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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 2 July 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to Altermagnets, consider the following statements: They exhibit strong internal magnetic ordering similar to ferromagnets but have zero net external magnetization like antiferromagnets. The material Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is the first known altermagnet to exhibit both p-type and n-type conduction based on the direction of current flow within a single crystal. Due to their zero net magnetism, altermagnets require extremely low temperatures to maintain their magnetic properties, limiting their use in industrial electronics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnets represent a distinct class of magnetic materials. They uniquely combine characteristics of both ferromagnets (strong internal spin ordering) and antiferromagnets. Despite the ordered spins, their arrangement results in zero net external magnetization, making them appear non-magnetic from the outside. This dual nature allows them to have strong internal magnetic effects without generating external magnetic fields. Statement 2 is correct. The discovery of Direction-Dependent Conduction Polarity (DDCP) in Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is a significant breakthrough. In CrSb, the material behaves as an n-type conductor (charge carried by electrons) when current flows along its crystal layers and as a p-type conductor (charge carried by holes) when current flows across the layers. This is the first time such a property has been observed in a single-crystal magnetic material. Statement 3 is incorrect. Contrary to limiting their use, altermagnets like CrSb show high thermal stability. CrSb, for instance, remains magnetic at temperatures well above room temperature (reportedly twice that), which makes it a viable and robust candidate for practical applications in spintronics and industrial electronics, which often operate at elevated temperatures. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnets represent a distinct class of magnetic materials. They uniquely combine characteristics of both ferromagnets (strong internal spin ordering) and antiferromagnets. Despite the ordered spins, their arrangement results in zero net external magnetization, making them appear non-magnetic from the outside. This dual nature allows them to have strong internal magnetic effects without generating external magnetic fields. Statement 2 is correct. The discovery of Direction-Dependent Conduction Polarity (DDCP) in Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is a significant breakthrough. In CrSb, the material behaves as an n-type conductor (charge carried by electrons) when current flows along its crystal layers and as a p-type conductor (charge carried by holes) when current flows across the layers. This is the first time such a property has been observed in a single-crystal magnetic material. Statement 3 is incorrect. Contrary to limiting their use, altermagnets like CrSb show high thermal stability. CrSb, for instance, remains magnetic at temperatures well above room temperature (reportedly twice that), which makes it a viable and robust candidate for practical applications in spintronics and industrial electronics, which often operate at elevated temperatures.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Altermagnets, consider the following statements:

• They exhibit strong internal magnetic ordering similar to ferromagnets but have zero net external magnetization like antiferromagnets.

• The material Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is the first known altermagnet to exhibit both p-type and n-type conduction based on the direction of current flow within a single crystal.

• Due to their zero net magnetism, altermagnets require extremely low temperatures to maintain their magnetic properties, limiting their use in industrial electronics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnets represent a distinct class of magnetic materials. They uniquely combine characteristics of both ferromagnets (strong internal spin ordering) and antiferromagnets. Despite the ordered spins, their arrangement results in zero net external magnetization, making them appear non-magnetic from the outside. This dual nature allows them to have strong internal magnetic effects without generating external magnetic fields.

• Statement 2 is correct. The discovery of Direction-Dependent Conduction Polarity (DDCP) in Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is a significant breakthrough. In CrSb, the material behaves as an n-type conductor (charge carried by electrons) when current flows along its crystal layers and as a p-type conductor (charge carried by holes) when current flows across the layers. This is the first time such a property has been observed in a single-crystal magnetic material.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Contrary to limiting their use, altermagnets like CrSb show high thermal stability. CrSb, for instance, remains magnetic at temperatures well above room temperature (reportedly twice that), which makes it a viable and robust candidate for practical applications in spintronics and industrial electronics, which often operate at elevated temperatures.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnets represent a distinct class of magnetic materials. They uniquely combine characteristics of both ferromagnets (strong internal spin ordering) and antiferromagnets. Despite the ordered spins, their arrangement results in zero net external magnetization, making them appear non-magnetic from the outside. This dual nature allows them to have strong internal magnetic effects without generating external magnetic fields.

• Statement 2 is correct. The discovery of Direction-Dependent Conduction Polarity (DDCP) in Chromium Antimonide (CrSb) is a significant breakthrough. In CrSb, the material behaves as an n-type conductor (charge carried by electrons) when current flows along its crystal layers and as a p-type conductor (charge carried by holes) when current flows across the layers. This is the first time such a property has been observed in a single-crystal magnetic material.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Contrary to limiting their use, altermagnets like CrSb show high thermal stability. CrSb, for instance, remains magnetic at temperatures well above room temperature (reportedly twice that), which makes it a viable and robust candidate for practical applications in spintronics and industrial electronics, which often operate at elevated temperatures.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Sea Ship Observer Mission: It is a bilateral initiative between the coast guards of India and the United States. The mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration of the QUAD Leaders’ Summit. An objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion by involving women officers from each participating nation. The mission focuses exclusively on military interoperability and joint naval drills. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea Ship Observer Mission is a multilateral initiative, not a bilateral one. It involves all four QUAD countries: India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The participating agencies are the respective coast guards and the Australian Border Force. Statement 2 is correct. The mission is a direct outcome of the Wilmington Declaration, which was adopted at the QUAD Leaders’ Summit in 2024. This declaration outlined a framework for enhancing maritime cooperation among the member nations’ coast guards. Statement 3 is correct. A specific and highlighted objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion. The mission mandates the participation of women officers from each of the four nations, marking a conscious effort to integrate gender diversity into maritime security operations. Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission’s scope is broader than just military interoperability. It focuses on coast guard functions such as enhancing Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA), coordinating on humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HADR), capacity-building, and promoting a rules-based maritime order. It is not exclusively about naval drills. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea Ship Observer Mission is a multilateral initiative, not a bilateral one. It involves all four QUAD countries: India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The participating agencies are the respective coast guards and the Australian Border Force. Statement 2 is correct. The mission is a direct outcome of the Wilmington Declaration, which was adopted at the QUAD Leaders’ Summit in 2024. This declaration outlined a framework for enhancing maritime cooperation among the member nations’ coast guards. Statement 3 is correct. A specific and highlighted objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion. The mission mandates the participation of women officers from each of the four nations, marking a conscious effort to integrate gender diversity into maritime security operations. Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission’s scope is broader than just military interoperability. It focuses on coast guard functions such as enhancing Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA), coordinating on humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HADR), capacity-building, and promoting a rules-based maritime order. It is not exclusively about naval drills.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Sea Ship Observer Mission:

• It is a bilateral initiative between the coast guards of India and the United States.

• The mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration of the QUAD Leaders’ Summit.

• An objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion by involving women officers from each participating nation.

• The mission focuses exclusively on military interoperability and joint naval drills.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea Ship Observer Mission is a multilateral initiative, not a bilateral one. It involves all four QUAD countries: India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The participating agencies are the respective coast guards and the Australian Border Force.

• Statement 2 is correct. The mission is a direct outcome of the Wilmington Declaration, which was adopted at the QUAD Leaders’ Summit in 2024. This declaration outlined a framework for enhancing maritime cooperation among the member nations’ coast guards.

• Statement 3 is correct. A specific and highlighted objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion. The mission mandates the participation of women officers from each of the four nations, marking a conscious effort to integrate gender diversity into maritime security operations.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission’s scope is broader than just military interoperability. It focuses on coast guard functions such as enhancing Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA), coordinating on humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HADR), capacity-building, and promoting a rules-based maritime order. It is not exclusively about naval drills.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea Ship Observer Mission is a multilateral initiative, not a bilateral one. It involves all four QUAD countries: India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The participating agencies are the respective coast guards and the Australian Border Force.

• Statement 2 is correct. The mission is a direct outcome of the Wilmington Declaration, which was adopted at the QUAD Leaders’ Summit in 2024. This declaration outlined a framework for enhancing maritime cooperation among the member nations’ coast guards.

• Statement 3 is correct. A specific and highlighted objective of the mission is to promote gender inclusion. The mission mandates the participation of women officers from each of the four nations, marking a conscious effort to integrate gender diversity into maritime security operations.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The mission’s scope is broader than just military interoperability. It focuses on coast guard functions such as enhancing Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA), coordinating on humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HADR), capacity-building, and promoting a rules-based maritime order. It is not exclusively about naval drills.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the GOSAT-GW satellite: It is a joint project between the space agencies of Japan (JAXA) and the United States (NOAA). The satellite has a singular focus on monitoring greenhouse gas concentrations with high precision. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The GOSAT-GW satellite was developed primarily by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in collaboration with Japanese industry partners like Mitsubishi Heavy Industries. While it provides data to global stakeholders, including the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) of the USA, it is not a joint development project with them. Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite has a dual focus, which is one of its unique features. The “GW” in its name stands for Greenhouse Gases and Water Cycle. It is designed to simultaneously monitor atmospheric concentrations of gases like carbon dioxide and methane, as well as key hydrological parameters such as sea surface temperature, cloud cover, and precipitation trends. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The GOSAT-GW satellite was developed primarily by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in collaboration with Japanese industry partners like Mitsubishi Heavy Industries. While it provides data to global stakeholders, including the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) of the USA, it is not a joint development project with them. Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite has a dual focus, which is one of its unique features. The “GW” in its name stands for Greenhouse Gases and Water Cycle. It is designed to simultaneously monitor atmospheric concentrations of gases like carbon dioxide and methane, as well as key hydrological parameters such as sea surface temperature, cloud cover, and precipitation trends.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the GOSAT-GW satellite:

• It is a joint project between the space agencies of Japan (JAXA) and the United States (NOAA).

• The satellite has a singular focus on monitoring greenhouse gas concentrations with high precision.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The GOSAT-GW satellite was developed primarily by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in collaboration with Japanese industry partners like Mitsubishi Heavy Industries. While it provides data to global stakeholders, including the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) of the USA, it is not a joint development project with them.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite has a dual focus, which is one of its unique features. The “GW” in its name stands for Greenhouse Gases and Water Cycle. It is designed to simultaneously monitor atmospheric concentrations of gases like carbon dioxide and methane, as well as key hydrological parameters such as sea surface temperature, cloud cover, and precipitation trends.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The GOSAT-GW satellite was developed primarily by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in collaboration with Japanese industry partners like Mitsubishi Heavy Industries. While it provides data to global stakeholders, including the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) of the USA, it is not a joint development project with them.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite has a dual focus, which is one of its unique features. The “GW” in its name stands for Greenhouse Gases and Water Cycle. It is designed to simultaneously monitor atmospheric concentrations of gases like carbon dioxide and methane, as well as key hydrological parameters such as sea surface temperature, cloud cover, and precipitation trends.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Akash Air Defence System, consider the following statements: Statement I: The Akash system is designed as a long-range, stationary surface-to-air missile platform for protecting metropolitan cities from ballistic missile threats. Statement II: It is an indigenously developed system by DRDO with high mobility, capable of engaging multiple aerial targets like fighter jets, drones, and cruise missiles. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The Akash system is classified as a medium-range, not long-range, air defence system. Its operational range is approximately 4.5 km to 25 km. Furthermore, it is a mobile system, mounted on road or rail platforms for rapid deployment to protect vulnerable points and areas, not a stationary platform. Its primary role is to neutralize tactical aerial threats like aircraft and cruise missiles, rather than strategic ballistic missiles, which are tackled by different systems. Statement-II is correct. The Akash is a flagship product of India’s indigenous defence development, primarily designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with public sector undertakings like BDL and BEL. It is characterized by its high mobility and a fully automatic system that can track and engage multiple aerial targets simultaneously in a cluttered environment. Its effectiveness against threats like fighter aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, and cruise missiles has been operationally proven. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The Akash system is classified as a medium-range, not long-range, air defence system. Its operational range is approximately 4.5 km to 25 km. Furthermore, it is a mobile system, mounted on road or rail platforms for rapid deployment to protect vulnerable points and areas, not a stationary platform. Its primary role is to neutralize tactical aerial threats like aircraft and cruise missiles, rather than strategic ballistic missiles, which are tackled by different systems. Statement-II is correct. The Akash is a flagship product of India’s indigenous defence development, primarily designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with public sector undertakings like BDL and BEL. It is characterized by its high mobility and a fully automatic system that can track and engage multiple aerial targets simultaneously in a cluttered environment. Its effectiveness against threats like fighter aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, and cruise missiles has been operationally proven.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Akash Air Defence System, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Akash system is designed as a long-range, stationary surface-to-air missile platform for protecting metropolitan cities from ballistic missile threats.

Statement II: It is an indigenously developed system by DRDO with high mobility, capable of engaging multiple aerial targets like fighter jets, drones, and cruise missiles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The Akash system is classified as a medium-range, not long-range, air defence system. Its operational range is approximately 4.5 km to 25 km. Furthermore, it is a mobile system, mounted on road or rail platforms for rapid deployment to protect vulnerable points and areas, not a stationary platform. Its primary role is to neutralize tactical aerial threats like aircraft and cruise missiles, rather than strategic ballistic missiles, which are tackled by different systems.

• Statement-II is correct. The Akash is a flagship product of India’s indigenous defence development, primarily designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with public sector undertakings like BDL and BEL. It is characterized by its high mobility and a fully automatic system that can track and engage multiple aerial targets simultaneously in a cluttered environment. Its effectiveness against threats like fighter aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, and cruise missiles has been operationally proven.

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The Akash system is classified as a medium-range, not long-range, air defence system. Its operational range is approximately 4.5 km to 25 km. Furthermore, it is a mobile system, mounted on road or rail platforms for rapid deployment to protect vulnerable points and areas, not a stationary platform. Its primary role is to neutralize tactical aerial threats like aircraft and cruise missiles, rather than strategic ballistic missiles, which are tackled by different systems.

• Statement-II is correct. The Akash is a flagship product of India’s indigenous defence development, primarily designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with public sector undertakings like BDL and BEL. It is characterized by its high mobility and a fully automatic system that can track and engage multiple aerial targets simultaneously in a cluttered environment. Its effectiveness against threats like fighter aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, and cruise missiles has been operationally proven.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Kombucha: It is produced by fermenting sweetened tea using a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast (SCOBY). Recent studies suggest it can positively modulate gut microbiota by increasing the population of bacteria associated with metabolic disorders. The fermentation process entirely removes any trace of alcohol, making it suitable for all consumers. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental process for making Kombucha involves the fermentation of sweetened tea (usually black or green). This fermentation is carried out by a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast, commonly known as SCOBY. The SCOBY, a biofilm that looks like a pancake, metabolizes the sugars, producing a range of organic acids, probiotics, and other compounds that define the beverage. Statement 2 is incorrect. Studies indicate that Kombucha can positively modulate gut microbiota, but it does so by increasing beneficial strains (like Akkermansiaceae) and *decreasing harmful bacteria (like Ruminococcus gnavus and Dorea) that are associated with metabolic disorders and inflammation. The statement incorrectly claims it increases the population of harmful bacteria. Statement 3 is incorrect. Fermentation is a process that produces alcohol as a byproduct when yeast consumes sugar. While commercial Kombucha has very low levels of alcohol (typically below 0.5% ABV to be sold as a non-alcoholic beverage), it is not entirely free of it. Trace amounts of alcohol are an inherent result of the fermentation process. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental process for making Kombucha involves the fermentation of sweetened tea (usually black or green). This fermentation is carried out by a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast, commonly known as SCOBY. The SCOBY, a biofilm that looks like a pancake, metabolizes the sugars, producing a range of organic acids, probiotics, and other compounds that define the beverage. Statement 2 is incorrect. Studies indicate that Kombucha can positively modulate gut microbiota, but it does so by increasing beneficial strains (like Akkermansiaceae) and decreasing harmful bacteria (like Ruminococcus gnavus and Dorea) that are associated with metabolic disorders and inflammation. The statement incorrectly claims it increases the population of harmful bacteria. Statement 3 is incorrect. Fermentation is a process that produces alcohol as a byproduct when yeast consumes sugar. While commercial Kombucha has very low levels of alcohol (typically below 0.5% ABV to be sold as a non-alcoholic beverage), it is not entirely free of it. Trace amounts of alcohol* are an inherent result of the fermentation process.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Kombucha:

• It is produced by fermenting sweetened tea using a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast (SCOBY).

• Recent studies suggest it can positively modulate gut microbiota by increasing the population of bacteria associated with metabolic disorders.

• The fermentation process entirely removes any trace of alcohol, making it suitable for all consumers.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental process for making Kombucha involves the fermentation of sweetened tea (usually black or green). This fermentation is carried out by a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast, commonly known as SCOBY. The SCOBY, a biofilm that looks like a pancake, metabolizes the sugars, producing a range of organic acids, probiotics, and other compounds that define the beverage.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Studies indicate that Kombucha can positively modulate gut microbiota, but it does so by increasing beneficial strains (like Akkermansiaceae) and *decreasing harmful bacteria (like Ruminococcus gnavus and Dorea*) that are associated with metabolic disorders and inflammation. The statement incorrectly claims it increases the population of harmful bacteria.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Fermentation is a process that produces alcohol as a byproduct when yeast consumes sugar. While commercial Kombucha has very low levels of alcohol (typically below 0.5% ABV to be sold as a non-alcoholic beverage), it is not entirely free of it. Trace amounts of alcohol are an inherent result of the fermentation process.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental process for making Kombucha involves the fermentation of sweetened tea (usually black or green). This fermentation is carried out by a Symbiotic Culture of Bacteria and Yeast, commonly known as SCOBY. The SCOBY, a biofilm that looks like a pancake, metabolizes the sugars, producing a range of organic acids, probiotics, and other compounds that define the beverage.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Studies indicate that Kombucha can positively modulate gut microbiota, but it does so by increasing beneficial strains (like Akkermansiaceae) and *decreasing harmful bacteria (like Ruminococcus gnavus and Dorea*) that are associated with metabolic disorders and inflammation. The statement incorrectly claims it increases the population of harmful bacteria.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Fermentation is a process that produces alcohol as a byproduct when yeast consumes sugar. While commercial Kombucha has very low levels of alcohol (typically below 0.5% ABV to be sold as a non-alcoholic beverage), it is not entirely free of it. Trace amounts of alcohol are an inherent result of the fermentation process.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the physical geography of Ghana: The country’s landscape is dominated by the Volta River System, which includes Lake Volta, one of the world’s largest artificial lakes. Mount Afadjato, the highest peak in Ghana, is part of the Kwahu Plateau. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The geography of Ghana is significantly shaped by the Volta River System. This system includes the Black Volta, White Volta, and Oti rivers, which all flow into Lake Volta. Created by the Akosombo Dam, Lake Volta is one of the largest man-made reservoirs in the world by surface area, playing a crucial role in transportation, hydroelectric power, and fishing. Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Afadjato, Ghana’s highest peak, is located in the Akwapim-Togo Ranges, which run along the country’s eastern border. The Kwahu Plateau is another major upland feature, but it is located in the south-central part of the country and is distinct from the mountain range containing Mount Afadjato. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The geography of Ghana is significantly shaped by the Volta River System. This system includes the Black Volta, White Volta, and Oti rivers, which all flow into Lake Volta. Created by the Akosombo Dam, Lake Volta is one of the largest man-made reservoirs in the world by surface area, playing a crucial role in transportation, hydroelectric power, and fishing. Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Afadjato, Ghana’s highest peak, is located in the Akwapim-Togo Ranges, which run along the country’s eastern border. The Kwahu Plateau is another major upland feature, but it is located in the south-central part of the country and is distinct from the mountain range containing Mount Afadjato.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the physical geography of Ghana:

• The country’s landscape is dominated by the Volta River System, which includes Lake Volta, one of the world’s largest artificial lakes.

• Mount Afadjato, the highest peak in Ghana, is part of the Kwahu Plateau.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The geography of Ghana is significantly shaped by the Volta River System. This system includes the Black Volta, White Volta, and Oti rivers, which all flow into Lake Volta. Created by the Akosombo Dam, Lake Volta is one of the largest man-made reservoirs in the world by surface area, playing a crucial role in transportation, hydroelectric power, and fishing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Afadjato, Ghana’s highest peak, is located in the Akwapim-Togo Ranges, which run along the country’s eastern border. The Kwahu Plateau is another major upland feature, but it is located in the south-central part of the country and is distinct from the mountain range containing Mount Afadjato.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The geography of Ghana is significantly shaped by the Volta River System. This system includes the Black Volta, White Volta, and Oti rivers, which all flow into Lake Volta. Created by the Akosombo Dam, Lake Volta is one of the largest man-made reservoirs in the world by surface area, playing a crucial role in transportation, hydroelectric power, and fishing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Afadjato, Ghana’s highest peak, is located in the Akwapim-Togo Ranges, which run along the country’s eastern border. The Kwahu Plateau is another major upland feature, but it is located in the south-central part of the country and is distinct from the mountain range containing Mount Afadjato.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Bhashini platform, consider the following statements: It functions as a digital public infrastructure for real-time language translation. It was jointly developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Ministry of Education. The primary goal of the recent MoU is to integrate multilingual tools into urban governance platforms. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Bhashini, or the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), is designed as a digital public good. It utilizes Artificial Intelligence to provide real-time translation services (speech-to-text and text-to-text) across various Indian languages, aiming to make digital services more accessible. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bhashini was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between MeitY and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MoU specifically aims to integrate Bhashini’s capabilities into rural governance platforms, such as eGramSwaraj. The objective is to bridge the language divide in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and enhance e-governance for rural citizens, not urban ones. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Bhashini, or the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), is designed as a digital public good. It utilizes Artificial Intelligence to provide real-time translation services (speech-to-text and text-to-text) across various Indian languages, aiming to make digital services more accessible. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bhashini was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between MeitY and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MoU specifically aims to integrate Bhashini’s capabilities into rural governance platforms, such as eGramSwaraj. The objective is to bridge the language divide in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and enhance e-governance for rural citizens, not urban ones.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Bhashini platform, consider the following statements:

• It functions as a digital public infrastructure for real-time language translation.

• It was jointly developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Ministry of Education.

• The primary goal of the recent MoU is to integrate multilingual tools into urban governance platforms.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Bhashini, or the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), is designed as a digital public good. It utilizes Artificial Intelligence to provide real-time translation services (speech-to-text and text-to-text) across various Indian languages, aiming to make digital services more accessible.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Bhashini was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between MeitY and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), not the Ministry of Education.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The MoU specifically aims to integrate Bhashini’s capabilities into rural governance platforms, such as eGramSwaraj. The objective is to bridge the language divide in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and enhance e-governance for rural citizens, not urban ones.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Bhashini, or the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), is designed as a digital public good. It utilizes Artificial Intelligence to provide real-time translation services (speech-to-text and text-to-text) across various Indian languages, aiming to make digital services more accessible.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Bhashini was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between MeitY and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), not the Ministry of Education.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The MoU specifically aims to integrate Bhashini’s capabilities into rural governance platforms, such as eGramSwaraj. The objective is to bridge the language divide in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and enhance e-governance for rural citizens, not urban ones.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Green India Mission (GIM): The mission is exclusively focused on afforestation and increasing tree cover. It is one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). The mission operates independently of other government schemes to ensure focused implementation. One of its revised priorities includes the ecological restoration of abandoned mining areas. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While increasing forest/tree cover is a key objective (target of 5 million hectares), GIM’s scope is broader. It also aims to improve the quality of another 5 million hectares of existing forests, restore degraded ecosystems like grasslands and wetlands, and enhance biodiversity, not just focus on planting trees. Statement 2 is correct. The Green India Mission is one of the eight core missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its objectives directly contribute to India’s climate goals, particularly the creation of carbon sinks. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission emphasizes multi-sectoral convergence. It is designed to leverage synergies and funds from other central and state schemes, such as the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds and the Aravalli Green Wall Project, to achieve its goals more effectively. Statement 4 is correct. The New Changes in GIM 2025 explicitly state a new focus on the eco-restoration of abandoned mining areas. This is a crucial addition to address land degradation from mining activities and aligns with the broader goal of ecosystem restoration. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While increasing forest/tree cover is a key objective (target of 5 million hectares), GIM’s scope is broader. It also aims to improve the quality of another 5 million hectares of existing forests, restore degraded ecosystems like grasslands and wetlands, and enhance biodiversity, not just focus on planting trees. Statement 2 is correct. The Green India Mission is one of the eight core missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its objectives directly contribute to India’s climate goals, particularly the creation of carbon sinks. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission emphasizes multi-sectoral convergence. It is designed to leverage synergies and funds from other central and state schemes, such as the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds and the Aravalli Green Wall Project, to achieve its goals more effectively. Statement 4 is correct. The New Changes in GIM 2025 explicitly state a new focus on the eco-restoration of abandoned mining areas. This is a crucial addition to address land degradation from mining activities and aligns with the broader goal of ecosystem restoration.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Green India Mission (GIM):

• The mission is exclusively focused on afforestation and increasing tree cover.

• It is one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

• The mission operates independently of other government schemes to ensure focused implementation.

• One of its revised priorities includes the ecological restoration of abandoned mining areas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While increasing forest/tree cover is a key objective (target of 5 million hectares), GIM’s scope is broader. It also aims to improve the quality of another 5 million hectares of existing forests, restore degraded ecosystems like grasslands and wetlands, and enhance biodiversity, not just focus on planting trees.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Green India Mission is one of the eight core missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its objectives directly contribute to India’s climate goals, particularly the creation of carbon sinks.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission emphasizes multi-sectoral convergence. It is designed to leverage synergies and funds from other central and state schemes, such as the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds and the Aravalli Green Wall Project, to achieve its goals more effectively.

• Statement 4 is correct. The New Changes in GIM 2025 explicitly state a new focus on the eco-restoration of abandoned mining areas. This is a crucial addition to address land degradation from mining activities and aligns with the broader goal of ecosystem restoration.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While increasing forest/tree cover is a key objective (target of 5 million hectares), GIM’s scope is broader. It also aims to improve the quality of another 5 million hectares of existing forests, restore degraded ecosystems like grasslands and wetlands, and enhance biodiversity, not just focus on planting trees.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Green India Mission is one of the eight core missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its objectives directly contribute to India’s climate goals, particularly the creation of carbon sinks.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission emphasizes multi-sectoral convergence. It is designed to leverage synergies and funds from other central and state schemes, such as the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds and the Aravalli Green Wall Project, to achieve its goals more effectively.

• Statement 4 is correct. The New Changes in GIM 2025 explicitly state a new focus on the eco-restoration of abandoned mining areas. This is a crucial addition to address land degradation from mining activities and aligns with the broader goal of ecosystem restoration.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT): The treaty defines a nuclear-weapon state as any state that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon prior to 1st January, 1970. India is a signatory to the treaty but has not ratified it, citing concerns about its discriminatory nature. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is responsible for verifying compliance with the treaty’s non-proliferation commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPT defines a nuclear-weapon state as one that had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. The five states that meet this definition are the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China (the P5). The year 1970 marks the treaty’s entry into force, not the cut-off date for definition. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is one of the few countries that has never signed the NPT. It is not a signatory, let alone having ratified it. India has consistently maintained that the treaty is discriminatory because it creates a permanent division between the “haves” (the P5) and the “have-nots” in terms of nuclear weapons. Statement 3 is correct. A cornerstone of the NPT is the safeguards system administered by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA conducts inspections and monitoring activities in non-nuclear-weapon states that are party to the treaty to verify that their civilian nuclear programs and materials are not being diverted for military purposes. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPT defines a nuclear-weapon state as one that had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. The five states that meet this definition are the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China (the P5). The year 1970 marks the treaty’s entry into force, not the cut-off date for definition. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is one of the few countries that has never signed the NPT. It is not a signatory, let alone having ratified it. India has consistently maintained that the treaty is discriminatory because it creates a permanent division between the “haves” (the P5) and the “have-nots” in terms of nuclear weapons. Statement 3 is correct. A cornerstone of the NPT is the safeguards system administered by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA conducts inspections and monitoring activities in non-nuclear-weapon states that are party to the treaty to verify that their civilian nuclear programs and materials are not being diverted for military purposes.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT):

• The treaty defines a nuclear-weapon state as any state that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon prior to 1st January, 1970.

• India is a signatory to the treaty but has not ratified it, citing concerns about its discriminatory nature.

• The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is responsible for verifying compliance with the treaty’s non-proliferation commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPT defines a nuclear-weapon state as one that had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. The five states that meet this definition are the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China (the P5). The year 1970 marks the treaty’s entry into force, not the cut-off date for definition.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is one of the few countries that has never signed the NPT. It is not a signatory, let alone having ratified it. India has consistently maintained that the treaty is discriminatory because it creates a permanent division between the “haves” (the P5) and the “have-nots” in terms of nuclear weapons.

• Statement 3 is correct. A cornerstone of the NPT is the safeguards system administered by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA conducts inspections and monitoring activities in non-nuclear-weapon states that are party to the treaty to verify that their civilian nuclear programs and materials are not being diverted for military purposes.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPT defines a nuclear-weapon state as one that had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. The five states that meet this definition are the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China (the P5). The year 1970 marks the treaty’s entry into force, not the cut-off date for definition.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is one of the few countries that has never signed the NPT. It is not a signatory, let alone having ratified it. India has consistently maintained that the treaty is discriminatory because it creates a permanent division between the “haves” (the P5) and the “have-nots” in terms of nuclear weapons.

• Statement 3 is correct. A cornerstone of the NPT is the safeguards system administered by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA conducts inspections and monitoring activities in non-nuclear-weapon states that are party to the treaty to verify that their civilian nuclear programs and materials are not being diverted for military purposes.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Delhi Artificial Rain Project: The project utilizes cloud seeding technology by dispersing silver iodide from ground-based generators. It exclusively targets cumulus clouds, which have high moisture content. The project is a collaborative effort involving the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur, and the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The method used involves dispersing agents like silver iodide and rock salt into clouds, but it is done using aircraft-mounted flares, not ground-based generators. The use of aircraft allows for precise targeting of suitable clouds at the right altitude. Statement 2 is incorrect. The project specifically targets nimbostratus clouds, which are rain-bearing sheet clouds, noted to have over 50% moisture content. Cumulus clouds are different in structure, and while they can develop into rain clouds (cumulonimbus), the project’s specified target is nimbostratus. Statement 3 is correct. The project is a multi-agency effort. It is a collaboration between the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur (providing the technical expertise from their successful trials), and the IMD (providing meteorological support and data). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The method used involves dispersing agents like silver iodide and rock salt into clouds, but it is done using aircraft-mounted flares, not ground-based generators. The use of aircraft allows for precise targeting of suitable clouds at the right altitude. Statement 2 is incorrect. The project specifically targets nimbostratus clouds, which are rain-bearing sheet clouds, noted to have over 50% moisture content. Cumulus clouds are different in structure, and while they can develop into rain clouds (cumulonimbus), the project’s specified target is nimbostratus. Statement 3 is correct. The project is a multi-agency effort. It is a collaboration between the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur (providing the technical expertise from their successful trials), and the IMD (providing meteorological support and data).

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Delhi Artificial Rain Project:

• The project utilizes cloud seeding technology by dispersing silver iodide from ground-based generators.

• It exclusively targets cumulus clouds, which have high moisture content.

• The project is a collaborative effort involving the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur, and the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD).

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The method used involves dispersing agents like silver iodide and rock salt into clouds, but it is done using aircraft-mounted flares, not ground-based generators. The use of aircraft allows for precise targeting of suitable clouds at the right altitude.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The project specifically targets nimbostratus clouds, which are rain-bearing sheet clouds, noted to have over 50% moisture content. Cumulus clouds are different in structure, and while they can develop into rain clouds (cumulonimbus), the project’s specified target is nimbostratus.

• Statement 3 is correct. The project is a multi-agency effort. It is a collaboration between the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur (providing the technical expertise from their successful trials), and the IMD (providing meteorological support and data).

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The method used involves dispersing agents like silver iodide and rock salt into clouds, but it is done using aircraft-mounted flares, not ground-based generators. The use of aircraft allows for precise targeting of suitable clouds at the right altitude.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The project specifically targets nimbostratus clouds, which are rain-bearing sheet clouds, noted to have over 50% moisture content. Cumulus clouds are different in structure, and while they can develop into rain clouds (cumulonimbus), the project’s specified target is nimbostratus.

• Statement 3 is correct. The project is a multi-agency effort. It is a collaboration between the Delhi Government, IIT-Kanpur (providing the technical expertise from their successful trials), and the IMD (providing meteorological support and data).

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