UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 2 May 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been monitored by the Supreme Court. Deemed forests refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records. Deemed forests comprise about one fourth of India’s forest land. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: In compliance with a Supreme Court order (in Feb 2024), the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) uploaded the various State Expert Committee (SEC) reports on the status of unclassed forests. The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the Godavarman case judgment in 1996. While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980. Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/indias-forests-in-peril-delays-and-data-gaps/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: In compliance with a Supreme Court order (in Feb 2024), the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) uploaded the various State Expert Committee (SEC) reports on the status of unclassed forests. The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the Godavarman case judgment in 1996. While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980. Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/indias-forests-in-peril-delays-and-data-gaps/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been monitored by the Supreme Court. Deemed forests refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records. Deemed forests comprise about one fourth of India’s forest land.

• Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been monitored by the Supreme Court.

• Deemed forests refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records.

• Deemed forests comprise about one fourth of India’s forest land.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: In compliance with a Supreme Court order (in Feb 2024), the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) uploaded the various State Expert Committee (SEC) reports on the status of unclassed forests. The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023.

• The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023.

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the Godavarman case judgment in 1996.

• While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980.

• Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/indias-forests-in-peril-delays-and-data-gaps/

Explanation:

• Context: In compliance with a Supreme Court order (in Feb 2024), the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) uploaded the various State Expert Committee (SEC) reports on the status of unclassed forests. The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023.

• The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023.

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the Godavarman case judgment in 1996.

• While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980.

• Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/indias-forests-in-peril-delays-and-data-gaps/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs[River: Origin]: Narmada River: Amarkantak Hill Tapi River: Satpura Range Cauvery River: Brahmagiri Range How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Narmada River System The Narmada is a river located in central India. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state. It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west. The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat. The Tapi River System It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west. It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state. It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea. The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state. The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well. The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River. The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in Coorg District of Karnataka in Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/baseflow-in-rivers/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Narmada River System The Narmada is a river located in central India. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state. It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west. The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat. The Tapi River System It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west. It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state. It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea. The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state. The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well. The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River. The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in Coorg District of Karnataka in Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/baseflow-in-rivers/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs[River: Origin]:

• Narmada River: Amarkantak Hill Tapi River: Satpura Range Cauvery River: Brahmagiri Range

• Narmada River: Amarkantak Hill

• Tapi River: Satpura Range

• Cauvery River: Brahmagiri Range

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The Narmada River System The Narmada is a river located in central India. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state. It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west. The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat.

• The Narmada is a river located in central India.

• It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state.

• It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India.

• It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west.

• The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.

• It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat.

• The Tapi River System It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west. It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state. It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea. The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state. The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well. The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River.

• It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west.

• It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state.

• It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea.

• The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state.

• The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well.

• The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River.

• The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in Coorg District of Karnataka in Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/baseflow-in-rivers/

Explanation:

• The Narmada River System The Narmada is a river located in central India. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state. It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west. The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat.

• The Narmada is a river located in central India.

• It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state.

• It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India.

• It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west.

• The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.

• It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat.

• The Tapi River System It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west. It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state. It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea. The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state. The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well. The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River.

• It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India with the run from east to west.

• It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state.

• It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea.

• The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern districts of Maharashtra state.

• The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat as well.

• The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River, Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River.

• The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in Coorg District of Karnataka in Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/baseflow-in-rivers/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: NSE NOW ONICRA BSE Bolt SMERA NCDEX How many of the above Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are operating in India? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31. What are ETPs? Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically. In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange) There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/rbis-direction-for-electronic-trading-platforms-etps/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31. What are ETPs? Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically. In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange) There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/rbis-direction-for-electronic-trading-platforms-etps/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following:

• NSE NOW ONICRA BSE Bolt SMERA NCDEX

How many of the above Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are operating in India?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Explanation:

• Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.

• What are ETPs? Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically. In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)

• Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically.

• In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)

• There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/rbis-direction-for-electronic-trading-platforms-etps/

Explanation:

• Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.

• What are ETPs? Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically. In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)

• Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically.

