UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 2 November 2024

.The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 and India’s performance: The Global Hunger Index uses indicators such as undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to assess hunger levels. India has the highest rate of child stunting in the world, according to GHI 2024. The Ministry of Women and Child Development has raised concerns over GHI data, claiming that the Poshan Tracker reports a lower child wasting rate than what GHI states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The GHI uses four primary indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to measure hunger levels. India does not have the highest rate of child stunting in the world but does have the highest rate of child wasting at 18.7%. The Ministry of Women and Child Development has criticized the GHI for not using data from India’s Poshan Tracker, which shows a significantly lower child wasting rate (7.2%). Incorrect Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The GHI uses four primary indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to measure hunger levels. India does not have the highest rate of child stunting in the world but does have the highest rate of child wasting at 18.7%. The Ministry of Women and Child Development has criticized the GHI for not using data from India’s Poshan Tracker, which shows a significantly lower child wasting rate (7.2%).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 and India’s performance:

• The Global Hunger Index uses indicators such as undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to assess hunger levels.

• India has the highest rate of child stunting in the world, according to GHI 2024.

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development has raised concerns over GHI data, claiming that the Poshan Tracker reports a lower child wasting rate than what GHI states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The GHI uses four primary indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to measure hunger levels.

• India does not have the highest rate of child stunting in the world but does have the highest rate of child wasting at 18.7%.

The Ministry of Women and Child Development has criticized the GHI for not using data from India’s Poshan Tracker, which shows a significantly lower child wasting rate (7.2%).

Answer: B.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The GHI uses four primary indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to measure hunger levels.

• India does not have the highest rate of child stunting in the world but does have the highest rate of child wasting at 18.7%.

The Ministry of Women and Child Development has criticized the GHI for not using data from India’s Poshan Tracker, which shows a significantly lower child wasting rate (7.2%).

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Regarding the current geopolitical situation on the Korean Peninsula, consider the following statements: North Korea has declared South Korea as its “primary foe” and has ended any prospects for reunification in 2024. The Korean War officially ended in 1953 with a peace treaty, establishing the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between North and South Korea. North Korea has withdrawn from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and has conducted multiple nuclear weapons tests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. In 2024, North Korea declared South Korea as its primary foe, signaling an end to reunification efforts. The Korean War ended in 1953 with an armistice, not a peace treaty. The DMZ was established, but the war has technically never ended. North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and has since developed and tested nuclear weapons, defying international sanctions. Incorrect Answer: A. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. In 2024, North Korea declared South Korea as its primary foe, signaling an end to reunification efforts. The Korean War ended in 1953 with an armistice, not a peace treaty. The DMZ was established, but the war has technically never ended. North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and has since developed and tested nuclear weapons, defying international sanctions.

#### 2. Question

Regarding the current geopolitical situation on the Korean Peninsula, consider the following statements:

• North Korea has declared South Korea as its “primary foe” and has ended any prospects for reunification in 2024.

• The Korean War officially ended in 1953 with a peace treaty, establishing the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between North and South Korea.

• North Korea has withdrawn from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and has conducted multiple nuclear weapons tests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 3 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• In 2024, North Korea declared South Korea as its primary foe, signaling an end to reunification efforts.

• The Korean War ended in 1953 with an armistice, not a peace treaty. The DMZ was established, but the war has technically never ended.

North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and has since developed and tested nuclear weapons, defying international sanctions.

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• In 2024, North Korea declared South Korea as its primary foe, signaling an end to reunification efforts.

• The Korean War ended in 1953 with an armistice, not a peace treaty. The DMZ was established, but the war has technically never ended.

North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and has since developed and tested nuclear weapons, defying international sanctions.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the debate on criminalizing marital rape in India, consider the following statements: Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code decriminalizes marital rape if the wife is above 18 years of age. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides criminal remedies for victims of marital rape. The Supreme Court, in the case of Joseph Shine v. Union of India, acknowledged the autonomy of married women by striking down the doctrine of coverture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Exception 2 to Section 375 of the IPC states that sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, if she is not under 18 years of age, is not considered rape, decriminalizing marital rape. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides civil remedies like protection orders and monetary compensation but does not offer criminal provisions for prosecuting marital rape. Statement 3 is correct. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court dismantled aspects of the doctrine of coverture, upholding that marriage does not diminish a woman’s right to bodily autonomy. Incorrect Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Exception 2 to Section 375 of the IPC states that sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, if she is not under 18 years of age, is not considered rape, decriminalizing marital rape. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides civil remedies like protection orders and monetary compensation but does not offer criminal provisions for prosecuting marital rape. Statement 3 is correct. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court dismantled aspects of the doctrine of coverture, upholding that marriage does not diminish a woman’s right to bodily autonomy.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the debate on criminalizing marital rape in India, consider the following statements:

• Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code decriminalizes marital rape if the wife is above 18 years of age.

• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides criminal remedies for victims of marital rape.

• The Supreme Court, in the case of Joseph Shine v. Union of India, acknowledged the autonomy of married women by striking down the doctrine of coverture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Exception 2 to Section 375 of the IPC states that sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, if she is not under 18 years of age, is not considered rape, decriminalizing marital rape.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides civil remedies like protection orders and monetary compensation but does not offer criminal provisions for prosecuting marital rape.

• Statement 3 is correct. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court dismantled aspects of the doctrine of coverture, upholding that marriage does not diminish a woman’s right to bodily autonomy.

Answer: B.

Explanation:

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India (CJI): The Chief Justice of India has the discretion to appoint any High Court judge as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court to handle a backlog of cases. The CJI is responsible for the allocation of cases and the composition of benches in the Supreme Court. Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be appointed to any position under the government of India to avoid conflicts of interest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest. Incorrect Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India (CJI):

• The Chief Justice of India has the discretion to appoint any High Court judge as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court to handle a backlog of cases.

• The CJI is responsible for the allocation of cases and the composition of benches in the Supreme Court.

• Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be appointed to any position under the government of India to avoid conflicts of interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 2 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice.

Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest.

Answer: B.

Explanation:

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955: The Act does not allow for dual citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of single citizenship. Citizenship can be obtained through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization, and there is a special provision for those married to Indian citizens. The Act provides for the revocation of citizenship if a person acquires citizenship of another country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: D. Explanation: All of the above statements are correct. The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India. The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements. The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality. Incorrect Answer: D. Explanation: All of the above statements are correct. The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India. The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements. The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955:

• The Act does not allow for dual citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of single citizenship.

• Citizenship can be obtained through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization, and there is a special provision for those married to Indian citizens.

• The Act provides for the revocation of citizenship if a person acquires citizenship of another country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 2 only

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D.

Explanation:

All of the above statements are correct.

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India.

• The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements.

The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

Answer: D.

Explanation:

All of the above statements are correct.

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India.

The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the various initiatives under the IndiaAI Mission, consider the following statements: The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and foundational AI models tailored to sectors such as healthcare and agriculture. The IndiaAI Datasets Platform is designed to provide researchers and startups with access to anonymized personal data to ensure privacy and facilitate innovation. The Safe & Trusted AI pillar aims to promote ethical AI practices through the development of indigenous AI tools and frameworks for responsible use. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The IndiaAI Innovation Centre is a key component of the mission, focusing on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and sector-specific AI models to address challenges in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and governance. The IndiaAI Datasets Platform provides access to high-quality non-personal datasets, not anonymized personal data. This platform is crucial for ensuring data privacy while enabling AI research and innovation. The Safe & Trusted AI pillar emphasizes ethical AI practices, aiming to create indigenous tools and frameworks that ensure the responsible use of AI. This component addresses concerns related to data security, algorithmic bias, and transparency. Incorrect Answer: A. Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The IndiaAI Innovation Centre is a key component of the mission, focusing on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and sector-specific AI models to address challenges in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and governance. The IndiaAI Datasets Platform provides access to high-quality non-personal datasets, not anonymized personal data. This platform is crucial for ensuring data privacy while enabling AI research and innovation. The Safe & Trusted AI pillar emphasizes ethical AI practices, aiming to create indigenous tools and frameworks that ensure the responsible use of AI. This component addresses concerns related to data security, algorithmic bias, and transparency.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the various initiatives under the IndiaAI Mission, consider the following statements:

• The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and foundational AI models tailored to sectors such as healthcare and agriculture.

• The IndiaAI Datasets Platform is designed to provide researchers and startups with access to anonymized personal data to ensure privacy and facilitate innovation.

• The Safe & Trusted AI pillar aims to promote ethical AI practices through the development of indigenous AI tools and frameworks for responsible use.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 3 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The IndiaAI Innovation Centre is a key component of the mission, focusing on developing Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and sector-specific AI models to address challenges in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and governance.

• The IndiaAI Datasets Platform provides access to high-quality non-personal datasets, not anonymized personal data. This platform is crucial for ensuring data privacy while enabling AI research and innovation.

The Safe & Trusted AI pillar emphasizes ethical AI practices, aiming to create indigenous tools and frameworks that ensure the responsible use of AI. This component addresses concerns related to data security, algorithmic bias, and transparency.

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission: The mission aims to establish India as a global leader in green hydrogen production, with a target of producing at least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of green hydrogen per year by 2030. The SIGHT (Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition) program focuses exclusively on incentivizing the import of hydrogen production technology. One of the expected outcomes of the mission is to avert nearly 50 million metric tonnes (MMT) of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission indeed aims to position India as a global hub for green hydrogen production, targeting at least 5 MMT per year by 2030. The SIGHT program incentivizes the *domestic manufacturing* of electrolysers and promotes the use of green hydrogen in various sectors. It does not focus on importing technology. Statement 3 is correct. The mission aims to avert almost 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions annually by 2030, contributing significantly to India’s climate goals. Incorrect Answer: A. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission indeed aims to position India as a global hub for green hydrogen production, targeting at least 5 MMT per year by 2030. The SIGHT program incentivizes the *domestic manufacturing* of electrolysers and promotes the use of green hydrogen in various sectors. It does not focus on importing technology. Statement 3 is correct. The mission aims to avert almost 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions annually by 2030, contributing significantly to India’s climate goals.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission:

• The mission aims to establish India as a global leader in green hydrogen production, with a target of producing at least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of green hydrogen per year by 2030.

• The SIGHT (Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition) program focuses exclusively on incentivizing the import of hydrogen production technology.

• One of the expected outcomes of the mission is to avert nearly 50 million metric tonnes (MMT) of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 3 only

• B. 1 and 2 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission indeed aims to position India as a global hub for green hydrogen production, targeting at least 5 MMT per year by 2030.

• The SIGHT program incentivizes the *domestic manufacturing* of electrolysers and promotes the use of green hydrogen in various sectors. It does not focus on importing technology.

Statement 3 is correct. The mission aims to avert almost 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions annually by 2030, contributing significantly to India’s climate goals.

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 1 is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission indeed aims to position India as a global hub for green hydrogen production, targeting at least 5 MMT per year by 2030.

• The SIGHT program incentivizes the *domestic manufacturing* of electrolysers and promotes the use of green hydrogen in various sectors. It does not focus on importing technology.

Statement 3 is correct. The mission aims to avert almost 50 MMT of greenhouse gas emissions annually by 2030, contributing significantly to India’s climate goals.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the report titled “On Track or Off Course? Assessing Progress Toward the 30×30 Target in the Ocean,” consider the following statements: The 30×30 target aims to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030, but only 2.8% of oceans currently have effective protection. The term “blue-washing” refers to the practice of designating large Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) on paper without effective management or enforcement. Latin America and the Caribbean are global leaders in meeting the 30×30 target, with extensive enforcement mechanisms in place. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 is correct The 30×30 target is an international goal to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030. Currently, only 2.8% of oceans are effectively protected, as most Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) lack enforcement. “Blue-washing” describes the phenomenon where countries declare MPAs but fail to implement management plans, rendering these protections ineffective. The term critiques symbolic conservation efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report highlights that Latin America and the Caribbean have significant gaps between declared MPAs and their actual management. They are not global leaders in MPA enforcement. So, option (b) would be correct answer here as question is asking incorrect statements. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 is correct The 30×30 target is an international goal to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030. Currently, only 2.8% of oceans are effectively protected, as most Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) lack enforcement. “Blue-washing” describes the phenomenon where countries declare MPAs but fail to implement management plans, rendering these protections ineffective. The term critiques symbolic conservation efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report highlights that Latin America and the Caribbean have significant gaps between declared MPAs and their actual management. They are not global leaders in MPA enforcement. So, option (b) would be correct answer here as question is asking incorrect statements.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the report titled “On Track or Off Course? Assessing Progress Toward the 30×30 Target in the Ocean,” consider the following statements:

• The 30×30 target aims to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030, but only 2.8% of oceans currently have effective protection.

• The term “blue-washing” refers to the practice of designating large Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) on paper without effective management or enforcement.

• Latin America and the Caribbean are global leaders in meeting the 30×30 target, with extensive enforcement mechanisms in place.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• A. 1 and 2 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 & 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 is correct

• The 30×30 target is an international goal to protect 30% of the world’s oceans by 2030. Currently, only 2.8% of oceans are effectively protected, as most Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) lack enforcement.

• “Blue-washing” describes the phenomenon where countries declare MPAs but fail to implement management plans, rendering these protections ineffective. The term critiques symbolic conservation efforts.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The report highlights that Latin America and the Caribbean have significant gaps between declared MPAs and their actual management. They are not global leaders in MPA enforcement. So, option (b) would be correct answer here as question is asking incorrect statements.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 is correct

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the challenges posed by a declining young population in Southern India, consider the following statements: A shrinking workforce in Southern states could increase the dependency ratio and lead to higher social security and healthcare costs. Slower population growth may lead to a reduction in political representation in Parliament for Southern states after delimitation. Declining fertility rates in Southern states have led to a surplus of young workers, reducing the need for internal migration from Northern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 is correct here. A declining young population leads to a higher dependency ratio, as there are fewer working-age people to support the aging population, increasing the burden on healthcare and social security systems. Slower population growth in Southern states could indeed result in reduced political representation in Parliament, as future delimitation may allocate more seats to populous Northern states. Statement 3 is incorrect. Declining fertility rates have not resulted in a surplus of young workers. Instead, Southern states face a labour shortage and increasingly rely on internal migration from the North to balance their workforce. Incorrect Answer: A. Explanation: Only statement 1 and 2 is correct here. A declining young population leads to a higher dependency ratio, as there are fewer working-age people to support the aging population, increasing the burden on healthcare and social security systems. Slower population growth in Southern states could indeed result in reduced political representation in Parliament, as future delimitation may allocate more seats to populous Northern states. Statement 3 is incorrect. Declining fertility rates have not resulted in a surplus of young workers. Instead, Southern states face a labour shortage and increasingly rely on internal migration from the North to balance their workforce.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the challenges posed by a declining young population in Southern India, consider the following statements:

• A shrinking workforce in Southern states could increase the dependency ratio and lead to higher social security and healthcare costs.

• Slower population growth may lead to a reduction in political representation in Parliament for Southern states after delimitation.

• Declining fertility rates in Southern states have led to a surplus of young workers, reducing the need for internal migration from Northern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A. 1 and 2 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Only statement 1 and 2 is correct here.

• A declining young population leads to a higher dependency ratio, as there are fewer working-age people to support the aging population, increasing the burden on healthcare and social security systems.

• Slower population growth in Southern states could indeed result in reduced political representation in Parliament, as future delimitation may allocate more seats to populous Northern states.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Declining fertility rates have not resulted in a surplus of young workers. Instead, Southern states face a labour shortage and increasingly rely on internal migration from the North to balance their workforce.

Answer: A.

Explanation:

Only statement 1 and 2 is correct here.

• Slower population growth in Southern states could indeed result in reduced political representation in Parliament, as future delimitation may allocate more seats to populous Northern states.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the European Space Agency’s Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS), consider the following statements: The Moonlight programme will deploy a constellation of around five satellites to provide high-speed communication and navigation support on the Moon. The initial services of Moonlight are expected to begin by the end of 2028, with full operational capabilities anticipated by 2030. The programme focuses primarily on the Moon’s equatorial regions, avoiding areas like the South Pole due to extreme conditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 only is correct. The Moonlight programme involves launching a constellation of approximately five satellites to facilitate communication and navigation services for future lunar missions. The programme will begin initial services by 2028, with the full system expected to be operational by 2030, providing critical support for lunar exploration. The Moonlight programme focuses on the Moon’s South Pole, an area of interest due to unique lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice, rather than avoiding it. So, statement 3 is incorrect here. Incorrect Answer: B. Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 only is correct. The Moonlight programme involves launching a constellation of approximately five satellites to facilitate communication and navigation services for future lunar missions. The programme will begin initial services by 2028, with the full system expected to be operational by 2030, providing critical support for lunar exploration. The Moonlight programme focuses on the Moon’s South Pole, an area of interest due to unique lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice, rather than avoiding it. So, statement 3 is incorrect here.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the European Space Agency’s Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS), consider the following statements:

• The Moonlight programme will deploy a constellation of around five satellites to provide high-speed communication and navigation support on the Moon.

• The initial services of Moonlight are expected to begin by the end of 2028, with full operational capabilities anticipated by 2030.

• The programme focuses primarily on the Moon’s equatorial regions, avoiding areas like the South Pole due to extreme conditions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• B. 1 and 2 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B.

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 only is correct.

• The Moonlight programme involves launching a constellation of approximately five satellites to facilitate communication and navigation services for future lunar missions.

• The programme will begin initial services by 2028, with the full system expected to be operational by 2030, providing critical support for lunar exploration.

• The Moonlight programme focuses on the Moon’s South Pole, an area of interest due to unique lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice, rather than avoiding it. So, statement 3 is incorrect here.

Answer: B.

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 only is correct.

• The Moonlight programme involves launching a constellation of approximately five satellites to facilitate communication and navigation services for future lunar missions.

• The programme will begin initial services by 2028, with the full system expected to be operational by 2030, providing critical support for lunar exploration.

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