UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 2 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Peacekeeping: The three core principles guiding UN Peacekeeping are consent of the parties, impartiality, and the mandatory use of offensive force to achieve peace. The UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO) is responsible for providing political and executive direction to UN peacekeeping missions. Funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is primarily sourced from voluntary contributions made by philanthropic organizations. The UN Security Council resolutions that mandate peacekeeping operations typically provide detailed budgetary allocations for each mission. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The three core principles of UN Peacekeeping are: consent of the parties, impartiality, and non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate. Mandatory use of offensive force is not a core principle; force is primarily for defensive purposes. Statement 2 is correct. The UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO) is dedicated to assisting Member States and the Secretary-General in maintaining international peace and security by providing political and executive direction to UN peacekeeping operations Statement 3 is incorrect. Funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is primarily through assessed contributions from UN Member States, as approved by the UN General Assembly. While trust funds may receive voluntary contributions for specific aspects, the core funding is not primarily from philanthropic organizations. Statement 4 is incorrect. While UN Security Council resolutions mandate peacekeeping operations and set troop targets and operational expectations, they do not typically provide detailed budgetary allocations. The DPO determines the financial requirements based on the mandate, and the budget is then considered and approved by the General Assembly. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The three core principles of UN Peacekeeping are: consent of the parties, impartiality, and non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate. Mandatory use of offensive force is not a core principle; force is primarily for defensive purposes. Statement 2 is correct. The UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO) is dedicated to assisting Member States and the Secretary-General in maintaining international peace and security by providing political and executive direction to UN peacekeeping operations Statement 3 is incorrect. Funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is primarily through assessed contributions from UN Member States, as approved by the UN General Assembly. While trust funds may receive voluntary contributions for specific aspects, the core funding is not primarily from philanthropic organizations. Statement 4 is incorrect. While UN Security Council resolutions mandate peacekeeping operations and set troop targets and operational expectations, they do not typically provide detailed budgetary allocations. The DPO determines the financial requirements based on the mandate, and the budget is then considered and approved by the General Assembly.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Peacekeeping:

• The three core principles guiding UN Peacekeeping are consent of the parties, impartiality, and the mandatory use of offensive force to achieve peace.

• The UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO) is responsible for providing political and executive direction to UN peacekeeping missions.

• Funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is primarily sourced from voluntary contributions made by philanthropic organizations.

• The UN Security Council resolutions that mandate peacekeeping operations typically provide detailed budgetary allocations for each mission.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The three core principles of UN Peacekeeping are: consent of the parties, impartiality, and non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate. Mandatory use of offensive force is not a core principle; force is primarily for defensive purposes.

• Statement 2 is correct. The UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO) is dedicated to assisting Member States and the Secretary-General in maintaining international peace and security by providing political and executive direction to UN peacekeeping operations

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is primarily through assessed contributions from UN Member States, as approved by the UN General Assembly. While trust funds may receive voluntary contributions for specific aspects, the core funding is not primarily from philanthropic organizations.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While UN Security Council resolutions mandate peacekeeping operations and set troop targets and operational expectations, they do not typically provide detailed budgetary allocations. The DPO determines the financial requirements based on the mandate, and the budget is then considered and approved by the General Assembly.

Solution: a)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA), 2010: The Act establishes a ‘fault-based’ liability regime, meaning the operator of a nuclear installation is held liable for damages only if negligence is proven. The Act provides the operator with a ‘right of recourse’ against suppliers only if there is an explicit contractual provision to that effect, signed prior to the nuclear incident. The total compensation cap in the event of a nuclear incident is fixed at ₹1,500 crore, to be borne entirely by the operator through mandatory insurance or financial security. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The CLNDA, 2010 establishes a ‘no-fault’ liability regime (also known as strict liability) for the operator of a nuclear installation. This means the operator is held liable for nuclear damage irrespective of any fault or negligence on their part. This is a key principle of the Act, aligning with international conventions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act grants the operator a statutory ‘right of recourse’ against the supplier under specific conditions, such as if the nuclear incident resulted from an act of the supplier or its employee, which includes the supply of equipment or services with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services. While contracts can specify such rights, the Act itself provides a basis for recourse even without an explicit prior contractual clause, provided the conditions in Section 17 of the Act are met. The ambiguity around supplier liability has been a point of contention. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the operator’s liability is capped at ₹1,500 crore (or a lower amount for smaller reactors, to be covered by insurance or financial security), this is not the total compensation cap. If the damage exceeds this amount, the Central Government may provide additional funds up to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). This currently translates to a significantly higher amount (around ₹2,100–₹2,300 crore or more, depending on SDR valuation), making the total potential compensation much larger than just the operator’s liability. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The CLNDA, 2010 establishes a ‘no-fault’ liability regime (also known as strict liability) for the operator of a nuclear installation. This means the operator is held liable for nuclear damage irrespective of any fault or negligence on their part. This is a key principle of the Act, aligning with international conventions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act grants the operator a statutory ‘right of recourse’ against the supplier under specific conditions, such as if the nuclear incident resulted from an act of the supplier or its employee, which includes the supply of equipment or services with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services. While contracts can specify such rights, the Act itself provides a basis for recourse even without an explicit prior contractual clause, provided the conditions in Section 17 of the Act are met. The ambiguity around supplier liability has been a point of contention. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the operator’s liability is capped at ₹1,500 crore (or a lower amount for smaller reactors, to be covered by insurance or financial security), this is not the total compensation cap. If the damage exceeds this amount, the Central Government may provide additional funds up to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). This currently translates to a significantly higher amount (around ₹2,100–₹2,300 crore or more, depending on SDR valuation), making the total potential compensation much larger than just the operator’s liability.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA), 2010:

• The Act establishes a ‘fault-based’ liability regime, meaning the operator of a nuclear installation is held liable for damages only if negligence is proven.

• The Act provides the operator with a ‘right of recourse’ against suppliers only if there is an explicit contractual provision to that effect, signed prior to the nuclear incident.

• The total compensation cap in the event of a nuclear incident is fixed at ₹1,500 crore, to be borne entirely by the operator through mandatory insurance or financial security.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The CLNDA, 2010 establishes a ‘no-fault’ liability regime (also known as strict liability) for the operator of a nuclear installation. This means the operator is held liable for nuclear damage irrespective of any fault or negligence on their part. This is a key principle of the Act, aligning with international conventions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act grants the operator a statutory ‘right of recourse’ against the supplier under specific conditions, such as if the nuclear incident resulted from an act of the supplier or its employee, which includes the supply of equipment or services with patent or latent defects or sub-standard services. While contracts can specify such rights, the Act itself provides a basis for recourse even without an explicit prior contractual clause, provided the conditions in Section 17 of the Act are met. The ambiguity around supplier liability has been a point of contention.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the operator’s liability is capped at ₹1,500 crore (or a lower amount for smaller reactors, to be covered by insurance or financial security), this is not the total compensation cap. If the damage exceeds this amount, the Central Government may provide additional funds up to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). This currently translates to a significantly higher amount (around ₹2,100–₹2,300 crore or more, depending on SDR valuation), making the total potential compensation much larger than just the operator’s liability.

Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the High-Altitude Platform (HAP) prototype developed in India: It is a conventionally fueled, manned aircraft designed for short-duration, high-altitude reconnaissance missions. The primary developing agency for this HAP is the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The full-scale version is designed to operate at altitudes up to 20 km and can carry payloads like 5G base stations for telecommunication relay. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The High-Altitude Platform (HAP) is a solar-powered, unmanned stratospheric aircraft. Its design emphasizes extended, high-endurance flight, not short-duration missions. Being solar-powered and unmanned are its defining characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. The HAP prototype was designed and developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, which is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). Statement 3 is correct. The full-scale version of India’s HAP is indeed designed to operate at stratospheric altitudes, typically around 18-20 km (approximately 65,000 ft). It is also envisioned to carry payloads such as radiosondes for meteorological measurements and 5G base stations to provide temporary or mobile telecommunication connectivity, especially in remote or disaster-hit areas. The payload capacity for the full-scale version is around 10 kg. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The High-Altitude Platform (HAP) is a solar-powered, unmanned stratospheric aircraft. Its design emphasizes extended, high-endurance flight, not short-duration missions. Being solar-powered and unmanned are its defining characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. The HAP prototype was designed and developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, which is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). Statement 3 is correct. The full-scale version of India’s HAP is indeed designed to operate at stratospheric altitudes, typically around 18-20 km (approximately 65,000 ft). It is also envisioned to carry payloads such as radiosondes for meteorological measurements and 5G base stations to provide temporary or mobile telecommunication connectivity, especially in remote or disaster-hit areas. The payload capacity for the full-scale version is around 10 kg.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the High-Altitude Platform (HAP) prototype developed in India:

• It is a conventionally fueled, manned aircraft designed for short-duration, high-altitude reconnaissance missions.

• The primary developing agency for this HAP is the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

• The full-scale version is designed to operate at altitudes up to 20 km and can carry payloads like 5G base stations for telecommunication relay.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The High-Altitude Platform (HAP) is a solar-powered, unmanned stratospheric aircraft. Its design emphasizes extended, high-endurance flight, not short-duration missions. Being solar-powered and unmanned are its defining characteristics.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The HAP prototype was designed and developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, which is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

• Statement 3 is correct. The full-scale version of India’s HAP is indeed designed to operate at stratospheric altitudes, typically around 18-20 km (approximately 65,000 ft). It is also envisioned to carry payloads such as radiosondes for meteorological measurements and 5G base stations to provide temporary or mobile telecommunication connectivity, especially in remote or disaster-hit areas. The payload capacity for the full-scale version is around 10 kg.

Solution: b)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following: International Telecommunication Union (ITU) United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS) India’s Satcom Policy The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 Which of the above play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure, including satellite-based systems? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: d) All four listed entities/frameworks play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure. International Telecommunication Union (ITU): This UN specialized agency is crucial for allocating satellite orbital slots and radio frequencies. India, as a member, adheres to ITU regulations for its communication and broadcasting satellites, which are part of its spatial infrastructure. United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS): COPUOS is the primary UN body for discussing and formulating international space law and policy. It promotes international cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space and develops principles and guidelines that influence national space activities, including those related to PNT systems. India is an active member. India’s Satcom Policy: Domestic policies like the Satcom Policy (and other evolving space/telecom regulations) provide the national legal and regulatory framework for satellite communications, licensing of satellite systems, use of spectrum, and involvement of private sector entities in space activities within India. The Outer Space Treaty of 1967: This foundational treaty of international space law, to which India is a signatory, establishes key principles such as the non-appropriation of outer space, freedom of exploration and use, and state responsibility for national space activities. It governs the activities of states in the exploration and use of outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, and is relevant to all satellite operations. Incorrect Solution: d) All four listed entities/frameworks play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure. International Telecommunication Union (ITU): This UN specialized agency is crucial for allocating satellite orbital slots and radio frequencies. India, as a member, adheres to ITU regulations for its communication and broadcasting satellites, which are part of its spatial infrastructure. United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS): COPUOS is the primary UN body for discussing and formulating international space law and policy. It promotes international cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space and develops principles and guidelines that influence national space activities, including those related to PNT systems. India is an active member. India’s Satcom Policy: Domestic policies like the Satcom Policy (and other evolving space/telecom regulations) provide the national legal and regulatory framework for satellite communications, licensing of satellite systems, use of spectrum, and involvement of private sector entities in space activities within India. The Outer Space Treaty of 1967: This foundational treaty of international space law, to which India is a signatory, establishes key principles such as the non-appropriation of outer space, freedom of exploration and use, and state responsibility for national space activities. It governs the activities of states in the exploration and use of outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, and is relevant to all satellite operations.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following:

• International Telecommunication Union (ITU)

• United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS)

• India’s Satcom Policy

• The Outer Space Treaty of 1967

Which of the above play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure, including satellite-based systems?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)

All four listed entities/frameworks play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure.

• International Telecommunication Union (ITU): This UN specialized agency is crucial for allocating satellite orbital slots and radio frequencies. India, as a member, adheres to ITU regulations for its communication and broadcasting satellites, which are part of its spatial infrastructure.

• United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS): COPUOS is the primary UN body for discussing and formulating international space law and policy. It promotes international cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space and develops principles and guidelines that influence national space activities, including those related to PNT systems. India is an active member.

• India’s Satcom Policy: Domestic policies like the Satcom Policy (and other evolving space/telecom regulations) provide the national legal and regulatory framework for satellite communications, licensing of satellite systems, use of spectrum, and involvement of private sector entities in space activities within India.

• The Outer Space Treaty of 1967: This foundational treaty of international space law, to which India is a signatory, establishes key principles such as the non-appropriation of outer space, freedom of exploration and use, and state responsibility for national space activities. It governs the activities of states in the exploration and use of outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, and is relevant to all satellite operations.

Solution: d)

All four listed entities/frameworks play a role in governing or regulating aspects of India’s spatial infrastructure.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Operation Olivia is primarily focused on preventing illegal fishing activities during the Olive Ridley turtle breeding season to ensure safe mass nesting along Odisha’s key beaches. Statement-II: Olive Ridley turtles are listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List, and their ‘Arribada’ phenomenon is unique to the Gahirmatha beach in India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. A primary objective of Operation Olivia, conducted by the Indian Coast Guard, is to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season (November to May). This involves preventing illegal fishing by trawlers in prohibited zones near nesting sites like Gahirmatha, Rushikulya, and Devi river mouths in Odisha, thereby ensuring safe passage and nesting for the turtles. Statement-II is incorrect. Firstly, Olive Ridley turtles ( Lepidochelys olivacea) are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Secondly, while Gahirmatha is a major and famous ‘Arribada’ (mass nesting) site, the phenomenon is not unique to Gahirmatha in India, nor globally. Other significant Arribada sites in India include the Rushikulya and Devi river mouths in Odisha. Globally, major Arribadas also occur on the Pacific coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. A primary objective of Operation Olivia, conducted by the Indian Coast Guard, is to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season (November to May). This involves preventing illegal fishing by trawlers in prohibited zones near nesting sites like Gahirmatha, Rushikulya, and Devi river mouths in Odisha, thereby ensuring safe passage and nesting for the turtles. Statement-II is incorrect. Firstly, Olive Ridley turtles ( Lepidochelys olivacea) are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Secondly, while Gahirmatha is a major and famous ‘Arribada’ (mass nesting) site, the phenomenon is not unique to Gahirmatha in India, nor globally. Other significant Arribada sites in India include the Rushikulya and Devi river mouths in Odisha. Globally, major Arribadas also occur on the Pacific coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Operation Olivia is primarily focused on preventing illegal fishing activities during the Olive Ridley turtle breeding season to ensure safe mass nesting along Odisha’s key beaches.

Statement-II: Olive Ridley turtles are listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List, and their ‘Arribada’ phenomenon is unique to the Gahirmatha beach in India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

• Statement-I is correct. A primary objective of Operation Olivia, conducted by the Indian Coast Guard, is to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season (November to May). This involves preventing illegal fishing by trawlers in prohibited zones near nesting sites like Gahirmatha, Rushikulya, and Devi river mouths in Odisha, thereby ensuring safe passage and nesting for the turtles.

• Statement-II is incorrect. Firstly, Olive Ridley turtles ( Lepidochelys olivacea) are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Secondly, while Gahirmatha is a major and famous ‘Arribada’ (mass nesting) site, the phenomenon is not unique to Gahirmatha in India, nor globally. Other significant Arribada sites in India include the Rushikulya and Devi river mouths in Odisha. Globally, major Arribadas also occur on the Pacific coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.

Solution: c)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kandha tribe: The Kandha (or Khond) tribe is exclusively found in the Kandhamal district of Odisha and all its sub-groups are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). They predominantly speak ‘Kui’ and ‘Kuvi’, which are languages belonging to the Indo-Aryan language family. The term “Kandha” is believed to be derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” meaning hill, reflecting their historical association with hilly and forested terrains. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe is the largest tribal community in Odisha and resides in several districts, including Kandhamal, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Koraput, not exclusively Kandhamal. While some sub-groups like the Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha are classified as PVTGs, not all Kandha sub-groups fall under this classification (e.g., Desia Kandha). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe predominantly speaks ‘Kui’ and ‘Kuvi’. However, these languages belong to the Dravidian language family, not the Indo-Aryan family. This linguistic affiliation is a significant characteristic of the tribe. Statement 3 is correct. The term “Kandha” is indeed widely believed to be derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” which means hill or mountain. This nomenclature reflects their traditional habitat as forest dwellers in the hilly regions of Odisha. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe is the largest tribal community in Odisha and resides in several districts, including Kandhamal, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Koraput, not exclusively Kandhamal. While some sub-groups like the Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha are classified as PVTGs, not all Kandha sub-groups fall under this classification (e.g., Desia Kandha). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe predominantly speaks ‘Kui’ and ‘Kuvi’. However, these languages belong to the Dravidian language family, not the Indo-Aryan family. This linguistic affiliation is a significant characteristic of the tribe. Statement 3 is correct. The term “Kandha” is indeed widely believed to be derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” which means hill or mountain. This nomenclature reflects their traditional habitat as forest dwellers in the hilly regions of Odisha.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kandha tribe:

• The Kandha (or Khond) tribe is exclusively found in the Kandhamal district of Odisha and all its sub-groups are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

• They predominantly speak ‘Kui’ and ‘Kuvi’, which are languages belonging to the Indo-Aryan language family.

• The term “Kandha” is believed to be derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” meaning hill, reflecting their historical association with hilly and forested terrains.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe is the largest tribal community in Odisha and resides in several districts, including Kandhamal, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Koraput, not exclusively Kandhamal. While some sub-groups like the Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha are classified as PVTGs, not all Kandha sub-groups fall under this classification (e.g., Desia Kandha).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kandha tribe predominantly speaks ‘Kui’ and ‘Kuvi’. However, these languages belong to the Dravidian language family, not the Indo-Aryan family. This linguistic affiliation is a significant characteristic of the tribe.

• Statement 3 is correct. The term “Kandha” is indeed widely believed to be derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” which means hill or mountain. This nomenclature reflects their traditional habitat as forest dwellers in the hilly regions of Odisha.

Solution: a)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, and private sector participation in nuclear energy in India, consider the following statements: The Act explicitly prohibits any form of private sector involvement in atomic energy activities, including mining of atomic minerals and operation of nuclear facilities. Under the Act, any discovery of uranium or thorium minerals must be immediately reported to the Central Government, and their disposal requires prior government authorization. The primary objective of the Act was to dismantle state monopoly over nuclear resources to encourage rapid private investment in nuclear power generation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, establishes strong Central Government control, it does not explicitly place an absolute prohibition on all forms of private sector involvement. It states that the Central Government has the sole authority to control atomic energy related activities, but it also allows for activities by licensed individuals or entities. The Act bars private players from engaging in atomic energy activities unless specifically permitted by the Central Government. Historically, only public sector entities like NPCIL have been authorized to own and operate nuclear facilities, but the Act itself contains provisions for licensing. Statement 2 is correct. The Act mandates that any discovery of uranium or thorium must be reported to the Central Government. Furthermore, mining, disposal, or possession of these prescribed substances (atomic minerals) requires prior authorization from the government. This underscores the state’s control over strategic nuclear resources. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objective of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, was to establish and ensure state monopoly and centralized control over nuclear resources, technology, and research. This was done to promote the peaceful use of atomic energy for national development and to safeguard national security and sovereignty, not to dismantle state monopoly or primarily encourage private investment at that time. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, establishes strong Central Government control, it does not explicitly place an absolute prohibition on all forms of private sector involvement. It states that the Central Government has the sole authority to control atomic energy related activities, but it also allows for activities by licensed individuals or entities. The Act bars private players from engaging in atomic energy activities unless specifically permitted by the Central Government. Historically, only public sector entities like NPCIL have been authorized to own and operate nuclear facilities, but the Act itself contains provisions for licensing. Statement 2 is correct. The Act mandates that any discovery of uranium or thorium must be reported to the Central Government. Furthermore, mining, disposal, or possession of these prescribed substances (atomic minerals) requires prior authorization from the government. This underscores the state’s control over strategic nuclear resources. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objective of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, was to establish and ensure state monopoly and centralized control over nuclear resources, technology, and research. This was done to promote the peaceful use of atomic energy for national development and to safeguard national security and sovereignty, not to dismantle state monopoly or primarily encourage private investment at that time.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, and private sector participation in nuclear energy in India, consider the following statements:

• The Act explicitly prohibits any form of private sector involvement in atomic energy activities, including mining of atomic minerals and operation of nuclear facilities.

• Under the Act, any discovery of uranium or thorium minerals must be immediately reported to the Central Government, and their disposal requires prior government authorization.

• The primary objective of the Act was to dismantle state monopoly over nuclear resources to encourage rapid private investment in nuclear power generation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, establishes strong Central Government control, it does not explicitly place an absolute prohibition on all forms of private sector involvement. It states that the Central Government has the sole authority to control atomic energy related activities, but it also allows for activities by licensed individuals or entities. The Act bars private players from engaging in atomic energy activities unless specifically permitted by the Central Government. Historically, only public sector entities like NPCIL have been authorized to own and operate nuclear facilities, but the Act itself contains provisions for licensing.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Act mandates that any discovery of uranium or thorium must be reported to the Central Government. Furthermore, mining, disposal, or possession of these prescribed substances (atomic minerals) requires prior authorization from the government. This underscores the state’s control over strategic nuclear resources.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary objective of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, was to establish and ensure state monopoly and centralized control over nuclear resources, technology, and research. This was done to promote the peaceful use of atomic energy for national development and to safeguard national security and sovereignty, not to dismantle state monopoly or primarily encourage private investment at that time.

Solution: a)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding atomisers and their applications: Atomisers invariably aim to produce the smallest possible droplet size, irrespective of the application, to maximize surface coverage. In agriculture, atomisers are primarily used for spraying pesticides and are generally unsuitable for precision irrigation due to high water loss through mist formation. The Relative Span Factor (RSF) of an atomiser indicates the range of spray angles it can achieve, with a higher RSF denoting greater versatility. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The desired droplet size produced by an atomiser depends heavily on the specific application. While very small droplets (aerosols) are needed for applications like inhalation therapy or creating atmospheric mists, larger droplets are preferred for surface coating to avoid drift and ensure proper deposition. Atomisers are customized for particle size, not invariably aimed at the smallest possible size. Statement 2 is incorrect. While atomisers are essential for spraying pesticides and fertilizers in agriculture, they are also increasingly used in precision irrigation systems, such as micro-sprinklers and foggers, especially in controlled environments like greenhouses or for high-value crops. These systems are designed for efficient water use, and while misting can lead to some evaporative loss, their precision can be beneficial in poor-soil areas or for specific plant needs, often leading to better water management than flood irrigation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Relative Span Factor (RSF) is a measure of the uniformity of the droplet size distribution produced by an atomiser. An RSF value closer to 1 indicates a more uniform spray with droplets of similar sizes. It does not indicate the range of spray angles. Spray angle is a separate characteristic of an atomiser’s design. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The desired droplet size produced by an atomiser depends heavily on the specific application. While very small droplets (aerosols) are needed for applications like inhalation therapy or creating atmospheric mists, larger droplets are preferred for surface coating to avoid drift and ensure proper deposition. Atomisers are customized for particle size, not invariably aimed at the smallest possible size. Statement 2 is incorrect. While atomisers are essential for spraying pesticides and fertilizers in agriculture, they are also increasingly used in precision irrigation systems, such as micro-sprinklers and foggers, especially in controlled environments like greenhouses or for high-value crops. These systems are designed for efficient water use, and while misting can lead to some evaporative loss, their precision can be beneficial in poor-soil areas or for specific plant needs, often leading to better water management than flood irrigation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Relative Span Factor (RSF) is a measure of the uniformity of the droplet size distribution produced by an atomiser. An RSF value closer to 1 indicates a more uniform spray with droplets of similar sizes. It does not indicate the range of spray angles. Spray angle is a separate characteristic of an atomiser’s design.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding atomisers and their applications:

• Atomisers invariably aim to produce the smallest possible droplet size, irrespective of the application, to maximize surface coverage.

• In agriculture, atomisers are primarily used for spraying pesticides and are generally unsuitable for precision irrigation due to high water loss through mist formation.

• The Relative Span Factor (RSF) of an atomiser indicates the range of spray angles it can achieve, with a higher RSF denoting greater versatility.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The desired droplet size produced by an atomiser depends heavily on the specific application. While very small droplets (aerosols) are needed for applications like inhalation therapy or creating atmospheric mists, larger droplets are preferred for surface coating to avoid drift and ensure proper deposition. Atomisers are customized for particle size, not invariably aimed at the smallest possible size.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While atomisers are essential for spraying pesticides and fertilizers in agriculture, they are also increasingly used in precision irrigation systems, such as micro-sprinklers and foggers, especially in controlled environments like greenhouses or for high-value crops. These systems are designed for efficient water use, and while misting can lead to some evaporative loss, their precision can be beneficial in poor-soil areas or for specific plant needs, often leading to better water management than flood irrigation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Relative Span Factor (RSF) is a measure of the uniformity of the droplet size distribution produced by an atomiser. An RSF value closer to 1 indicates a more uniform spray with droplets of similar sizes. It does not indicate the range of spray angles. Spray angle is a separate characteristic of an atomiser’s design.

Solution: d)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The development of super-fast charging sodium-ion batteries in India significantly enhances the nation’s self-reliance in energy storage by leveraging locally abundant sodium resources. Statement-II: Sodium-ion batteries inherently offer higher energy density and longer overall lifespan under all operating conditions compared to the most advanced lithium-ion battery technologies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Sodium is an abundant and inexpensive resource in India, unlike lithium, which is largely imported. Developing indigenous sodium-ion battery technology, especially one with features like super-fast charging and long cycle life, directly contributes to India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) initiative by reducing dependence on imported battery components and volatile global lithium supply chains. This has positive implications for energy security and geopolitical independence. Statement-II is incorrect. While sodium-ion batteries offer several advantages like cost, safety, and resource availability, they do not inherently offer higher energy density than the most advanced lithium-ion battery technologies. Lithium is a lighter element with higher standard electrode potential, which generally allows lithium-ion batteries to achieve higher energy density (more energy stored per unit weight or volume). Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Sodium is an abundant and inexpensive resource in India, unlike lithium, which is largely imported. Developing indigenous sodium-ion battery technology, especially one with features like super-fast charging and long cycle life, directly contributes to India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) initiative by reducing dependence on imported battery components and volatile global lithium supply chains. This has positive implications for energy security and geopolitical independence. Statement-II is incorrect. While sodium-ion batteries offer several advantages like cost, safety, and resource availability, they do not inherently offer higher energy density than the most advanced lithium-ion battery technologies. Lithium is a lighter element with higher standard electrode potential, which generally allows lithium-ion batteries to achieve higher energy density (more energy stored per unit weight or volume).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The development of super-fast charging sodium-ion batteries in India significantly enhances the nation’s self-reliance in energy storage by leveraging locally abundant sodium resources.

Statement-II: Sodium-ion batteries inherently offer higher energy density and longer overall lifespan under all operating conditions compared to the most advanced lithium-ion battery technologies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

• Statement-I is correct. Sodium is an abundant and inexpensive resource in India, unlike lithium, which is largely imported. Developing indigenous sodium-ion battery technology, especially one with features like super-fast charging and long cycle life, directly contributes to India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) initiative by reducing dependence on imported battery components and volatile global lithium supply chains. This has positive implications for energy security and geopolitical independence.

• Statement-II is incorrect. While sodium-ion batteries offer several advantages like cost, safety, and resource availability, they do not inherently offer higher energy density than the most advanced lithium-ion battery technologies. Lithium is a lighter element with higher standard electrode potential, which generally allows lithium-ion batteries to achieve higher energy density (more energy stored per unit weight or volume).

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Golden Temple (Sri Darbar Sahib): The foundation of the Golden Temple was laid by Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru. The land for the temple was acquired through grants from the Mughal emperor Akbar. Maharaja Ranjit Singh was responsible for the gold plating of the temple. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The foundation stone of the Golden Temple was laid by the Muslim saint Hazrat Mian Mir of Lahore, at the request of Guru Arjan Dev Ji. This act symbolized interfaith harmony. Guru Arjan Dev Ji was the architect and visionary who constructed the temple, which was completed in 1604. The foundation itself was laid in 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru, who also established the city of Amritsar. Statement 2 is incorrect. The land for the Golden Temple was bought from local landlords (zamindars) of the village of Tung. It was not a grant from Emperor Akbar, although Akbar is known to have had cordial relations with the Sikh Gurus. Statement 3 is correct. Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the leader of the Sikh Empire, was responsible for beautifying the temple with gold plating in the early 19th century, giving it the popular name “Golden Temple.” He also patronized other aspects of its art and architecture. What is the Golden Temple? The Golden Temple, or Sri Darbar Sahib, is the holiest Sikh shrine located in Amritsar, Punjab. It represents Sikhism’s core values of equality, humility, and service. Foundation Laid: 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru. Constructed by: Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Guru, completed in 1604. Land Acquisition: Land bought from local landlords (zamindars). Foundation Laid by: Hazrat Mian Mir, a Muslim saint from Lahore, showing interfaith harmony. Key Personalities Involved: Guru Arjan Dev Ji: Architect and visionary of the central Sikh shrine. Baba Budha Ji: First appointed granthi (reader of Guru Granth Sahib). Maharaja Ranjit Singh: Beautified the temple with golden plating in the 19th century. Architectural Features: Design: Built on a lower level to symbolize humility; has four entrances for universal access. Structure: Constructed on a 67 ft square platform in the Amrit Sarovar (holy pool). Materials: Features gold-covered domes and marble architecture with inlay work. Dome: Fluted, lotus-shaped with a “kalash” and canopy on top. Langar (Community Kitchen): Serves free meals to over 1 lakh people daily, upholding Sikh values of equality. Historical Significance: Repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century. Operation Blue Star (1984): Military action to remove militants caused major damage and public unrest. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The foundation stone of the Golden Temple was laid by the Muslim saint Hazrat Mian Mir of Lahore, at the request of Guru Arjan Dev Ji. This act symbolized interfaith harmony. Guru Arjan Dev Ji was the architect and visionary who constructed the temple, which was completed in 1604. The foundation itself was laid in 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru, who also established the city of Amritsar. Statement 2 is incorrect. The land for the Golden Temple was bought from local landlords (zamindars) of the village of Tung. It was not a grant from Emperor Akbar, although Akbar is known to have had cordial relations with the Sikh Gurus. Statement 3 is correct. Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the leader of the Sikh Empire, was responsible for beautifying the temple with gold plating in the early 19th century, giving it the popular name “Golden Temple.” He also patronized other aspects of its art and architecture. What is the Golden Temple? The Golden Temple, or Sri Darbar Sahib, is the holiest Sikh shrine located in Amritsar, Punjab. It represents Sikhism’s core values of equality, humility, and service. Foundation Laid: 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru. Constructed by: Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Guru, completed in 1604. Land Acquisition: Land bought from local landlords (zamindars). Foundation Laid by: Hazrat Mian Mir, a Muslim saint from Lahore, showing interfaith harmony. Key Personalities Involved: Guru Arjan Dev Ji: Architect and visionary of the central Sikh shrine. Baba Budha Ji: First appointed granthi (reader of Guru Granth Sahib). Maharaja Ranjit Singh: Beautified the temple with golden plating in the 19th century. Architectural Features: Design: Built on a lower level to symbolize humility; has four entrances for universal access. Structure: Constructed on a 67 ft square platform in the Amrit Sarovar (holy pool). Materials: Features gold-covered domes and marble architecture with inlay work. Dome: Fluted, lotus-shaped with a “kalash” and canopy on top. Langar (Community Kitchen): Serves free meals to over 1 lakh people daily, upholding Sikh values of equality. Historical Significance: Repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century. Operation Blue Star (1984): Military action to remove militants caused major damage and public unrest.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Golden Temple (Sri Darbar Sahib):

• The foundation of the Golden Temple was laid by Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru.

• The land for the temple was acquired through grants from the Mughal emperor Akbar.

• Maharaja Ranjit Singh was responsible for the gold plating of the temple.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The foundation stone of the Golden Temple was laid by the Muslim saint Hazrat Mian Mir of Lahore, at the request of Guru Arjan Dev Ji. This act symbolized interfaith harmony. Guru Arjan Dev Ji was the architect and visionary who constructed the temple, which was completed in 1604. The foundation itself was laid in 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru, who also established the city of Amritsar.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The land for the Golden Temple was bought from local landlords (zamindars) of the village of Tung. It was not a grant from Emperor Akbar, although Akbar is known to have had cordial relations with the Sikh Gurus.

• Statement 3 is correct. Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the leader of the Sikh Empire, was responsible for beautifying the temple with gold plating in the early 19th century, giving it the popular name “Golden Temple.” He also patronized other aspects of its art and architecture.

• What is the Golden Temple? The Golden Temple, or Sri Darbar Sahib, is the holiest Sikh shrine located in Amritsar, Punjab. It represents Sikhism’s core values of equality, humility, and service.

• The Golden Temple, or Sri Darbar Sahib, is the holiest Sikh shrine located in Amritsar, Punjab. It represents Sikhism’s core values of equality, humility, and service.

• Foundation Laid: 1577 CE by Guru Ram Das Ji, the fourth Sikh Guru.

• Constructed by: Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Guru, completed in 1604.

• Land Acquisition: Land bought from local landlords (zamindars).

• Foundation Laid by: Hazrat Mian Mir, a Muslim saint from Lahore, showing interfaith harmony.

• Key Personalities Involved: Guru Arjan Dev Ji: Architect and visionary of the central Sikh shrine. Baba Budha Ji: First appointed granthi (reader of Guru Granth Sahib). Maharaja Ranjit Singh: Beautified the temple with golden plating in the 19th century.

• Guru Arjan Dev Ji: Architect and visionary of the central Sikh shrine.

• Baba Budha Ji: First appointed granthi (reader of Guru Granth Sahib).

• Maharaja Ranjit Singh: Beautified the temple with golden plating in the 19th century.

• Architectural Features: Design: Built on a lower level to symbolize humility; has four entrances for universal access. Structure: Constructed on a 67 ft square platform in the Amrit Sarovar (holy pool). Materials: Features gold-covered domes and marble architecture with inlay work. Dome: Fluted, lotus-shaped with a “kalash” and canopy on top. Langar (Community Kitchen): Serves free meals to over 1 lakh people daily, upholding Sikh values of equality.

• Design: Built on a lower level to symbolize humility; has four entrances for universal access.

• Structure: Constructed on a 67 ft square platform in the Amrit Sarovar (holy pool).

• Materials: Features gold-covered domes and marble architecture with inlay work.

• Dome: Fluted, lotus-shaped with a “kalash” and canopy on top.

• Langar (Community Kitchen): Serves free meals to over 1 lakh people daily, upholding Sikh values of equality.

• Historical Significance: Repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century. Operation Blue Star (1984): Military action to remove militants caused major damage and public unrest.

• Repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century.

• Operation Blue Star (1984): Military action to remove militants caused major damage and public unrest.