UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points The “India Energy Stack” mentioned in the context of the AI-for-Energy mission is most similar in its design philosophy to which of the following? (a) The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) (b) The National Pension System (NPS) (c) The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) (d) The Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) Correct Solution: A The India Energy Stack is explicitly described as a “digital public infrastructure model” that is interoperable and designed to connect various stakeholders (consumers, vendors, utilities). Option (a) is the correct answer. Much like how the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) provides a common, open-standard platform that allows different banks and payment apps to talk to each other, the Energy Stack provides a template for connecting a decentralized energy grid. This philosophy of building “digital public goods” allows for rapid innovation and scaling. In the AI-for-Energy mission, the ISA uses this template to help 120+ member countries digitalize their grids. By having an interoperable platform, a country can manage millions of small solar installations (prosumers) more effectively. This avoids “vendor lock-in” where a country becomes dependent on a single company’s proprietary technology. The stack facilitates things like the One Solar App for net-metering and Digital Twin simulations, making it a “global template” for modernizing clean energy infrastructure in developing economies. Incorrect Solution: A The India Energy Stack is explicitly described as a “digital public infrastructure model” that is interoperable and designed to connect various stakeholders (consumers, vendors, utilities). Option (a) is the correct answer. Much like how the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) provides a common, open-standard platform that allows different banks and payment apps to talk to each other, the Energy Stack provides a template for connecting a decentralized energy grid. This philosophy of building “digital public goods” allows for rapid innovation and scaling. In the AI-for-Energy mission, the ISA uses this template to help 120+ member countries digitalize their grids. By having an interoperable platform, a country can manage millions of small solar installations (prosumers) more effectively. This avoids “vendor lock-in” where a country becomes dependent on a single company’s proprietary technology. The stack facilitates things like the One Solar App for net-metering and Digital Twin simulations, making it a “global template” for modernizing clean energy infrastructure in developing economies.

#### 1. Question

The “India Energy Stack” mentioned in the context of the AI-for-Energy mission is most similar in its design philosophy to which of the following?

• (a) The Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

• (b) The National Pension System (NPS)

• (c) The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)

• (d) The Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN)

Solution: A

• The India Energy Stack is explicitly described as a “digital public infrastructure model” that is interoperable and designed to connect various stakeholders (consumers, vendors, utilities). Option (a) is the correct answer. Much like how the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) provides a common, open-standard platform that allows different banks and payment apps to talk to each other, the Energy Stack provides a template for connecting a decentralized energy grid.

• This philosophy of building “digital public goods” allows for rapid innovation and scaling. In the AI-for-Energy mission, the ISA uses this template to help 120+ member countries digitalize their grids. By having an interoperable platform, a country can manage millions of small solar installations (prosumers) more effectively. This avoids “vendor lock-in” where a country becomes dependent on a single company’s proprietary technology.

• The stack facilitates things like the One Solar App for net-metering and Digital Twin simulations, making it a “global template” for modernizing clean energy infrastructure in developing economies.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the fundamental operational difference between a Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) and a Central Processing Unit (CPU)? (a) GPUs are designed to handle fewer complex sequential tasks, whereas CPUs excel at repetitive, data-intensive computations. (b) GPUs utilize a parallel architecture to perform thousands of independent calculations simultaneously, unlike the sequential focus of CPUs. (c) CPUs rely on specialized Tensor cores for rendering, while GPUs use CUDA cores for general-purpose operating system management. (d) GPUs process data using a compute pipeline that converts geometric shapes into pixels, a task that CPUs cannot perform. Correct Solution: B The core distinction between a GPU and a CPU lies in their architecture and the type of tasks they are optimized for. Option (b) is the correct answer. A CPU is often called the “brain” of the computer, designed to handle a wide range of complex, sequential logic and branch operations. In contrast, a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is built for parallel processing. It contains hundreds or thousands of smaller, more specialized cores (like CUDA or Tensor cores) that can handle “embarrassingly parallel” workloads—tasks where thousands of independent, simple calculations can be done at the same time. While CPUs can perform graphics tasks, they are significantly slower at it because they lack the parallel bandwidth of a GPU. The rendering pipeline (vertex processing, rasterization, shading) mentioned in option (d) is a process GPUs use, but saying CPUs cannot perform these tasks is technically inaccurate; they just do so inefficiently. In the context of Artificial Intelligence, GPUs are indispensable because modern neural networks rely on massive matrix multiplications. The high memory bandwidth (GDDR6X/HBM3) of GPUs allows them to move the massive datasets required for Large Language Models (LLMs) far more effectively than traditional CPUs. Incorrect Solution: B The core distinction between a GPU and a CPU lies in their architecture and the type of tasks they are optimized for. Option (b) is the correct answer. A CPU is often called the “brain” of the computer, designed to handle a wide range of complex, sequential logic and branch operations. In contrast, a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is built for parallel processing. It contains hundreds or thousands of smaller, more specialized cores (like CUDA or Tensor cores) that can handle “embarrassingly parallel” workloads—tasks where thousands of independent, simple calculations can be done at the same time. While CPUs can perform graphics tasks, they are significantly slower at it because they lack the parallel bandwidth of a GPU. The rendering pipeline (vertex processing, rasterization, shading) mentioned in option (d) is a process GPUs use, but saying CPUs cannot perform these tasks is technically inaccurate; they just do so inefficiently. In the context of Artificial Intelligence, GPUs are indispensable because modern neural networks rely on massive matrix multiplications. The high memory bandwidth (GDDR6X/HBM3) of GPUs allows them to move the massive datasets required for Large Language Models (LLMs) far more effectively than traditional CPUs.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following best describes the fundamental operational difference between a Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) and a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

• (a) GPUs are designed to handle fewer complex sequential tasks, whereas CPUs excel at repetitive, data-intensive computations.

• (b) GPUs utilize a parallel architecture to perform thousands of independent calculations simultaneously, unlike the sequential focus of CPUs.

• (c) CPUs rely on specialized Tensor cores for rendering, while GPUs use CUDA cores for general-purpose operating system management.

• (d) GPUs process data using a compute pipeline that converts geometric shapes into pixels, a task that CPUs cannot perform.

Solution: B

• The core distinction between a GPU and a CPU lies in their architecture and the type of tasks they are optimized for. Option (b) is the correct answer. A CPU is often called the “brain” of the computer, designed to handle a wide range of complex, sequential logic and branch operations.

• In contrast, a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is built for parallel processing. It contains hundreds or thousands of smaller, more specialized cores (like CUDA or Tensor cores) that can handle “embarrassingly parallel” workloads—tasks where thousands of independent, simple calculations can be done at the same time.

• While CPUs can perform graphics tasks, they are significantly slower at it because they lack the parallel bandwidth of a GPU. The rendering pipeline (vertex processing, rasterization, shading) mentioned in option (d) is a process GPUs use, but saying CPUs cannot perform these tasks is technically inaccurate; they just do so inefficiently.

• In the context of Artificial Intelligence, GPUs are indispensable because modern neural networks rely on massive matrix multiplications. The high memory bandwidth (GDDR6X/HBM3) of GPUs allows them to move the massive datasets required for Large Language Models (LLMs) far more effectively than traditional CPUs.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Privileges Committee of the Parliament: Statement I: The committee acts as a quasi-judicial body to protect the dignity and authority of the legislative institution. Statement II: It has the power to summon both members and outsiders to record statements and demand relevant documents. Statement III: The concept is rooted in British Parliamentary conventions originally developed to protect the House of Commons from the Monarch. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A The Privileges Committee is a vital standing committee that ensures the independence of the legislature. Statement I is correct as the committee’s role is quasi-judicial; it investigates breaches of privilege and recommends action to maintain the House’s dignity. Statement II is correct and explains how it functions as a quasi-judicial body (by exercising powers similar to a court, such as summoning individuals and collecting evidence). Statement III is also correct and explains the reason for the committee’s existence and its “quasi-judicial” nature—it was historically necessary to protect lawmakers from external interference (specifically the Monarch in the British context). Since both its functional powers (summoning) and its historical origin (protection from interference) are the foundations of its status as a protector of legislative dignity, both explain Statement I. The committee in the Lok Sabha has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha has 10, all nominated by the respective Presiding Officers. Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution define these immunities. The committee’s recommendations can range from a simple apology to imprisonment for the duration of the session, though the latter is rare. Incorrect Solution: A The Privileges Committee is a vital standing committee that ensures the independence of the legislature. Statement I is correct as the committee’s role is quasi-judicial; it investigates breaches of privilege and recommends action to maintain the House’s dignity. Statement II is correct and explains how it functions as a quasi-judicial body (by exercising powers similar to a court, such as summoning individuals and collecting evidence). Statement III is also correct and explains the reason for the committee’s existence and its “quasi-judicial” nature—it was historically necessary to protect lawmakers from external interference (specifically the Monarch in the British context). Since both its functional powers (summoning) and its historical origin (protection from interference) are the foundations of its status as a protector of legislative dignity, both explain Statement I. The committee in the Lok Sabha has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha has 10, all nominated by the respective Presiding Officers. Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution define these immunities. The committee’s recommendations can range from a simple apology to imprisonment for the duration of the session, though the latter is rare.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Privileges Committee of the Parliament:

Statement I: The committee acts as a quasi-judicial body to protect the dignity and authority of the legislative institution.

Statement II: It has the power to summon both members and outsiders to record statements and demand relevant documents.

Statement III: The concept is rooted in British Parliamentary conventions originally developed to protect the House of Commons from the Monarch.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• The Privileges Committee is a vital standing committee that ensures the independence of the legislature.

• Statement I is correct as the committee’s role is quasi-judicial; it investigates breaches of privilege and recommends action to maintain the House’s dignity.

• Statement II is correct and explains how it functions as a quasi-judicial body (by exercising powers similar to a court, such as summoning individuals and collecting evidence).

• Statement III is also correct and explains the reason for the committee’s existence and its “quasi-judicial” nature—it was historically necessary to protect lawmakers from external interference (specifically the Monarch in the British context).

• Since both its functional powers (summoning) and its historical origin (protection from interference) are the foundations of its status as a protector of legislative dignity, both explain Statement I. The committee in the Lok Sabha has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha has 10, all nominated by the respective Presiding Officers. Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution define these immunities. The committee’s recommendations can range from a simple apology to imprisonment for the duration of the session, though the latter is rare.

Solution: A

• The Privileges Committee is a vital standing committee that ensures the independence of the legislature.

• Statement I is correct as the committee’s role is quasi-judicial; it investigates breaches of privilege and recommends action to maintain the House’s dignity.

• Statement II is correct and explains how it functions as a quasi-judicial body (by exercising powers similar to a court, such as summoning individuals and collecting evidence).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the AI-for-Energy mission: It is a joint initiative of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the International Energy Agency (IEA). The mission uses GIS-based geospatial mapping to optimize energy infrastructure planning in rural and urban areas. A key objective is to transform traditional power grids into smart, bidirectional systems capable of absorbing renewable energy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because while the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the primary body, the mission is launched in partnership with India’s Ministry of Power, MeitY, and REC Limited, not the IEA. It specifically leverages the “India Energy Stack” as a model. Statement 2 is correct; the mission utilizes Geospatial Mapping (GIS) to provide asset-level visibility. This allows for data-driven planning, showing exactly where infrastructure is needed and how renewable sources can be best integrated into the existing landscape. Statement 3 is correct; traditional grids are “one-way” (power flows from the plant to the consumer). To handle high levels of solar and wind, grids must become bidirectional, allowing “prosumers” (consumers who also produce energy) to feed electricity back into the grid. AI is essential for managing this complexity and ensuring grid stability during peak demand. The mission aims to help member countries—many of which are developing nations—to “leapfrog” over the hurdles of legacy infrastructure by using digital twins and decentralized power systems, making clean energy financially and technically viable. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because while the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the primary body, the mission is launched in partnership with India’s Ministry of Power, MeitY, and REC Limited, not the IEA. It specifically leverages the “India Energy Stack” as a model. Statement 2 is correct; the mission utilizes Geospatial Mapping (GIS) to provide asset-level visibility. This allows for data-driven planning, showing exactly where infrastructure is needed and how renewable sources can be best integrated into the existing landscape. Statement 3 is correct; traditional grids are “one-way” (power flows from the plant to the consumer). To handle high levels of solar and wind, grids must become bidirectional, allowing “prosumers” (consumers who also produce energy) to feed electricity back into the grid. AI is essential for managing this complexity and ensuring grid stability during peak demand. The mission aims to help member countries—many of which are developing nations—to “leapfrog” over the hurdles of legacy infrastructure by using digital twins and decentralized power systems, making clean energy financially and technically viable.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the AI-for-Energy mission:

• It is a joint initiative of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the International Energy Agency (IEA).

