UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 20 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India: The CEC can be removed from office on the grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’, which are explicitly defined in the Constitution of India. The procedure for the removal of the CEC is identical to the procedure for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court. An Election Commissioner (EC) can be removed from office by the President without the recommendation of the CEC. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because while the grounds for removal are ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’, these terms are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation is left to the judicial inquiry committee that investigates the allegations. This ambiguity allows for a case-by-case examination based on the evidence presented. Statement 2 is correct. The process for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is same as that for a Supreme Court judge, as stipulated under Article 324(5) of the Constitution. This provides a significant safeguard to ensure the independence and autonomy of the Election Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect. An Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. This provision is crucial as it fortifies the institutional integrity of the Election Commission, protecting other commissioners from arbitrary removal by the executive and ensuring that the CEC’s authority is maintained within the commission’s structure. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because while the grounds for removal are ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’, these terms are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation is left to the judicial inquiry committee that investigates the allegations. This ambiguity allows for a case-by-case examination based on the evidence presented. Statement 2 is correct. The process for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is same as that for a Supreme Court judge, as stipulated under Article 324(5) of the Constitution. This provides a significant safeguard to ensure the independence and autonomy of the Election Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect. An Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. This provision is crucial as it fortifies the institutional integrity of the Election Commission, protecting other commissioners from arbitrary removal by the executive and ensuring that the CEC’s authority is maintained within the commission’s structure.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

• The CEC can be removed from office on the grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’, which are explicitly defined in the Constitution of India.

• The procedure for the removal of the CEC is identical to the procedure for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.

• An Election Commissioner (EC) can be removed from office by the President without the recommendation of the CEC.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while the grounds for removal are ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’, these terms are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation is left to the judicial inquiry committee that investigates the allegations. This ambiguity allows for a case-by-case examination based on the evidence presented.

• Statement 2 is correct. The process for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is same as that for a Supreme Court judge, as stipulated under Article 324(5) of the Constitution. This provides a significant safeguard to ensure the independence and autonomy of the Election Commission.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. An Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. This provision is crucial as it fortifies the institutional integrity of the Election Commission, protecting other commissioners from arbitrary removal by the executive and ensuring that the CEC’s authority is maintained within the commission’s structure.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the nominations to Union Territory (UT) Assemblies, consider the following statements: Statement I: The legislative power of Union Territory Assemblies is derived from statutes enacted by the Parliament of India. Statement II: The President of India or the Lieutenant Governor, in certain UTs, can nominate members to the legislative assembly without the aid and advice of the elected Council of Ministers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Unlike State Legislatures, which draw their powers directly from the Constitution, the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories are created by and derive their powers from Acts of Parliament. For example, the assemblies for Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir are governed by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, and the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, respectively. Statement II is also correct and provides a clear explanation for Statement I. Because UTs are under the direct administration of the Union, the Parliament can create provisions that grant nomination powers directly to the Central Government or its representative, the Lieutenant Governor. This was affirmed in judicial rulings like the Lakshminarayanan case (2018) for Puducherry. The Union’s primacy in these matters reflects the constitutional status of UTs, where the LG is not always bound by the aid and advice of the local Council of Ministers, especially in matters of nominations specified by a Parliamentary statute. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Unlike State Legislatures, which draw their powers directly from the Constitution, the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories are created by and derive their powers from Acts of Parliament. For example, the assemblies for Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir are governed by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, and the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, respectively. Statement II is also correct and provides a clear explanation for Statement I. Because UTs are under the direct administration of the Union, the Parliament can create provisions that grant nomination powers directly to the Central Government or its representative, the Lieutenant Governor. This was affirmed in judicial rulings like the Lakshminarayanan case (2018) for Puducherry. The Union’s primacy in these matters reflects the constitutional status of UTs, where the LG is not always bound by the aid and advice of the local Council of Ministers, especially in matters of nominations specified by a Parliamentary statute.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the nominations to Union Territory (UT) Assemblies, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The legislative power of Union Territory Assemblies is derived from statutes enacted by the Parliament of India.

Statement II: The President of India or the Lieutenant Governor, in certain UTs, can nominate members to the legislative assembly without the aid and advice of the elected Council of Ministers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Unlike State Legislatures, which draw their powers directly from the Constitution, the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories are created by and derive their powers from Acts of Parliament. For example, the assemblies for Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir are governed by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, and the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, respectively.

