is focused only on rural inhabited areas, not urban areas. About SVAMITVA Scheme: Full Form: Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas. Launched: In 2020 as a Central Sector Scheme. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR). Aim: To empower rural property owners by providing Record of Rights for properties. Facilitate the economic growth of rural India by enabling property monetization and access to financial resources. Features: Advanced Technology: Drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS) for accurate surveying and mapping of rural inhabited areas. Property Cards: Official documents provided to property owners for financial and legal uses. Reduction in Disputes: Minimize property-related disputes by creating precise land records. Financial Inclusion: Property cards can be used as collateral for loans, promoting rural financial stability. Development Planning: GIS maps generated under the scheme aid in better Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) preparation. Coverage: Drone surveys have been completed in over 17 lakh villages, with saturation achieved in six states and UTs, including Puducherry and Tripura. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Drone technology is a key feature of the SVAMITVA Scheme. Statement 2 is correct: It integrates property records with Gram Panchayat Development Plans to ensure effective planning. Statement 3 is correct: The property cards issued are legally recognized documents for ownership. Statement 4 is incorrect: The scheme is focused only on rural inhabited areas, not urban areas. About SVAMITVA Scheme: Full Form: Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas. Launched: In 2020 as a Central Sector Scheme. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR). Aim: To empower rural property owners by providing Record of Rights for properties. Facilitate the economic growth of rural India by enabling property monetization and access to financial resources. Features: Advanced Technology: Drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS) for accurate surveying and mapping of rural inhabited areas. Property Cards: Official documents provided to property owners for financial and legal uses. Reduction in Disputes: Minimize property-related disputes by creating precise land records. Financial Inclusion: Property cards can be used as collateral for loans, promoting rural financial stability. Development Planning: GIS maps generated under the scheme aid in better Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) preparation. Coverage: Drone surveys have been completed in over 17 lakh villages, with saturation achieved in six states and UTs, including Puducherry and Tripura.
#### 6. Question
Which of the following are features of the SVAMITVA Scheme?
• The scheme uses drone technology for property mapping.
• It aims to integrate Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP) with property records.
• The property cards issued are legally binding documents.
• It covers both urban and rural areas for property mapping.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is correct: Drone technology is a key feature of the SVAMITVA Scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: It integrates property records with Gram Panchayat Development Plans to ensure effective planning.
Statement 3 is correct: The property cards issued are legally recognized documents for ownership.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The scheme is focused only on rural inhabited areas, not urban areas.
About SVAMITVA Scheme:
• Full Form: Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas.
• Launched: In 2020 as a Central Sector Scheme.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR).
• To empower rural property owners by providing Record of Rights for properties.
• Facilitate the economic growth of rural India by enabling property monetization and access to financial resources.
Features:
• Advanced Technology: Drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS) for accurate surveying and mapping of rural inhabited areas.
• Property Cards: Official documents provided to property owners for financial and legal uses.
• Reduction in Disputes: Minimize property-related disputes by creating precise land records.
• Financial Inclusion: Property cards can be used as collateral for loans, promoting rural financial stability.
• Development Planning: GIS maps generated under the scheme aid in better Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) preparation.
• Coverage: Drone surveys have been completed in over 17 lakh villages, with saturation achieved in six states and UTs, including Puducherry and Tripura.
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is correct: Drone technology is a key feature of the SVAMITVA Scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: It integrates property records with Gram Panchayat Development Plans to ensure effective planning.
Statement 3 is correct: The property cards issued are legally recognized documents for ownership.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The scheme is focused only on rural inhabited areas, not urban areas.
About SVAMITVA Scheme:
• Full Form: Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas.
• Launched: In 2020 as a Central Sector Scheme.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR).
• To empower rural property owners by providing Record of Rights for properties.
• Facilitate the economic growth of rural India by enabling property monetization and access to financial resources.
Features:
• Advanced Technology: Drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS) for accurate surveying and mapping of rural inhabited areas.
• Property Cards: Official documents provided to property owners for financial and legal uses.
• Reduction in Disputes: Minimize property-related disputes by creating precise land records.
• Financial Inclusion: Property cards can be used as collateral for loans, promoting rural financial stability.
• Development Planning: GIS maps generated under the scheme aid in better Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) preparation.
• Coverage: Drone surveys have been completed in over 17 lakh villages, with saturation achieved in six states and UTs, including Puducherry and Tripura.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025: The report identifies Africa as the region with the highest confidence in cybersecurity resilience. It highlights that smaller organizations face significantly more cybersecurity challenges compared to larger organizations. The workforce gap in cybersecurity is a major challenge, especially for the public sector. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: Africa is identified as one of the regions with low confidence in cybersecurity preparedness. Statement 2 is correct: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles than larger ones in managing cybersecurity threats. Statement 3 is correct: The workforce gap is highlighted as a significant issue, particularly for the public sector, where 49% of organizations report insufficient talent. About Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025: Published by: World Economic Forum (in collaboration with Accenture). Aim: To examine the cybersecurity trends impacting economies, societies, and organizations. Key Features: Escalating Cyber Threats: Highlights the sophistication of cybercrime amid geopolitical tensions and emerging technologies. Widening Cyber Resilience Gap: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles compared to 2022, while larger organizations show improvement. Regional Disparities: 42% in Latin America and 36% in Africa lack confidence in cybersecurity preparedness, compared to 15% in Europe and North America. Public vs. Private Sector: 38% of public-sector entities report inadequate resilience versus 10% of private organizations. Workforce Gap: Nearly 49% of public-sector organizations lack sufficient cybersecurity talent. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: Africa is identified as one of the regions with low confidence in cybersecurity preparedness. Statement 2 is correct: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles than larger ones in managing cybersecurity threats. Statement 3 is correct: The workforce gap is highlighted as a significant issue, particularly for the public sector, where 49% of organizations report insufficient talent. About Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025: Published by: World Economic Forum (in collaboration with Accenture). Aim: To examine the cybersecurity trends impacting economies, societies, and organizations. Key Features: Escalating Cyber Threats: Highlights the sophistication of cybercrime amid geopolitical tensions and emerging technologies. Widening Cyber Resilience Gap: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles compared to 2022, while larger organizations show improvement. Regional Disparities: 42% in Latin America and 36% in Africa lack confidence in cybersecurity preparedness, compared to 15% in Europe and North America. Public vs. Private Sector: 38% of public-sector entities report inadequate resilience versus 10% of private organizations. Workforce Gap: Nearly 49% of public-sector organizations lack sufficient cybersecurity talent.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements about the Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025:
• The report identifies Africa as the region with the highest confidence in cybersecurity resilience.
• It highlights that smaller organizations face significantly more cybersecurity challenges compared to larger organizations.
• The workforce gap in cybersecurity is a major challenge, especially for the public sector.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Africa is identified as one of the regions with low confidence in cybersecurity preparedness.
Statement 2 is correct: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles than larger ones in managing cybersecurity threats.
Statement 3 is correct: The workforce gap is highlighted as a significant issue, particularly for the public sector, where 49% of organizations report insufficient talent.
About Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025:
• Published by: World Economic Forum (in collaboration with Accenture).
• Aim: To examine the cybersecurity trends impacting economies, societies, and organizations.
Key Features:
• Escalating Cyber Threats: Highlights the sophistication of cybercrime amid geopolitical tensions and emerging technologies.
• Widening Cyber Resilience Gap: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles compared to 2022, while larger organizations show improvement.
• Regional Disparities: 42% in Latin America and 36% in Africa lack confidence in cybersecurity preparedness, compared to 15% in Europe and North America.
• Public vs. Private Sector: 38% of public-sector entities report inadequate resilience versus 10% of private organizations.
• Workforce Gap: Nearly 49% of public-sector organizations lack sufficient cybersecurity talent.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Africa is identified as one of the regions with low confidence in cybersecurity preparedness.
Statement 2 is correct: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles than larger ones in managing cybersecurity threats.
Statement 3 is correct: The workforce gap is highlighted as a significant issue, particularly for the public sector, where 49% of organizations report insufficient talent.
About Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025:
• Published by: World Economic Forum (in collaboration with Accenture).
• Aim: To examine the cybersecurity trends impacting economies, societies, and organizations.
Key Features:
• Escalating Cyber Threats: Highlights the sophistication of cybercrime amid geopolitical tensions and emerging technologies.
• Widening Cyber Resilience Gap: Smaller organizations face seven times higher struggles compared to 2022, while larger organizations show improvement.
• Regional Disparities: 42% in Latin America and 36% in Africa lack confidence in cybersecurity preparedness, compared to 15% in Europe and North America.
• Public vs. Private Sector: 38% of public-sector entities report inadequate resilience versus 10% of private organizations.
• Workforce Gap: Nearly 49% of public-sector organizations lack sufficient cybersecurity talent.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding a planet parade are correct? Planet parades provide opportunities to study planetary atmospheres using reflected light. They are recurring phenomena, occurring approximately every 100 years. The visibility of planets in a parade depends on their distance from Earth and the Sun. Planet parades influence tidal forces on Earth, leading to extreme weather events. Select the correct answer code: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 3, and 4 only d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: Reflected sunlight from planets during a parade can be used to study planetary atmospheres. Statement 2 is incorrect: Planet parades are not rare; smaller alignments occur every few years, while alignments of more planets are less frequent. Statement 3 is correct: Visibility depends on factors like proximity to Earth and the Sun’s position. Statement 4 is incorrect: Planet parades do not affect tidal forces or cause extreme weather events, as their gravitational effects are negligible compared to the Moon and Sun. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: Reflected sunlight from planets during a parade can be used to study planetary atmospheres. Statement 2 is incorrect: Planet parades are not rare; smaller alignments occur every few years, while alignments of more planets are less frequent. Statement 3 is correct: Visibility depends on factors like proximity to Earth and the Sun’s position. Statement 4 is incorrect: Planet parades do not affect tidal forces or cause extreme weather events, as their gravitational effects are negligible compared to the Moon and Sun.
#### 8. Question
Which of the following statements regarding a planet parade are correct?
• Planet parades provide opportunities to study planetary atmospheres using reflected light.
• They are recurring phenomena, occurring approximately every 100 years.
• The visibility of planets in a parade depends on their distance from Earth and the Sun.
• Planet parades influence tidal forces on Earth, leading to extreme weather events.
Select the correct answer code:
• a) 1 and 3 only
• b) 2 and 4 only
• c) 1, 3, and 4 only
• d) All four
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: Reflected sunlight from planets during a parade can be used to study planetary atmospheres.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Planet parades are not rare; smaller alignments occur every few years, while alignments of more planets are less frequent.
Statement 3 is correct: Visibility depends on factors like proximity to Earth and the Sun’s position.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Planet parades do not affect tidal forces or cause extreme weather events, as their gravitational effects are negligible compared to the Moon and Sun.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: Reflected sunlight from planets during a parade can be used to study planetary atmospheres.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Planet parades are not rare; smaller alignments occur every few years, while alignments of more planets are less frequent.
Statement 3 is correct: Visibility depends on factors like proximity to Earth and the Sun’s position.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Planet parades do not affect tidal forces or cause extreme weather events, as their gravitational effects are negligible compared to the Moon and Sun.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the causes of the Kuka Rebellion: The rebellion was a reaction against the Permanent Settlement introduced by the British in Punjab. It was fueled by discontent over cow slaughter and social vices promoted under British rule. The Namdhari sect aimed to revive Sikh practices and oppose colonial oppression. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: The rebellion was not related to the Permanent Settlement, which was implemented in Bengal, not Punjab. Statement 2 is correct: Opposition to cow slaughter and social vices like alcohol consumption were key motivators. Statement 3 is correct: The Namdhari sect sought to revive Sikh practices and resist British rule, blending religious reform with anti-colonial sentiment. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: The rebellion was not related to the Permanent Settlement, which was implemented in Bengal, not Punjab. Statement 2 is correct: Opposition to cow slaughter and social vices like alcohol consumption were key motivators. Statement 3 is correct: The Namdhari sect sought to revive Sikh practices and resist British rule, blending religious reform with anti-colonial sentiment.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements about the causes of the Kuka Rebellion:
• The rebellion was a reaction against the Permanent Settlement introduced by the British in Punjab.
• It was fueled by discontent over cow slaughter and social vices promoted under British rule.
• The Namdhari sect aimed to revive Sikh practices and oppose colonial oppression.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The rebellion was not related to the Permanent Settlement, which was implemented in Bengal, not Punjab.
Statement 2 is correct: Opposition to cow slaughter and social vices like alcohol consumption were key motivators.
Statement 3 is correct: The Namdhari sect sought to revive Sikh practices and resist British rule, blending religious reform with anti-colonial sentiment.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The rebellion was not related to the Permanent Settlement, which was implemented in Bengal, not Punjab.
Statement 2 is correct: Opposition to cow slaughter and social vices like alcohol consumption were key motivators.
Statement 3 is correct: The Namdhari sect sought to revive Sikh practices and resist British rule, blending religious reform with anti-colonial sentiment.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following are features of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award? The awardees receive a cash prize along with a citation. It is conferred annually by the President of India. Only individual athletes are eligible for this award. It is India’s highest sporting honor. Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2, and 4 only a) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: Recipients of the Khel Ratna Award receive a cash prize and a citation. Statement 2 is correct: The award is conferred annually by the President of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Teams and individual athletes are both eligible for the award. Statement 4 is correct: It is India’s highest sporting honor. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: Recipients of the Khel Ratna Award receive a cash prize and a citation. Statement 2 is correct: The award is conferred annually by the President of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Teams and individual athletes are both eligible for the award. Statement 4 is correct: It is India’s highest sporting honor.
#### 10. Question
Which of the following are features of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
• The awardees receive a cash prize along with a citation.
• It is conferred annually by the President of India.
• Only individual athletes are eligible for this award.
• It is India’s highest sporting honor.
Select the correct answer code:
• a) 1, 2, and 4 only
• a) 1, 2, and 4 only
• c) 1 and 4 only
• d) All four
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: Recipients of the Khel Ratna Award receive a cash prize and a citation.
Statement 2 is correct: The award is conferred annually by the President of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Teams and individual athletes are both eligible for the award.
Statement 4 is correct: It is India’s highest sporting honor.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: Recipients of the Khel Ratna Award receive a cash prize and a citation.
Statement 2 is correct: The award is conferred annually by the President of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Teams and individual athletes are both eligible for the award.
Statement 4 is correct: It is India’s highest sporting honor.
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