• The mission uses GIS-based geospatial mapping to optimize energy infrastructure planning in rural and urban areas.

• A key objective is to transform traditional power grids into smart, bidirectional systems capable of absorbing renewable energy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the primary body, the mission is launched in partnership with India’s Ministry of Power, MeitY, and REC Limited, not the IEA. It specifically leverages the “India Energy Stack” as a model.

• Statement 2 is correct; the mission utilizes Geospatial Mapping (GIS) to provide asset-level visibility. This allows for data-driven planning, showing exactly where infrastructure is needed and how renewable sources can be best integrated into the existing landscape.

• Statement 3 is correct; traditional grids are “one-way” (power flows from the plant to the consumer). To handle high levels of solar and wind, grids must become bidirectional, allowing “prosumers” (consumers who also produce energy) to feed electricity back into the grid. AI is essential for managing this complexity and ensuring grid stability during peak demand.

• The mission aims to help member countries—many of which are developing nations—to “leapfrog” over the hurdles of legacy infrastructure by using digital twins and decentralized power systems, making clean energy financially and technically viable.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the correct procedure for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner as per the 2023 Act? (a) Appointment by the President on the sole advice of the Chief Justice of India. (b) Appointment by the President after a mandatory public hearing and parliamentary approval. (c) Appointment by a collegium consisting of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) Appointment by the President based on the recommendation of a committee comprising the PM, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister. Correct Solution: D The appointment process for the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) has been formalised by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. This Act was brought in to provide a statutory framework for the appointment process, which was previously handled by the executive based on convention. According to this Act, the President of India makes the appointment based on the recommendations of a three-member selection committee. This committee consists of: The Prime Minister, who serves as the Chairperson. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party). A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. This structure ensures that the selection process involves the top leadership of both the government and the opposition. The tenure of the CEC remains 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. While the selection committee recommends the names, the constitutional protection regarding removal (which requires a special majority in Parliament) remains the bedrock of the CEC’s independence. This ensures that while the appointment involves a political-executive committee, the officeholder cannot be easily dismissed by the government of the day, thereby upholding the integrity of the democratic electoral process. Incorrect Solution: D The appointment process for the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) has been formalised by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. This Act was brought in to provide a statutory framework for the appointment process, which was previously handled by the executive based on convention. According to this Act, the President of India makes the appointment based on the recommendations of a three-member selection committee. This committee consists of: The Prime Minister, who serves as the Chairperson. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party). A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. This structure ensures that the selection process involves the top leadership of both the government and the opposition. The tenure of the CEC remains 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. While the selection committee recommends the names, the constitutional protection regarding removal (which requires a special majority in Parliament) remains the bedrock of the CEC’s independence. This ensures that while the appointment involves a political-executive committee, the officeholder cannot be easily dismissed by the government of the day, thereby upholding the integrity of the democratic electoral process.

#### 5. Question

Which one of the following is the correct procedure for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner as per the 2023 Act?

• (a) Appointment by the President on the sole advice of the Chief Justice of India.

• (b) Appointment by the President after a mandatory public hearing and parliamentary approval.

• (c) Appointment by a collegium consisting of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

• (d) Appointment by the President based on the recommendation of a committee comprising the PM, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister.

Solution: D

The appointment process for the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) has been formalised by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. This Act was brought in to provide a statutory framework for the appointment process, which was previously handled by the executive based on convention.

According to this Act, the President of India makes the appointment based on the recommendations of a three-member selection committee. This committee consists of:

• The Prime Minister, who serves as the Chairperson.

• The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party).

• A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

This structure ensures that the selection process involves the top leadership of both the government and the opposition. The tenure of the CEC remains 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. While the selection committee recommends the names, the constitutional protection regarding removal (which requires a special majority in Parliament) remains the bedrock of the CEC’s independence. This ensures that while the appointment involves a political-executive committee, the officeholder cannot be easily dismissed by the government of the day, thereby upholding the integrity of the democratic electoral process.

Solution: D

According to this Act, the President of India makes the appointment based on the recommendations of a three-member selection committee. This committee consists of:

• The Prime Minister, who serves as the Chairperson.

• The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party).

• A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Recent sightings of peacocks at an altitude of over 6,000 feet in the Himalayas are considered a signal of ecosystem stress. Statement II: Peacocks are highly sensitive to temperature changes and their movement to higher altitudes suggests a shift in species distribution due to global warming. Statement III: The Indian Peacock is the only species of peafowl that is not classified as ‘Least Concern’ by the IUCN. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct (as per the context of the question). The appearance of peacocks at high altitudes like Manali is ecologically significant. It indicates that the Himalayan ecosystem is undergoing changes, likely due to rising temperatures, which allows species typically restricted to warmer plains to survive at higher elevations. This is a clear signal of ecosystem stress and shifting biodiversity patterns. Statement II is correct. Peacocks are indeed sensitive to climate, and their altitudinal shift is a classic biological response to global warming. As lower regions become too hot or as higher regions become warmer and more hospitable, species “migrate” upwards. This statement directly explains why the sightings in Statement I are occurring. Statement III is incorrect. The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is classified as ‘Least Concern’. It is the other species, like the Green Peacock (Endangered) and the Congo Peacock (Vulnerable), that have higher threat statuses. Therefore, Statement III is false. Since only Statement II is correct and it provides the scientific explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement I, the correct answer is (c). This type of species movement is a major concern for conservationists as it may lead to new human-wildlife conflicts and competition with native high-altitude species that are not adapted to the presence of peacocks. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct (as per the context of the question). The appearance of peacocks at high altitudes like Manali is ecologically significant. It indicates that the Himalayan ecosystem is undergoing changes, likely due to rising temperatures, which allows species typically restricted to warmer plains to survive at higher elevations. This is a clear signal of ecosystem stress and shifting biodiversity patterns. Statement II is correct. Peacocks are indeed sensitive to climate, and their altitudinal shift is a classic biological response to global warming. As lower regions become too hot or as higher regions become warmer and more hospitable, species “migrate” upwards. This statement directly explains why the sightings in Statement I are occurring. Statement III is incorrect. The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is classified as ‘Least Concern’. It is the other species, like the Green Peacock (Endangered) and the Congo Peacock (Vulnerable), that have higher threat statuses. Therefore, Statement III is false. Since only Statement II is correct and it provides the scientific explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement I, the correct answer is (c). This type of species movement is a major concern for conservationists as it may lead to new human-wildlife conflicts and competition with native high-altitude species that are not adapted to the presence of peacocks.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Recent sightings of peacocks at an altitude of over 6,000 feet in the Himalayas are considered a signal of ecosystem stress.

Statement II: Peacocks are highly sensitive to temperature changes and their movement to higher altitudes suggests a shift in species distribution due to global warming.

Statement III: The Indian Peacock is the only species of peafowl that is not classified as ‘Least Concern’ by the IUCN.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct (as per the context of the question). The appearance of peacocks at high altitudes like Manali is ecologically significant. It indicates that the Himalayan ecosystem is undergoing changes, likely due to rising temperatures, which allows species typically restricted to warmer plains to survive at higher elevations. This is a clear signal of ecosystem stress and shifting biodiversity patterns.

• Statement II is correct. Peacocks are indeed sensitive to climate, and their altitudinal shift is a classic biological response to global warming. As lower regions become too hot or as higher regions become warmer and more hospitable, species “migrate” upwards. This statement directly explains why the sightings in Statement I are occurring.

• Statement III is incorrect. The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is classified as ‘Least Concern’. It is the other species, like the Green Peacock (Endangered) and the Congo Peacock (Vulnerable), that have higher threat statuses. Therefore, Statement III is false.

• Since only Statement II is correct and it provides the scientific explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement I, the correct answer is (c). This type of species movement is a major concern for conservationists as it may lead to new human-wildlife conflicts and competition with native high-altitude species that are not adapted to the presence of peacocks.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points What is the significance of the ‘fuel flow controller’ in Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) technology? (a) It ignites the ground booster to reach the initial Mach number. (b) It acts as a safety valve to jettison the missile in case of a malfunction. (c) It filters atmospheric oxygen to prevent damage to the engine duct. (d) It regulates the burning of solid fuel to maintain stable combustion at supersonic speeds. Correct Solution: D The fuel flow controller is the “brain” of the SFDR’s propulsion phase. In a conventional rocket, fuel usually burns at a fixed, predetermined rate. However, in a Ramjet, the amount of air being ingested changes with the missile’s speed and altitude. To ensure that the combustion remains stable and efficient at varying supersonic speeds, the rate at which the solid fuel is consumed must be precisely controlled. This controller regulates the flow of the gas generator’s exhaust (derived from the solid fuel) into the combustion chamber where it mixes with the high-pressure air. By doing so, it allows the missile to provide sustained thrust throughout its flight path. Achieving indigenous combustion control is considered a major technological breakthrough because maintaining a stable flame in a high-speed airflow (comparable to keeping a candle lit in a hurricane) is extremely difficult. This capability is what enables the missile to be “throttlable,” allowing it to save fuel during the cruise phase and surge power during the terminal attack phase. This significantly improves the Beyond Visual Range (BVR) combat advantage for fighter pilots. Without this precise regulation, the ramjet would either flame out or suffer from inefficient combustion, rendering the long-range capability of the missile ineffective. Incorrect Solution: D The fuel flow controller is the “brain” of the SFDR’s propulsion phase. In a conventional rocket, fuel usually burns at a fixed, predetermined rate. However, in a Ramjet, the amount of air being ingested changes with the missile’s speed and altitude. To ensure that the combustion remains stable and efficient at varying supersonic speeds, the rate at which the solid fuel is consumed must be precisely controlled. This controller regulates the flow of the gas generator’s exhaust (derived from the solid fuel) into the combustion chamber where it mixes with the high-pressure air. By doing so, it allows the missile to provide sustained thrust throughout its flight path. Achieving indigenous combustion control is considered a major technological breakthrough because maintaining a stable flame in a high-speed airflow (comparable to keeping a candle lit in a hurricane) is extremely difficult. This capability is what enables the missile to be “throttlable,” allowing it to save fuel during the cruise phase and surge power during the terminal attack phase. This significantly improves the Beyond Visual Range (BVR) combat advantage for fighter pilots. Without this precise regulation, the ramjet would either flame out or suffer from inefficient combustion, rendering the long-range capability of the missile ineffective.

#### 7. Question

What is the significance of the ‘fuel flow controller’ in Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) technology?

• (a) It ignites the ground booster to reach the initial Mach number.

• (b) It acts as a safety valve to jettison the missile in case of a malfunction.

• (c) It filters atmospheric oxygen to prevent damage to the engine duct.

• (d) It regulates the burning of solid fuel to maintain stable combustion at supersonic speeds.

Solution: D

• The fuel flow controller is the “brain” of the SFDR’s propulsion phase. In a conventional rocket, fuel usually burns at a fixed, predetermined rate. However, in a Ramjet, the amount of air being ingested changes with the missile’s speed and altitude. To ensure that the combustion remains stable and efficient at varying supersonic speeds, the rate at which the solid fuel is consumed must be precisely controlled.

• This controller regulates the flow of the gas generator’s exhaust (derived from the solid fuel) into the combustion chamber where it mixes with the high-pressure air. By doing so, it allows the missile to provide sustained thrust throughout its flight path. Achieving indigenous combustion control is considered a major technological breakthrough because maintaining a stable flame in a high-speed airflow (comparable to keeping a candle lit in a hurricane) is extremely difficult.

• This capability is what enables the missile to be “throttlable,” allowing it to save fuel during the cruise phase and surge power during the terminal attack phase. This significantly improves the Beyond Visual Range (BVR) combat advantage for fighter pilots. Without this precise regulation, the ramjet would either flame out or suffer from inefficient combustion, rendering the long-range capability of the missile ineffective.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following objectives of ‘Turtle Trails’, proposed in Union Budget for 2026-27. Promotion of sustainable eco-tourism. Generation of livelihoods for coastal communities. Establishing large-scale permanent concrete hotels on nesting beaches. Scientific management of public access to sensitive biodiversity zones. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Objective 1 is correct. The core idea of ‘Turtle Trails’ is to promote sustainable eco-tourism. By regulating how people visit these areas, the project ensures that tourism does not harm the very species people are coming to see. Objective 2 is correct. The initiative is tied to livelihood generation. By training locals to be guides and conservation volunteers, it provides an economic incentive for communities in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala to protect the turtles. Objective 3 is incorrect. The project emphasizes low-impact infrastructure. Building permanent concrete hotels on nesting beaches would be ecologically disastrous, as it would cause light pollution (which disorients hatchlings) and destroy nesting sites. Instead, the proposal suggests temporary or eco-friendly observation zones. Objective 4 is correct. Currently, many nesting sites face unregulated tourism, which can be chaotic and harmful. ‘Turtle Trails’ aims for scientific management, where public access is guided and restricted to certain times and areas, ensuring that the Olive Ridley nesting cycle (Arribada) is not disturbed. This integrated approach aligns with India’s goal of becoming a leader in nature-based tourism while fulfilling its conservation commitments. Incorrect Solution: C Objective 1 is correct. The core idea of ‘Turtle Trails’ is to promote sustainable eco-tourism. By regulating how people visit these areas, the project ensures that tourism does not harm the very species people are coming to see. Objective 2 is correct. The initiative is tied to livelihood generation. By training locals to be guides and conservation volunteers, it provides an economic incentive for communities in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala to protect the turtles. Objective 3 is incorrect. The project emphasizes low-impact infrastructure. Building permanent concrete hotels on nesting beaches would be ecologically disastrous, as it would cause light pollution (which disorients hatchlings) and destroy nesting sites. Instead, the proposal suggests temporary or eco-friendly observation zones. Objective 4 is correct. Currently, many nesting sites face unregulated tourism, which can be chaotic and harmful. ‘Turtle Trails’ aims for scientific management, where public access is guided and restricted to certain times and areas, ensuring that the Olive Ridley nesting cycle (Arribada) is not disturbed. This integrated approach aligns with India’s goal of becoming a leader in nature-based tourism while fulfilling its conservation commitments.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following objectives of ‘Turtle Trails’, proposed in Union Budget for 2026-27.

• Promotion of sustainable eco-tourism.

• Generation of livelihoods for coastal communities.

• Establishing large-scale permanent concrete hotels on nesting beaches.

• Scientific management of public access to sensitive biodiversity zones.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Objective 1 is correct. The core idea of ‘Turtle Trails’ is to promote sustainable eco-tourism. By regulating how people visit these areas, the project ensures that tourism does not harm the very species people are coming to see.

• Objective 2 is correct. The initiative is tied to livelihood generation. By training locals to be guides and conservation volunteers, it provides an economic incentive for communities in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala to protect the turtles.

• Objective 3 is incorrect. The project emphasizes low-impact infrastructure. Building permanent concrete hotels on nesting beaches would be ecologically disastrous, as it would cause light pollution (which disorients hatchlings) and destroy nesting sites. Instead, the proposal suggests temporary or eco-friendly observation zones.

• Objective 4 is correct. Currently, many nesting sites face unregulated tourism, which can be chaotic and harmful. ‘Turtle Trails’ aims for scientific management, where public access is guided and restricted to certain times and areas, ensuring that the Olive Ridley nesting cycle (Arribada) is not disturbed. This integrated approach aligns with India’s goal of becoming a leader in nature-based tourism while fulfilling its conservation commitments.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Agni-3 missile provides India with a reliable second-strike capability. Statement-II: The Agni-3 is a road-mobile, canisterised missile system that enhances the survivability of the nuclear deterrent. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct because the primary objective of the Agni series, particularly the IRBM and ICBM variants, is to maintain a credible minimum deterrence and ensure a second-strike capability. This means India can respond with devastating force even after an initial nuclear attack. Statement-II is also correct and provides the logical reasoning for Statement-I. Survivability is the most critical factor for a second-strike capability. Because Agni-3 uses a road-mobile launcher (and has tested canisterised variants), it can be moved across the country’s vast road network and hidden from enemy satellite surveillance. This mobility makes it difficult for an adversary to neutralize India’s missile force in a “first strike.” The transition to solid fuel and canisterisation allows for “fire-and-forget” readiness, as the missile is kept in a sealed environment and can be launched on short notice. By ensuring that the delivery systems survive an initial attack, the Agni-3 maintains the credibility of India’s no-first-use (NFU) policy, as the deterrent remains functional to strike back. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct because the primary objective of the Agni series, particularly the IRBM and ICBM variants, is to maintain a credible minimum deterrence and ensure a second-strike capability. This means India can respond with devastating force even after an initial nuclear attack. Statement-II is also correct and provides the logical reasoning for Statement-I. Survivability is the most critical factor for a second-strike capability. Because Agni-3 uses a road-mobile launcher (and has tested canisterised variants), it can be moved across the country’s vast road network and hidden from enemy satellite surveillance. This mobility makes it difficult for an adversary to neutralize India’s missile force in a “first strike.” The transition to solid fuel and canisterisation allows for “fire-and-forget” readiness, as the missile is kept in a sealed environment and can be launched on short notice. By ensuring that the delivery systems survive an initial attack, the Agni-3 maintains the credibility of India’s no-first-use (NFU) policy, as the deterrent remains functional to strike back.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Agni-3 missile provides India with a reliable second-strike capability.

Statement-II: The Agni-3 is a road-mobile, canisterised missile system that enhances the survivability of the nuclear deterrent.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct because the primary objective of the Agni series, particularly the IRBM and ICBM variants, is to maintain a credible minimum deterrence and ensure a second-strike capability. This means India can respond with devastating force even after an initial nuclear attack.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the logical reasoning for Statement-I. Survivability is the most critical factor for a second-strike capability. Because Agni-3 uses a road-mobile launcher (and has tested canisterised variants), it can be moved across the country’s vast road network and hidden from enemy satellite surveillance. This mobility makes it difficult for an adversary to neutralize India’s missile force in a “first strike.”

• The transition to solid fuel and canisterisation allows for “fire-and-forget” readiness, as the missile is kept in a sealed environment and can be launched on short notice. By ensuring that the delivery systems survive an initial attack, the Agni-3 maintains the credibility of India’s no-first-use (NFU) policy, as the deterrent remains functional to strike back.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In which province and country is Mount Aconcagua located? (a) Antofagasta, Chile (b) Mendoza, Argentina (c) Pichincha, Ecuador (d) La Paz, Bolivia Correct Solution: B Mount Aconcagua is specifically located in the Mendoza Province of Argentina. It sits in the Central Andes, very close to the international border with Chile, but the summit itself falls within Argentine territory. Mendoza is famous not only for this peak but also as a hub for mountaineering and viticulture. The mountain’s location in the Southern Andes places it in a region characterized by dramatic tectonic uplift. As the highest peak outside Asia, it attracts thousands of climbers annually who attempt to summit via the “Normal Route” or more challenging faces like the Polish Glacier. The peak’s prominence makes it a landmark of the Southern Hemisphere. Its geological history, being of volcanic origin but currently inactive, provides a unique look into the formation of the Andean range. The surrounding Aconcagua Provincial Park protects the biodiversity and glacial systems of the region. Incorrect Solution: B Mount Aconcagua is specifically located in the Mendoza Province of Argentina. It sits in the Central Andes, very close to the international border with Chile, but the summit itself falls within Argentine territory. Mendoza is famous not only for this peak but also as a hub for mountaineering and viticulture. The mountain’s location in the Southern Andes places it in a region characterized by dramatic tectonic uplift. As the highest peak outside Asia, it attracts thousands of climbers annually who attempt to summit via the “Normal Route” or more challenging faces like the Polish Glacier. The peak’s prominence makes it a landmark of the Southern Hemisphere. Its geological history, being of volcanic origin but currently inactive, provides a unique look into the formation of the Andean range. The surrounding Aconcagua Provincial Park protects the biodiversity and glacial systems of the region.

#### 10. Question

In which province and country is Mount Aconcagua located?

• (a) Antofagasta, Chile

• (b) Mendoza, Argentina

• (c) Pichincha, Ecuador

• (d) La Paz, Bolivia

Solution: B

• Mount Aconcagua is specifically located in the Mendoza Province of Argentina. It sits in the Central Andes, very close to the international border with Chile, but the summit itself falls within Argentine territory.

• Mendoza is famous not only for this peak but also as a hub for mountaineering and viticulture. The mountain’s location in the Southern Andes places it in a region characterized by dramatic tectonic uplift. As the highest peak outside Asia, it attracts thousands of climbers annually who attempt to summit via the “Normal Route” or more challenging faces like the Polish Glacier.

• The peak’s prominence makes it a landmark of the Southern Hemisphere. Its geological history, being of volcanic origin but currently inactive, provides a unique look into the formation of the Andean range.

• The surrounding Aconcagua Provincial Park protects the biodiversity and glacial systems of the region.

Solution: B

• The surrounding Aconcagua Provincial Park protects the biodiversity and glacial systems of the region.

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