• Statement II is also correct and provides a clear explanation for Statement I. Because UTs are under the direct administration of the Union, the Parliament can create provisions that grant nomination powers directly to the Central Government or its representative, the Lieutenant Governor. This was affirmed in judicial rulings like the Lakshminarayanan case (2018) for Puducherry.

• The Union’s primacy in these matters reflects the constitutional status of UTs, where the LG is not always bound by the aid and advice of the local Council of Ministers, especially in matters of nominations specified by a Parliamentary statute.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the primary objective of establishing the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) under the Indian Ports Bill, 2025? (a) To privatize all major ports and encourage Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). (b) To create a centralized authority for setting tariffs across all Indian ports. (c) To act as an apex body for dispute resolution between port authorities and private operators. (d) To strengthen cooperative federalism and ensure integrated planning between the Centre and maritime States. Correct Solution: D The primary objective of the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) is to strengthen cooperative federalism and ensure integrated planning between the Centre and maritime States. The MSDC is envisioned as a coordinating body where the Union government and state governments can collaborate on the holistic development of the port sector. This includes aligning national priorities with state-level port management, especially for non-major ports which fall under state jurisdiction. Incorrect Solution: D The primary objective of the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) is to strengthen cooperative federalism and ensure integrated planning between the Centre and maritime States. The MSDC is envisioned as a coordinating body where the Union government and state governments can collaborate on the holistic development of the port sector. This includes aligning national priorities with state-level port management, especially for non-major ports which fall under state jurisdiction.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes the primary objective of establishing the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) under the Indian Ports Bill, 2025?

• (a) To privatize all major ports and encourage Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

• (b) To create a centralized authority for setting tariffs across all Indian ports.

• (c) To act as an apex body for dispute resolution between port authorities and private operators.

• (d) To strengthen cooperative federalism and ensure integrated planning between the Centre and maritime States.

Solution: D

• The primary objective of the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) is to strengthen cooperative federalism and ensure integrated planning between the Centre and maritime States. The MSDC is envisioned as a coordinating body where the Union government and state governments can collaborate on the holistic development of the port sector. This includes aligning national priorities with state-level port management, especially for non-major ports which fall under state jurisdiction.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about India’s space program milestones: The ‘Bharat Antariksh Station’ is planned to be a collaborative project with an advanced space agency for technology sharing. The Gaganyaan Mission will be India’s first mission to place an astronaut on the lunar surface. The Vyommitra Mission involves sending a humanoid robot into space to test life support and control systems before the crewed mission. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While global collaboration is a feature of India’s broader space ambitions, the establishment of the ‘Bharat Antariksh Station’ by 2035 is presented as an indigenous project to create India’s own space station for long-duration experiments. The focus is on building self-reliant capabilities in space. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gaganyaan Mission (planned for 2027) is India’s first human spaceflight mission, but its objective is to send astronauts into Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not to the lunar surface. The crewed lunar landing is a separate, more ambitious goal set for 2040. Gaganyaan is a crucial precursor to test and validate technologies for human space travel. Statement 3 is correct. The Vyommitra Mission, scheduled for 2026, is an uncrewed flight that will feature a humanoid robot named Vyommitra. This mission is a critical technology demonstrator, designed to test the efficacy of the crew module’s systems, including life support, navigation, and control, in a space environment before risking human lives on the Gaganyaan mission. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While global collaboration is a feature of India’s broader space ambitions, the establishment of the ‘Bharat Antariksh Station’ by 2035 is presented as an indigenous project to create India’s own space station for long-duration experiments. The focus is on building self-reliant capabilities in space. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gaganyaan Mission (planned for 2027) is India’s first human spaceflight mission, but its objective is to send astronauts into Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not to the lunar surface. The crewed lunar landing is a separate, more ambitious goal set for 2040. Gaganyaan is a crucial precursor to test and validate technologies for human space travel. Statement 3 is correct. The Vyommitra Mission, scheduled for 2026, is an uncrewed flight that will feature a humanoid robot named Vyommitra. This mission is a critical technology demonstrator, designed to test the efficacy of the crew module’s systems, including life support, navigation, and control, in a space environment before risking human lives on the Gaganyaan mission.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about India’s space program milestones:

• The ‘Bharat Antariksh Station’ is planned to be a collaborative project with an advanced space agency for technology sharing.