• In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)

• There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/rbis-direction-for-electronic-trading-platforms-etps/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’. The ‘Navratna status’ is given by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Context: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance) IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987. This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/ireda-get-navratna-status/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Context: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance) IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987. This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/ireda-get-navratna-status/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’. The ‘Navratna status’ is given by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

• Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’.

• The ‘Navratna status’ is given by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

• IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Context: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance)

• IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987.

• This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/ireda-get-navratna-status/

Explanation:

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Context: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance)

• IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987.

• This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/ireda-get-navratna-status/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: G-Secs are issued only by the Central Government of India. G-Secs are primarily used as a tool for financing state government projects. G-Secs in India are always issued in the form of equity shares. G-Secs are considered risk-free investments because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the Indian government. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 4 is correct. Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) limits for investment in various securities will remain unchanged for the current fiscal year. G-Secs, or Government Securities, are tradable instruments issued by governments through auctions conducted by the RBI. They come in two types: short-term, known as treasury bills, with maturities of less than one year, and long-term, known as Government bonds or dated securities, with maturities of one year or more. The Central Government can issue both treasury bills and government bonds, while State Governments issue only government bonds, also known as State Development Loans (SDLs). S2 is incorrect because although government securities can be used for financing various government projects, they are not primarily used for state government projects. S3 is incorrect because government securities are not issued in the form of equity shares; Government bonds are debt instruments that the country’s government issues to raise capital from the general public. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 4 is correct. Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) limits for investment in various securities will remain unchanged for the current fiscal year. G-Secs, or Government Securities, are tradable instruments issued by governments through auctions conducted by the RBI. They come in two types: short-term, known as treasury bills, with maturities of less than one year, and long-term, known as Government bonds or dated securities, with maturities of one year or more. The Central Government can issue both treasury bills and government bonds, while State Governments issue only government bonds, also known as State Development Loans (SDLs). S2 is incorrect because although government securities can be used for financing various government projects, they are not primarily used for state government projects. S3 is incorrect because government securities are not issued in the form of equity shares; Government bonds are debt instruments that the country’s government issues to raise capital from the general public. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• G-Secs are issued only by the Central Government of India. G-Secs are primarily used as a tool for financing state government projects. G-Secs in India are always issued in the form of equity shares. G-Secs are considered risk-free investments because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the Indian government.

• G-Secs are issued only by the Central Government of India.

• G-Secs are primarily used as a tool for financing state government projects.

• G-Secs in India are always issued in the form of equity shares.

• G-Secs are considered risk-free investments because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the Indian government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Only statement 4 is correct.

• Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) limits for investment in various securities will remain unchanged for the current fiscal year.

• G-Secs, or Government Securities, are tradable instruments issued by governments through auctions conducted by the RBI. They come in two types: short-term, known as treasury bills, with maturities of less than one year, and long-term, known as Government bonds or dated securities, with maturities of one year or more. The Central Government can issue both treasury bills and government bonds, while State Governments issue only government bonds, also known as State Development Loans (SDLs).

• S2 is incorrect because although government securities can be used for financing various government projects, they are not primarily used for state government projects.

• S3 is incorrect because government securities are not issued in the form of equity shares; Government bonds are debt instruments that the country’s government issues to raise capital from the general public.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

Explanation:

• Only statement 4 is correct.

• Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) limits for investment in various securities will remain unchanged for the current fiscal year.

• G-Secs, or Government Securities, are tradable instruments issued by governments through auctions conducted by the RBI. They come in two types: short-term, known as treasury bills, with maturities of less than one year, and long-term, known as Government bonds or dated securities, with maturities of one year or more. The Central Government can issue both treasury bills and government bonds, while State Governments issue only government bonds, also known as State Development Loans (SDLs).

• S2 is incorrect because although government securities can be used for financing various government projects, they are not primarily used for state government projects.

• S3 is incorrect because government securities are not issued in the form of equity shares; Government bonds are debt instruments that the country’s government issues to raise capital from the general public.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the key differences between Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), consider the following statements: FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, while FPI typically involves buying securities such as stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FDI contributes to economic growth through the transfer of technology and skills, while FPI primarily serves to diversify investment portfolios. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1:FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, allowing the investor to have control over management decisions and operations. In contrast, FPI entails purchasing securities like stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FPI investors are not involved in the day-to-day management of the companies they invest in. S2: FDI can indeed contribute to economic growth by bringing in capital, technology, and expertise, which can stimulate local industries and create employment opportunities. FPI, on the other hand, primarily serves the purpose of diversifying investment portfolios and generating returns for investors. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1:FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, allowing the investor to have control over management decisions and operations. In contrast, FPI entails purchasing securities like stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FPI investors are not involved in the day-to-day management of the companies they invest in. S2: FDI can indeed contribute to economic growth by bringing in capital, technology, and expertise, which can stimulate local industries and create employment opportunities. FPI, on the other hand, primarily serves the purpose of diversifying investment portfolios and generating returns for investors. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

#### 6. Question

With reference to the key differences between Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), consider the following statements:

• FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, while FPI typically involves buying securities such as stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FDI contributes to economic growth through the transfer of technology and skills, while FPI primarily serves to diversify investment portfolios.

• FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, while FPI typically involves buying securities such as stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control.

• FDI contributes to economic growth through the transfer of technology and skills, while FPI primarily serves to diversify investment portfolios.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1:FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, allowing the investor to have control over management decisions and operations. In contrast, FPI entails purchasing securities like stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FPI investors are not involved in the day-to-day management of the companies they invest in.

• S2: FDI can indeed contribute to economic growth by bringing in capital, technology, and expertise, which can stimulate local industries and create employment opportunities. FPI, on the other hand, primarily serves the purpose of diversifying investment portfolios and generating returns for investors.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

Explanation:

• S1:FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, allowing the investor to have control over management decisions and operations. In contrast, FPI entails purchasing securities like stocks and bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FPI investors are not involved in the day-to-day management of the companies they invest in.

• S2: FDI can indeed contribute to economic growth by bringing in capital, technology, and expertise, which can stimulate local industries and create employment opportunities. FPI, on the other hand, primarily serves the purpose of diversifying investment portfolios and generating returns for investors.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following markets: Government Bond Market Call Money Market Treasury Bill Market Stock Market How many of the above are included in money markets? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Money market instruments are short-term financing instruments aiming to increase the financial liquidity of businesses The main characteristic of money market instruments is that they can be easily converted to cash, thereby preserving an investor’s cash requirements. The list of money market instruments traded in the money market are- call/notice money market The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days. Certificate of Deposit Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former. Commercial Paper This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation. The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market. Treasury Bills These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations. These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity. Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors. Repurchase Agreements Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future. Repurchase agreements generally involve the trading of government securities. They are subject to market interest rates and are backed by the government. Banker’s Acceptance One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Money market instruments are short-term financing instruments aiming to increase the financial liquidity of businesses The main characteristic of money market instruments is that they can be easily converted to cash, thereby preserving an investor’s cash requirements. The list of money market instruments traded in the money market are- call/notice money market The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days. Certificate of Deposit Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former. Commercial Paper This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation. The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market. Treasury Bills These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations. These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity. Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors. Repurchase Agreements Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future. Repurchase agreements generally involve the trading of government securities. They are subject to market interest rates and are backed by the government. Banker’s Acceptance One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following markets:

• Government Bond Market Call Money Market Treasury Bill Market Stock Market

• Government Bond Market

• Call Money Market

• Treasury Bill Market

• Stock Market

How many of the above are included in money markets?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Money market instruments are short-term financing instruments aiming to increase the financial liquidity of businesses

• The main characteristic of money market instruments is that they can be easily converted to cash, thereby preserving an investor’s cash requirements.

• The list of money market instruments traded in the money market are-

• call/notice money market The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.

• The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.

• Certificate of Deposit Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former.

• Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former.

• Commercial Paper This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation. The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market.

• This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation.

• The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market.

• Treasury Bills These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations. These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity. Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors.

• These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations.

• These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity.

• Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors.

• Repurchase Agreements Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future.

• Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future.

• Repurchase agreements generally involve the trading of government securities. They are subject to market interest rates and are backed by the government.

• Banker’s Acceptance One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future.

• One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

Explanation:

• Money market instruments are short-term financing instruments aiming to increase the financial liquidity of businesses

• The main characteristic of money market instruments is that they can be easily converted to cash, thereby preserving an investor’s cash requirements.

• The list of money market instruments traded in the money market are-

• call/notice money market The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.

• The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.

• Certificate of Deposit Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former.

• Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the former.

• Commercial Paper This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation. The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market.

• This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap companies with renowned market reputation.

• The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market.

• Treasury Bills These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations. These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity. Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors.

• These are only issued by the central government of a country when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations.

• These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity.

• Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool for risk-averse investors.

• Repurchase Agreements Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future.

• Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay (repurchase) it in the future.

• Repurchase agreements generally involve the trading of government securities. They are subject to market interest rates and are backed by the government.

• Banker’s Acceptance One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future.

• One of the most common money market instruments traded in the financial sector, a banker’s acceptance signifies a loan extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of repayment in the future.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What is ‘K2-18b’, sometimes mentioned in the news? (a) Electric Missile (b) Solar powered satellite (c) Exoplanet (d) Water technology Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The James Webb Space Telescope is gearing up for a significant mission targeting K2-18b, a distant planet with potential for extra-terrestrial life. Scientists are focusing on detecting dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its atmosphere, a gas primarily produced by life on Earth. Preliminary data suggests a high probability of DMS presence. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The James Webb Space Telescope is gearing up for a significant mission targeting K2-18b, a distant planet with potential for extra-terrestrial life. Scientists are focusing on detecting dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its atmosphere, a gas primarily produced by life on Earth. Preliminary data suggests a high probability of DMS presence. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

#### 8. Question

What is ‘K2-18b’, sometimes mentioned in the news?

• (a) Electric Missile

• (b) Solar powered satellite

• (c) Exoplanet

• (d) Water technology

Explanation:

• Context: The James Webb Space Telescope is gearing up for a significant mission targeting K2-18b, a distant planet with potential for extra-terrestrial life.

• Scientists are focusing on detecting dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its atmosphere, a gas primarily produced by life on Earth. Preliminary data suggests a high probability of DMS presence.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

Explanation:

• Context: The James Webb Space Telescope is gearing up for a significant mission targeting K2-18b, a distant planet with potential for extra-terrestrial life.

• Scientists are focusing on detecting dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its atmosphere, a gas primarily produced by life on Earth. Preliminary data suggests a high probability of DMS presence.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about James Webb Space Telescope: JWST is primarily designed to study Earth’s atmosphere. JWST operates in low Earth orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: About James Webb Space Telescope: Collaboration between NASA, ESA, and the Canadian Space Agency. Launched in December 2021. Currently positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, around 1.5 million km from Earth’s orbit. Largest and most powerful infrared space telescope. Objectives: To explore cosmic history from the Big Bang to the evolution of galaxies, stars, planets, and our Solar System. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: About James Webb Space Telescope: Collaboration between NASA, ESA, and the Canadian Space Agency. Launched in December 2021. Currently positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, around 1.5 million km from Earth’s orbit. Largest and most powerful infrared space telescope. Objectives: To explore cosmic history from the Big Bang to the evolution of galaxies, stars, planets, and our Solar System. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about James Webb Space Telescope:

• JWST is primarily designed to study Earth’s atmosphere. JWST operates in low Earth orbit.

• JWST is primarily designed to study Earth’s atmosphere.

• JWST operates in low Earth orbit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: About James Webb Space Telescope:

• Collaboration between NASA, ESA, and the Canadian Space Agency.

• Launched in December 2021.

• Currently positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, around 1.5 million km from Earth’s orbit.

• Largest and most powerful infrared space telescope.

• Objectives: To explore cosmic history from the Big Bang to the evolution of galaxies, stars, planets, and our Solar System.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

Explanation: About James Webb Space Telescope:

• Collaboration between NASA, ESA, and the Canadian Space Agency.

• Launched in December 2021.

• Currently positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, around 1.5 million km from Earth’s orbit.

• Largest and most powerful infrared space telescope.

• Objectives: To explore cosmic history from the Big Bang to the evolution of galaxies, stars, planets, and our Solar System.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-dms/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. More than 36% of India’s forest cover is estimated to be prone to frequent forest fires. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Large Forest fires are raging with forest fires across Uttarakhand. Nearly a hundred hectares of forest have been destroyed, exacerbated by dry conditions from the prevailing heatwave. In some regions of Uttarakhand, fires were doused with the help of a Bambi bucket, a specialised aerial fire-fighting tool used to pour water in targeted areas. Uttarakhand faces frequent forest fires due to adverse climate conditions like heatwaves and dry spells, exacerbated by the presence of dry pine needles and human activities like burning forests for fresh grass and carelessly discarding cigarette butts. The ISFR 2021 estimates that more than 36% of the country’s forest cover is prone to frequent forest fires. To address forest fires, initiatives like the National Action Plan on Forest Fires 2018, State of Forest Report 2021 and the Forest Survey of India’s Van Agni Geo-portal have been implemented. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. Preventive measures include the construction of watch towers for early detection, the involvement of local communities, and the creation and maintenance of fire lines. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/forest-fire-in-uttarakhand/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Large Forest fires are raging with forest fires across Uttarakhand. Nearly a hundred hectares of forest have been destroyed, exacerbated by dry conditions from the prevailing heatwave. In some regions of Uttarakhand, fires were doused with the help of a Bambi bucket, a specialised aerial fire-fighting tool used to pour water in targeted areas. Uttarakhand faces frequent forest fires due to adverse climate conditions like heatwaves and dry spells, exacerbated by the presence of dry pine needles and human activities like burning forests for fresh grass and carelessly discarding cigarette butts. The ISFR 2021 estimates that more than 36% of the country’s forest cover is prone to frequent forest fires. To address forest fires, initiatives like the National Action Plan on Forest Fires 2018, State of Forest Report 2021 and the Forest Survey of India’s Van Agni Geo-portal have been implemented. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. Preventive measures include the construction of watch towers for early detection, the involvement of local communities, and the creation and maintenance of fire lines. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/forest-fire-in-uttarakhand/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. More than 36% of India’s forest cover is estimated to be prone to frequent forest fires.

• The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries.

• More than 36% of India’s forest cover is estimated to be prone to frequent forest fires.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Large Forest fires are raging with forest fires across Uttarakhand. Nearly a hundred hectares of forest have been destroyed, exacerbated by dry conditions from the prevailing heatwave.

• In some regions of Uttarakhand, fires were doused with the help of a Bambi bucket, a specialised aerial fire-fighting tool used to pour water in targeted areas.

• Uttarakhand faces frequent forest fires due to adverse climate conditions like heatwaves and dry spells, exacerbated by the presence of dry pine needles and human activities like burning forests for fresh grass and carelessly discarding cigarette butts.

• The ISFR 2021 estimates that more than 36% of the country’s forest cover is prone to frequent forest fires.

• To address forest fires, initiatives like the National Action Plan on Forest Fires 2018, State of Forest Report 2021 and the Forest Survey of India’s Van Agni Geo-portal have been implemented. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. Preventive measures include the construction of watch towers for early detection, the involvement of local communities, and the creation and maintenance of fire lines.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/forest-fire-in-uttarakhand/

Explanation:

• Context: Large Forest fires are raging with forest fires across Uttarakhand. Nearly a hundred hectares of forest have been destroyed, exacerbated by dry conditions from the prevailing heatwave.

• In some regions of Uttarakhand, fires were doused with the help of a Bambi bucket, a specialised aerial fire-fighting tool used to pour water in targeted areas.

• Uttarakhand faces frequent forest fires due to adverse climate conditions like heatwaves and dry spells, exacerbated by the presence of dry pine needles and human activities like burning forests for fresh grass and carelessly discarding cigarette butts.

• The ISFR 2021 estimates that more than 36% of the country’s forest cover is prone to frequent forest fires.

• To address forest fires, initiatives like the National Action Plan on Forest Fires 2018, State of Forest Report 2021 and the Forest Survey of India’s Van Agni Geo-portal have been implemented. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. Preventive measures include the construction of watch towers for early detection, the involvement of local communities, and the creation and maintenance of fire lines.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/forest-fire-in-uttarakhand/

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