• The Gaganyaan Mission will be India’s first mission to place an astronaut on the lunar surface.

• The Vyommitra Mission involves sending a humanoid robot into space to test life support and control systems before the crewed mission.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While global collaboration is a feature of India’s broader space ambitions, the establishment of the ‘Bharat Antariksh Station’ by 2035 is presented as an indigenous project to create India’s own space station for long-duration experiments. The focus is on building self-reliant capabilities in space.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Gaganyaan Mission (planned for 2027) is India’s first human spaceflight mission, but its objective is to send astronauts into Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not to the lunar surface. The crewed lunar landing is a separate, more ambitious goal set for 2040. Gaganyaan is a crucial precursor to test and validate technologies for human space travel.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Vyommitra Mission, scheduled for 2026, is an uncrewed flight that will feature a humanoid robot named Vyommitra. This mission is a critical technology demonstrator, designed to test the efficacy of the crew module’s systems, including life support, navigation, and control, in a space environment before risking human lives on the Gaganyaan mission.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the removable solar panel system launched by Indian Railways, consider the following statements: The system is designed to be installed on the roofs of railway coaches to generate power during transit. The primary objective of this initiative is to utilize vacant land parcels owned by the railways for large-scale solar farms. The panels are designed to be removable to facilitate track maintenance and to handle emergencies without disrupting the power generation system. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The innovation of this specific system is its placement between the railway tracks, not on the roofs of coaches. This design specifically aims to use the underutilized space on the ground level within the railway infrastructure network. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective is to utilize the narrow, otherwise unused space between the tracks, which avoids the need for large land acquisitions required for traditional solar farms. This makes it a space-efficient solution for generating clean energy directly within the operational area of the railways, rather than on separate, larger land parcels. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of this system is its removable design. The panels can be easily lifted or detached. This is crucial for practical implementation on a live railway network, as it allows for routine track maintenance, inspections, and swift clearance in case of emergencies or derailments, ensuring that the solar installation does not impede essential railway operations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The innovation of this specific system is its placement between the railway tracks, not on the roofs of coaches. This design specifically aims to use the underutilized space on the ground level within the railway infrastructure network. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective is to utilize the narrow, otherwise unused space between the tracks, which avoids the need for large land acquisitions required for traditional solar farms. This makes it a space-efficient solution for generating clean energy directly within the operational area of the railways, rather than on separate, larger land parcels. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of this system is its removable design. The panels can be easily lifted or detached. This is crucial for practical implementation on a live railway network, as it allows for routine track maintenance, inspections, and swift clearance in case of emergencies or derailments, ensuring that the solar installation does not impede essential railway operations.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the removable solar panel system launched by Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

• The system is designed to be installed on the roofs of railway coaches to generate power during transit.

• The primary objective of this initiative is to utilize vacant land parcels owned by the railways for large-scale solar farms.

• The panels are designed to be removable to facilitate track maintenance and to handle emergencies without disrupting the power generation system.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The innovation of this specific system is its placement between the railway tracks, not on the roofs of coaches. This design specifically aims to use the underutilized space on the ground level within the railway infrastructure network.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective is to utilize the narrow, otherwise unused space between the tracks, which avoids the need for large land acquisitions required for traditional solar farms. This makes it a space-efficient solution for generating clean energy directly within the operational area of the railways, rather than on separate, larger land parcels.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of this system is its removable design. The panels can be easily lifted or detached. This is crucial for practical implementation on a live railway network, as it allows for routine track maintenance, inspections, and swift clearance in case of emergencies or derailments, ensuring that the solar installation does not impede essential railway operations.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement I: The long-term vision of India’s crewed lunar mission is aligned with the national goal of ‘Viksit Bharat by 2047’. Statement II: The mission mentioned in Statement I emphasizes indigenous development of launch vehicles and life support systems to strengthen India’s position in the global space economy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I correctly states that the plan to land an Indian astronaut on the Moon by 2040 is part of the broader ‘Viksit Bharat by 2047’ This national goal aims for India to become a developed nation by its 100th year of independence, and achieving advanced capabilities in frontier sectors like space exploration is a key indicator of this status. Statement II explains how the space mission contributes to this vision. By focusing on indigenous development of critical technologies like launch vehicles, life support, and surface exploration systems, India is not just aiming for a symbolic achievement. This strategy builds self-reliance, fosters a high-tech manufacturing ecosystem, and creates intellectual property. These capabilities are essential for capturing a larger share of the projected $45 billion space economy, thereby directly contributing to the economic and technological advancement central to the ‘Viksit Bharat’ goal. The emphasis on self-reliance is the core mechanism through which the space program becomes an engine for national development. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I correctly states that the plan to land an Indian astronaut on the Moon by 2040 is part of the broader ‘Viksit Bharat by 2047’ This national goal aims for India to become a developed nation by its 100th year of independence, and achieving advanced capabilities in frontier sectors like space exploration is a key indicator of this status. Statement II explains how the space mission contributes to this vision. By focusing on indigenous development of critical technologies like launch vehicles, life support, and surface exploration systems, India is not just aiming for a symbolic achievement. This strategy builds self-reliance, fosters a high-tech manufacturing ecosystem, and creates intellectual property. These capabilities are essential for capturing a larger share of the projected $45 billion space economy, thereby directly contributing to the economic and technological advancement central to the ‘Viksit Bharat’ goal. The emphasis on self-reliance is the core mechanism through which the space program becomes an engine for national development.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The long-term vision of India’s crewed lunar mission is aligned with the national goal of ‘Viksit Bharat by 2047’.

Statement II: The mission mentioned in Statement I emphasizes indigenous development of launch vehicles and life support systems to strengthen India’s position in the global space economy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I correctly states that the plan to land an Indian astronaut on the Moon by 2040 is part of the broader ‘Viksit Bharat by 2047’ This national goal aims for India to become a developed nation by its 100th year of independence, and achieving advanced capabilities in frontier sectors like space exploration is a key indicator of this status.

• Statement II explains how the space mission contributes to this vision. By focusing on indigenous development of critical technologies like launch vehicles, life support, and surface exploration systems, India is not just aiming for a symbolic achievement.

• This strategy builds self-reliance, fosters a high-tech manufacturing ecosystem, and creates intellectual property. These capabilities are essential for capturing a larger share of the projected $45 billion space economy, thereby directly contributing to the economic and technological advancement central to the ‘Viksit Bharat’ goal.

• The emphasis on self-reliance is the core mechanism through which the space program becomes an engine for national development.

Solution: A

• The emphasis on self-reliance is the core mechanism through which the space program becomes an engine for national development.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR): The UNHCR was established by a binding resolution of the UN Security Council. Its mandate is strictly limited to protecting refugees who have crossed international borders and does not extend to internally displaced people. The organization is funded entirely through mandatory contributions from UN member states. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNHCR was created in 1950 by a resolution of the UN General Assembly, not the Security Council. It began its operations in 1951 with an initial three-year mandate to address the refugee crisis in post-World War II Europe, which was later made permanent. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the UNHCR’s core mandate is to protect refugees, its work also extends to other groups of displaced persons. The agency is mandated to protect and support refugees, stateless persons, and internally displaced people (IDPs) Its involvement with IDPs has grown significantly over the decades as internal conflicts have become more prevalent. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNHCR is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions, not mandatory payments from UN member states. The vast majority of its budget comes from governments, with significant contributions also coming from private donors, corporations, and foundations. This funding model means the agency’s resources can fluctuate based on donor priorities and global economic conditions. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNHCR was created in 1950 by a resolution of the UN General Assembly, not the Security Council. It began its operations in 1951 with an initial three-year mandate to address the refugee crisis in post-World War II Europe, which was later made permanent. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the UNHCR’s core mandate is to protect refugees, its work also extends to other groups of displaced persons. The agency is mandated to protect and support refugees, stateless persons, and internally displaced people (IDPs) Its involvement with IDPs has grown significantly over the decades as internal conflicts have become more prevalent. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNHCR is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions, not mandatory payments from UN member states. The vast majority of its budget comes from governments, with significant contributions also coming from private donors, corporations, and foundations. This funding model means the agency’s resources can fluctuate based on donor priorities and global economic conditions.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR):

• The UNHCR was established by a binding resolution of the UN Security Council.

• Its mandate is strictly limited to protecting refugees who have crossed international borders and does not extend to internally displaced people.

• The organization is funded entirely through mandatory contributions from UN member states.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNHCR was created in 1950 by a resolution of the UN General Assembly, not the Security Council. It began its operations in 1951 with an initial three-year mandate to address the refugee crisis in post-World War II Europe, which was later made permanent.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the UNHCR’s core mandate is to protect refugees, its work also extends to other groups of displaced persons. The agency is mandated to protect and support refugees, stateless persons, and internally displaced people (IDPs) Its involvement with IDPs has grown significantly over the decades as internal conflicts have become more prevalent.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNHCR is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions, not mandatory payments from UN member states. The vast majority of its budget comes from governments, with significant contributions also coming from private donors, corporations, and foundations. This funding model means the agency’s resources can fluctuate based on donor priorities and global economic conditions.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Ranthambore National Park: It is located at the confluence of the Aravalli and the Deccan Plateau. The park was one of the original reserves declared under Project Tiger in 1973. The entire area of the national park is designated as a core tiger habitat, with no buffer zones. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges, not the Deccan Plateau. This unique geographical location contributes to its rich biodiversity, as it represents a transition zone between two distinct geological and ecological systems. Statement 2 is correct. The area was declared the Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 and became one of the first nine reserves to be included in Project Tiger when it was launched in 1973. This historical significance marks it as a crucial site for tiger conservation in India from the very beginning of the national conservation effort. It was later upgraded to a National Park in 1980. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park, like other Project Tiger reserves, has a well-defined structure of core and buffer zones. The total area of 1,334 sq. km with a core area of approximately 275 sq. km. The surrounding forests, including the Sawai Mansingh and Kailadevi Sanctuaries, act as important buffer zones that help in managing the tiger population and reducing human-wildlife conflict. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges, not the Deccan Plateau. This unique geographical location contributes to its rich biodiversity, as it represents a transition zone between two distinct geological and ecological systems. Statement 2 is correct. The area was declared the Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 and became one of the first nine reserves to be included in Project Tiger when it was launched in 1973. This historical significance marks it as a crucial site for tiger conservation in India from the very beginning of the national conservation effort. It was later upgraded to a National Park in 1980. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park, like other Project Tiger reserves, has a well-defined structure of core and buffer zones. The total area of 1,334 sq. km with a core area of approximately 275 sq. km. The surrounding forests, including the Sawai Mansingh and Kailadevi Sanctuaries, act as important buffer zones that help in managing the tiger population and reducing human-wildlife conflict.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Ranthambore National Park:

• It is located at the confluence of the Aravalli and the Deccan Plateau.

• The park was one of the original reserves declared under Project Tiger in 1973.

• The entire area of the national park is designated as a core tiger habitat, with no buffer zones.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park is situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges, not the Deccan Plateau. This unique geographical location contributes to its rich biodiversity, as it represents a transition zone between two distinct geological and ecological systems.

• Statement 2 is correct. The area was declared the Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 and became one of the first nine reserves to be included in Project Tiger when it was launched in 1973. This historical significance marks it as a crucial site for tiger conservation in India from the very beginning of the national conservation effort. It was later upgraded to a National Park in 1980.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Ranthambore National Park, like other Project Tiger reserves, has a well-defined structure of core and buffer zones. The total area of 1,334 sq. km with a core area of approximately 275 sq. km. The surrounding forests, including the Sawai Mansingh and Kailadevi Sanctuaries, act as important buffer zones that help in managing the tiger population and reducing human-wildlife conflict.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding nominations in legislative bodies in India: The provision for nominating Anglo-Indian members to Parliament and State Legislatures was discontinued in 2020. In State Legislative Councils, the Governor nominates members based on the direct recommendation of the President of India. The legislative assembly of every Union Territory in India has a provision for nominated members. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The practice of nominating members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and certain State Legislative Assemblies was ended by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect in January 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor nominates about 1/6th of the members to a State Legislative Council from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. This is done on the aid and advice of the State’s Council of Ministers, not on the recommendation of the President. Statement 3 is incorrect. Not all UTs with a legislative assembly have nominated members. For example, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has no provision for nominated MLAs; it consists only of 70 elected members. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The practice of nominating members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and certain State Legislative Assemblies was ended by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect in January 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor nominates about 1/6th of the members to a State Legislative Council from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. This is done on the aid and advice of the State’s Council of Ministers, not on the recommendation of the President. Statement 3 is incorrect. Not all UTs with a legislative assembly have nominated members. For example, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has no provision for nominated MLAs; it consists only of 70 elected members.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding nominations in legislative bodies in India:

• The provision for nominating Anglo-Indian members to Parliament and State Legislatures was discontinued in 2020.

• In State Legislative Councils, the Governor nominates members based on the direct recommendation of the President of India.

• The legislative assembly of every Union Territory in India has a provision for nominated members.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The practice of nominating members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and certain State Legislative Assemblies was ended by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect in January 2020.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Governor nominates about 1/6th of the members to a State Legislative Council from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. This is done on the aid and advice of the State’s Council of Ministers, not on the recommendation of the President.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Not all UTs with a legislative assembly have nominated members. For example, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has no provision for nominated MLAs; it consists only of 70 elected members.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following actions: Introduction of a motion supported by at least 50 MPs in either House of Parliament. Presidential order for removal. Passing of the motion by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses. Examination of charges by a judicial inquiry committee. What is the correct sequence of the above actions for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India? (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 4-1-3-2 (c) 1-4-3-2 (d) 4-3-1-2 Correct Solution: C The correct sequence for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), which is the same as for a Supreme Court Judge, is as follows: Initiation (1): A motion alleging misbehaviour or incapacity is introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It requires the support of at least 100 members in the Lok Sabha or 50 members in the Rajya Sabha for admission. Inquiry (4): Once the motion is admitted by the Presiding Officer, a three-member judicial inquiry committee is constituted to investigate the charges and validate the evidence. This committee comprises a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. Voting in Parliament (3): If the inquiry committee finds the CEC guilty, the motion is taken up for consideration and voting in Parliament. It must be passed in each House by a special majority, which is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. Presidential Action (2): After the motion is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the requisite majority, an address is presented to the President, who then issues an order for the removal of the CEC. Incorrect Solution: C The correct sequence for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), which is the same as for a Supreme Court Judge, is as follows: Initiation (1): A motion alleging misbehaviour or incapacity is introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It requires the support of at least 100 members in the Lok Sabha or 50 members in the Rajya Sabha for admission. Inquiry (4): Once the motion is admitted by the Presiding Officer, a three-member judicial inquiry committee is constituted to investigate the charges and validate the evidence. This committee comprises a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. Voting in Parliament (3): If the inquiry committee finds the CEC guilty, the motion is taken up for consideration and voting in Parliament. It must be passed in each House by a special majority, which is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. Presidential Action (2): After the motion is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the requisite majority, an address is presented to the President, who then issues an order for the removal of the CEC.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following actions:

• Introduction of a motion supported by at least 50 MPs in either House of Parliament.

• Presidential order for removal.

• Passing of the motion by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses.

• Examination of charges by a judicial inquiry committee.

What is the correct sequence of the above actions for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

• (a) 1-3-4-2

• (b) 4-1-3-2

• (c) 1-4-3-2

• (d) 4-3-1-2

Solution: C

The correct sequence for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), which is the same as for a Supreme Court Judge, is as follows:

• Initiation (1): A motion alleging misbehaviour or incapacity is introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It requires the support of at least 100 members in the Lok Sabha or 50 members in the Rajya Sabha for admission.

• Inquiry (4): Once the motion is admitted by the Presiding Officer, a three-member judicial inquiry committee is constituted to investigate the charges and validate the evidence. This committee comprises a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.

• Voting in Parliament (3): If the inquiry committee finds the CEC guilty, the motion is taken up for consideration and voting in Parliament. It must be passed in each House by a special majority, which is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

• Presidential Action (2): After the motion is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the requisite majority, an address is presented to the President, who then issues an order for the removal of the CEC.

Solution: C

The correct sequence for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), which is the same as for a Supreme Court Judge, is as follows:

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE