UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 2 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Pralay’ missile, consider the following statements: It is a surface-to-air missile developed to intercept incoming ballistic missiles. It follows a quasi-ballistic trajectory which makes it difficult for enemy air defense systems to intercept. It is powered by a liquid propellant engine to ensure long-range strategic reach. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Pralay missile is an indigenously developed surface-to-surface missile, not a surface-to-air missile, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed for high-precision conventional strikes against ground targets. Statement 2 is correct as one of its defining features is its quasi-ballistic trajectory. Unlike a standard ballistic missile that follows a fixed path, a quasi-ballistic missile can perform maneuvers in flight, making it highly unpredictable and difficult for enemy radars and interceptors to track. Statement 3 is incorrect because Pralay uses a solid propellant, which is preferred for tactical missiles as it ensures quick launch readiness and higher reliability compared to liquid fuels. Its range is approximately 150 km to 500 km, categorizing it as a short-range tactical weapon rather than a long-range strategic one. It aims to provide the Indian Army and Air Force with a rapid-response capability. Incorrect Solution: A The Pralay missile is an indigenously developed surface-to-surface missile, not a surface-to-air missile, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed for high-precision conventional strikes against ground targets. Statement 2 is correct as one of its defining features is its quasi-ballistic trajectory. Unlike a standard ballistic missile that follows a fixed path, a quasi-ballistic missile can perform maneuvers in flight, making it highly unpredictable and difficult for enemy radars and interceptors to track. Statement 3 is incorrect because Pralay uses a solid propellant, which is preferred for tactical missiles as it ensures quick launch readiness and higher reliability compared to liquid fuels. Its range is approximately 150 km to 500 km, categorizing it as a short-range tactical weapon rather than a long-range strategic one. It aims to provide the Indian Army and Air Force with a rapid-response capability.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the ‘Pralay’ missile, consider the following statements:

• It is a surface-to-air missile developed to intercept incoming ballistic missiles.

• It follows a quasi-ballistic trajectory which makes it difficult for enemy air defense systems to intercept.

• It is powered by a liquid propellant engine to ensure long-range strategic reach.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Pralay missile is an indigenously developed surface-to-surface missile, not a surface-to-air missile, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed for high-precision conventional strikes against ground targets.

• Statement 2 is correct as one of its defining features is its quasi-ballistic trajectory. Unlike a standard ballistic missile that follows a fixed path, a quasi-ballistic missile can perform maneuvers in flight, making it highly unpredictable and difficult for enemy radars and interceptors to track.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Pralay uses a solid propellant, which is preferred for tactical missiles as it ensures quick launch readiness and higher reliability compared to liquid fuels. Its range is approximately 150 km to 500 km, categorizing it as a short-range tactical weapon rather than a long-range strategic one. It aims to provide the Indian Army and Air Force with a rapid-response capability.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the drug ‘Nimesulide’, consider the following statements: It belongs to the pharmacological class of Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs). It works by enhancing prostaglandin synthesis to reduce inflammation. The Union Government has recently banned all formulations of Nimesulide, including topical gels. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; Nimesulide is a widely known Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) used for managing acute pain and fever. Statement 2 is incorrect because its mechanism of action involves inhibiting (blocking) prostaglandin synthesis, not enhancing it. Prostaglandins are chemical mediators responsible for pain and inflammation; by blocking them, the drug provides relief. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ban is specific to oral formulations above 100 mg. The government invoked Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, due to concerns over hepatotoxicity (liver damage). It does not ban all formulations (like lower dosages or topical applications) or gels unless specified. The move encourages the use of safer alternative analgesics available in the market to prevent drug-induced liver injury. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; Nimesulide is a widely known Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) used for managing acute pain and fever. Statement 2 is incorrect because its mechanism of action involves inhibiting (blocking) prostaglandin synthesis, not enhancing it. Prostaglandins are chemical mediators responsible for pain and inflammation; by blocking them, the drug provides relief. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ban is specific to oral formulations above 100 mg. The government invoked Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, due to concerns over hepatotoxicity (liver damage). It does not ban all formulations (like lower dosages or topical applications) or gels unless specified. The move encourages the use of safer alternative analgesics available in the market to prevent drug-induced liver injury.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the drug ‘Nimesulide’, consider the following statements:

• It belongs to the pharmacological class of Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs).

• It works by enhancing prostaglandin synthesis to reduce inflammation.

• The Union Government has recently banned all formulations of Nimesulide, including topical gels.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; Nimesulide is a widely known Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) used for managing acute pain and fever.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because its mechanism of action involves inhibiting (blocking) prostaglandin synthesis, not enhancing it. Prostaglandins are chemical mediators responsible for pain and inflammation; by blocking them, the drug provides relief.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because the ban is specific to oral formulations above 100 mg. The government invoked Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, due to concerns over hepatotoxicity (liver damage). It does not ban all formulations (like lower dosages or topical applications) or gels unless specified. The move encourages the use of safer alternative analgesics available in the market to prevent drug-induced liver injury.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; Nimesulide is a widely known Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) used for managing acute pain and fever.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Stingless bees are primary pollinators in the Amazon rainforest, responsible for over 80% of its flora. Peru is the first country in the world to grant legal rights to an insect species. Stingless bees are a relatively modern species that evolved after the extinction of dinosaurs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Amazonian stingless bees are crucial pollinators, responsible for the pollination of more than 80% of the Amazonian flora and various global crops like cacao and coffee. Statement 2 is correct as Peruvian municipalities passed a landmark ordinance making these bees the first insects in the world to be granted legal rights, including the right to exist and regenerate. Statement 3 is incorrect because stingless bees are among the oldest bee species on Earth, having existed for nearly 80 million years, meaning they coexisted with dinosaurs rather than evolving after them. These bees are deeply significant to indigenous communities like the Asháninka for medicinal and spiritual reasons. Their legal recognition marks a shift toward Rights of Nature, moving away from human-centered environmental protection. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Amazonian stingless bees are crucial pollinators, responsible for the pollination of more than 80% of the Amazonian flora and various global crops like cacao and coffee. Statement 2 is correct as Peruvian municipalities passed a landmark ordinance making these bees the first insects in the world to be granted legal rights, including the right to exist and regenerate. Statement 3 is incorrect because stingless bees are among the oldest bee species on Earth, having existed for nearly 80 million years, meaning they coexisted with dinosaurs rather than evolving after them. These bees are deeply significant to indigenous communities like the Asháninka for medicinal and spiritual reasons. Their legal recognition marks a shift toward Rights of Nature, moving away from human-centered environmental protection.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Stingless bees are primary pollinators in the Amazon rainforest, responsible for over 80% of its flora.

• Peru is the first country in the world to grant legal rights to an insect species.

• Stingless bees are a relatively modern species that evolved after the extinction of dinosaurs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; Amazonian stingless bees are crucial pollinators, responsible for the pollination of more than 80% of the Amazonian flora and various global crops like cacao and coffee.

• Statement 2 is correct as Peruvian municipalities passed a landmark ordinance making these bees the first insects in the world to be granted legal rights, including the right to exist and regenerate.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because stingless bees are among the oldest bee species on Earth, having existed for nearly 80 million years, meaning they coexisted with dinosaurs rather than evolving after them. These bees are deeply significant to indigenous communities like the Asháninka for medicinal and spiritual reasons. Their legal recognition marks a shift toward Rights of Nature, moving away from human-centered environmental protection.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to a ‘Bomb Cyclone’, consider the following statements: It is characterized by a rapid drop in central air pressure within 24 hours. It typically forms when warm, dense polar air moves over warm tropical oceans. Unlike tropical cyclones, bomb cyclones are mid-latitude weather systems. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B A bomb cyclone is a powerful weather system known for explosive cyclogenesis. Statement 1 is correct as the defining metric for a bomb cyclone is a pressure drop of 24 millibars or more in 24 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect because it forms when cold, dense polar air (not warm polar air) collides with warm, moisture-rich air. This sharp temperature contrast provides the energy needed for intensification. Statement 3 is correct; these are mid-latitude systems, differing from tropical cyclones in their formation mechanism and location. They often result in extreme weather like blizzards, hurricane-force winds, and massive temperature swings. The recent Winter Storm Ezra in the US is a classic example of such a system, causing widespread disruption to travel and energy infrastructure. Incorrect Solution: B A bomb cyclone is a powerful weather system known for explosive cyclogenesis. Statement 1 is correct as the defining metric for a bomb cyclone is a pressure drop of 24 millibars or more in 24 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect because it forms when cold, dense polar air (not warm polar air) collides with warm, moisture-rich air. This sharp temperature contrast provides the energy needed for intensification. Statement 3 is correct; these are mid-latitude systems, differing from tropical cyclones in their formation mechanism and location. They often result in extreme weather like blizzards, hurricane-force winds, and massive temperature swings. The recent Winter Storm Ezra in the US is a classic example of such a system, causing widespread disruption to travel and energy infrastructure.

#### 4. Question

With reference to a ‘Bomb Cyclone’, consider the following statements:

• It is characterized by a rapid drop in central air pressure within 24 hours.

• It typically forms when warm, dense polar air moves over warm tropical oceans.

• Unlike tropical cyclones, bomb cyclones are mid-latitude weather systems.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• A bomb cyclone is a powerful weather system known for explosive cyclogenesis.

• Statement 1 is correct as the defining metric for a bomb cyclone is a pressure drop of 24 millibars or more in 24 hours.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because it forms when cold, dense polar air (not warm polar air) collides with warm, moisture-rich air. This sharp temperature contrast provides the energy needed for intensification.

• Statement 3 is correct; these are mid-latitude systems, differing from tropical cyclones in their formation mechanism and location. They often result in extreme weather like blizzards, hurricane-force winds, and massive temperature swings. The recent Winter Storm Ezra in the US is a classic example of such a system, causing widespread disruption to travel and energy infrastructure.

Solution: B

• A bomb cyclone is a powerful weather system known for explosive cyclogenesis.

• Statement 1 is correct as the defining metric for a bomb cyclone is a pressure drop of 24 millibars or more in 24 hours.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following countries border the Baltic Sea? Norway Russia Poland Finland Belarus Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: D The Baltic Sea is bordered by nine countries: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany. Russia (via St. Petersburg and Kaliningrad), Poland, and Finland are all bordering nations, making Statements 2, 3, and 4 correct. Norway does not border the Baltic Sea; it faces the North Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. Belarus is a landlocked country and does not have a coastline on the Baltic Sea. The Baltic Sea is a brackish water body connected to the North Sea through the Danish Straits. It has high geopolitical significance as eight of its nine bordering nations are NATO members. The sea is shallow, which makes its critical subsea infrastructure, such as telecom cables and pipelines, vulnerable to damage. Incorrect Solution: D The Baltic Sea is bordered by nine countries: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany. Russia (via St. Petersburg and Kaliningrad), Poland, and Finland are all bordering nations, making Statements 2, 3, and 4 correct. Norway does not border the Baltic Sea; it faces the North Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. Belarus is a landlocked country and does not have a coastline on the Baltic Sea. The Baltic Sea is a brackish water body connected to the North Sea through the Danish Straits. It has high geopolitical significance as eight of its nine bordering nations are NATO members. The sea is shallow, which makes its critical subsea infrastructure, such as telecom cables and pipelines, vulnerable to damage.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following countries border the Baltic Sea?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

• (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: D

The Baltic Sea is bordered by nine countries: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany.

• Russia (via St. Petersburg and Kaliningrad), Poland, and Finland are all bordering nations, making Statements 2, 3, and 4 correct.

• Norway does not border the Baltic Sea; it faces the North Sea and the Atlantic Ocean.

• Belarus is a landlocked country and does not have a coastline on the Baltic Sea.

The Baltic Sea is a brackish water body connected to the North Sea through the Danish Straits. It has high geopolitical significance as eight of its nine bordering nations are NATO members. The sea is shallow, which makes its critical subsea infrastructure, such as telecom cables and pipelines, vulnerable to damage.

Solution: D

The Baltic Sea is bordered by nine countries: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, and Germany.

• Russia (via St. Petersburg and Kaliningrad), Poland, and Finland are all bordering nations, making Statements 2, 3, and 4 correct.

• Norway does not border the Baltic Sea; it faces the North Sea and the Atlantic Ocean.

• Belarus is a landlocked country and does not have a coastline on the Baltic Sea.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘NIRYAT DISHA’ sub-scheme, consider the following statements: It focuses on the diversification of Indian exports into new and emerging markets. It mandates that all financial assistance be released only through physical vouchers to prevent digital fraud. It includes a digital governance component through the portal trade.gov.in. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The NIRYAT DISHA sub-scheme is designed as a strategic export-promotion and capacity-building initiative aimed at guiding Indian exporters—especially MSMEs and new entrants—towards product and market diversification. Its emphasis is on identifying new and emerging markets, reducing over-dependence on a limited set of traditional destinations, and aligning export strategies with global demand patterns. This directly supports India’s broader objective of enhancing export resilience and competitiveness. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision mandating physical vouchers for the release of financial assistance under NIRYAT DISHA. On the contrary, the scheme aligns with the government’s push towards digital governance, paperless processes, and transparent electronic fund transfers. Requiring physical vouchers would run counter to India’s established DBT framework and export facilitation reforms. Statement 3 is correct. NIRYAT DISHA incorporates a digital governance and information-dissemination component, leveraging platforms such as gov.in to provide exporters with market intelligence, regulatory updates, hand-holding support, and scheme-related guidance. This digital interface improves accessibility, reduces transaction costs, and enhances transparency. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The NIRYAT DISHA sub-scheme is designed as a strategic export-promotion and capacity-building initiative aimed at guiding Indian exporters—especially MSMEs and new entrants—towards product and market diversification. Its emphasis is on identifying new and emerging markets, reducing over-dependence on a limited set of traditional destinations, and aligning export strategies with global demand patterns. This directly supports India’s broader objective of enhancing export resilience and competitiveness. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision mandating physical vouchers for the release of financial assistance under NIRYAT DISHA. On the contrary, the scheme aligns with the government’s push towards digital governance, paperless processes, and transparent electronic fund transfers. Requiring physical vouchers would run counter to India’s established DBT framework and export facilitation reforms. Statement 3 is correct. NIRYAT DISHA incorporates a digital governance and information-dissemination component, leveraging platforms such as gov.in to provide exporters with market intelligence, regulatory updates, hand-holding support, and scheme-related guidance. This digital interface improves accessibility, reduces transaction costs, and enhances transparency.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the ‘NIRYAT DISHA’ sub-scheme, consider the following statements:

• It focuses on the diversification of Indian exports into new and emerging markets.

• It mandates that all financial assistance be released only through physical vouchers to prevent digital fraud.

• It includes a digital governance component through the portal trade.gov.in.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The NIRYAT DISHA sub-scheme is designed as a strategic export-promotion and capacity-building initiative aimed at guiding Indian exporters—especially MSMEs and new entrants—towards product and market diversification. Its emphasis is on identifying new and emerging markets, reducing over-dependence on a limited set of traditional destinations, and aligning export strategies with global demand patterns. This directly supports India’s broader objective of enhancing export resilience and competitiveness.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision mandating physical vouchers for the release of financial assistance under NIRYAT DISHA. On the contrary, the scheme aligns with the government’s push towards digital governance, paperless processes, and transparent electronic fund transfers. Requiring physical vouchers would run counter to India’s established DBT framework and export facilitation reforms.

• Statement 3 is correct. NIRYAT DISHA incorporates a digital governance and information-dissemination component, leveraging platforms such as gov.in to provide exporters with market intelligence, regulatory updates, hand-holding support, and scheme-related guidance. This digital interface improves accessibility, reduces transaction costs, and enhances transparency.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Baltic Sea Statement-I: The Baltic Sea is characterized by exceptionally low salinity levels, making it the world’s largest expanse of brackish water. Statement-II: It is a semi-enclosed sea with a limited connection to the North Sea and receives massive freshwater inflows from numerous rivers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct; the Baltic Sea is the primary global example of a brackish water body, where salinity is significantly lower than the average ocean salinity of 35 parts per thousand. Statement-II is also correct and provides the geographic and hydrological reasons for this low salinity. First, the sea is semi-enclosed, connected to the high-salinity North Sea only through the narrow and shallow Danish Straits, which restricts the inflow of saltier water. Second, the region experiences high precipitation and receives substantial freshwater discharge from major rivers such as the Vistula and Oder. This combination of high freshwater input and restricted marine exchange creates a stratified water column with a low-salinity surface layer. This unique environment supports specific ecosystems but also makes the sea sensitive to pollution and climate change. Geopolitically, it is a critical corridor bordered by nine countries, including Russia and Finland. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct; the Baltic Sea is the primary global example of a brackish water body, where salinity is significantly lower than the average ocean salinity of 35 parts per thousand. Statement-II is also correct and provides the geographic and hydrological reasons for this low salinity. First, the sea is semi-enclosed, connected to the high-salinity North Sea only through the narrow and shallow Danish Straits, which restricts the inflow of saltier water. Second, the region experiences high precipitation and receives substantial freshwater discharge from major rivers such as the Vistula and Oder. This combination of high freshwater input and restricted marine exchange creates a stratified water column with a low-salinity surface layer. This unique environment supports specific ecosystems but also makes the sea sensitive to pollution and climate change. Geopolitically, it is a critical corridor bordered by nine countries, including Russia and Finland.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Baltic Sea

Statement-I: The Baltic Sea is characterized by exceptionally low salinity levels, making it the world’s largest expanse of brackish water.

Statement-II: It is a semi-enclosed sea with a limited connection to the North Sea and receives massive freshwater inflows from numerous rivers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct; the Baltic Sea is the primary global example of a brackish water body, where salinity is significantly lower than the average ocean salinity of 35 parts per thousand.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the geographic and hydrological reasons for this low salinity.

• First, the sea is semi-enclosed, connected to the high-salinity North Sea only through the narrow and shallow Danish Straits, which restricts the inflow of saltier water.

• Second, the region experiences high precipitation and receives substantial freshwater discharge from major rivers such as the Vistula and Oder. This combination of high freshwater input and restricted marine exchange creates a stratified water column with a low-salinity surface layer.

• This unique environment supports specific ecosystems but also makes the sea sensitive to pollution and climate change. Geopolitically, it is a critical corridor bordered by nine countries, including Russia and Finland.

Solution: A

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the geographic and hydrological reasons for this low salinity.

• First, the sea is semi-enclosed, connected to the high-salinity North Sea only through the narrow and shallow Danish Straits, which restricts the inflow of saltier water.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Regarding the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements: The Act excludes digital and e-commerce transactions from the definition of consumer rights. Under the Act, a consumer has the right to file a complaint only in the district where the product was purchased. The Act provides for “Product Liability,” but this is limited only to the manufacturer and does not include the service provider. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 Act explicitly brings e-commerce and digital advertisements under its framework for the first time, recognizing the shift in consumer behavior. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act simplifies dispute redressal by allowing consumers to file complaints where they reside or work, rather than just where the transaction occurred. It also introduced e-filing of complaints. Statement 3 is incorrect because Product Liability is comprehensive; it fixes responsibility on the manufacturer, service provider, and even the seller for any harm caused by defective products or deficient services. The Act recognizes six core consumer rights, including the right to be protected against hazardous goods, the right to be informed about quality/price, and the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices. By replacing the 1986 Act, the new law addresses modern challenges like telemarketing and multi-level marketing scams. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 Act explicitly brings e-commerce and digital advertisements under its framework for the first time, recognizing the shift in consumer behavior. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act simplifies dispute redressal by allowing consumers to file complaints where they reside or work, rather than just where the transaction occurred. It also introduced e-filing of complaints. Statement 3 is incorrect because Product Liability is comprehensive; it fixes responsibility on the manufacturer, service provider, and even the seller for any harm caused by defective products or deficient services. The Act recognizes six core consumer rights, including the right to be protected against hazardous goods, the right to be informed about quality/price, and the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices. By replacing the 1986 Act, the new law addresses modern challenges like telemarketing and multi-level marketing scams.

#### 8. Question

Regarding the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

• The Act excludes digital and e-commerce transactions from the definition of consumer rights.

• Under the Act, a consumer has the right to file a complaint only in the district where the product was purchased.

• The Act provides for “Product Liability,” but this is limited only to the manufacturer and does not include the service provider.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 Act explicitly brings e-commerce and digital advertisements under its framework for the first time, recognizing the shift in consumer behavior.

• Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act simplifies dispute redressal by allowing consumers to file complaints where they reside or work, rather than just where the transaction occurred. It also introduced e-filing of complaints.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because Product Liability is comprehensive; it fixes responsibility on the manufacturer, service provider, and even the seller for any harm caused by defective products or deficient services. The Act recognizes six core consumer rights, including the right to be protected against hazardous goods, the right to be informed about quality/price, and the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices. By replacing the 1986 Act, the new law addresses modern challenges like telemarketing and multi-level marketing scams.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 Act explicitly brings e-commerce and digital advertisements under its framework for the first time, recognizing the shift in consumer behavior.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Initial Public Offering (IPO) process: A company must file a Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) only if it intends to list on foreign stock exchanges. The “Pricing” of an IPO is always determined by the Government of India to prevent market volatility. Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) include entities like mutual funds and foreign portfolio investors who are perceived to have expertise in the capital markets. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because filing a DRHP with SEBI is a mandatory requirement for any company wishing to raise money from the public in India, not just for foreign listings. It serves as a disclosure document for potential investors. Statement 2 is incorrect as the pricing is decided by the company in consultation with its merchant bankers based on market demand; the government does not set IPO prices. Statement 3 is correct; Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) are large institutional investors such as Mutual Funds, Banks, and FPIs. SEBI reserves a specific portion of the IPO (often 50%) for QIBs because their participation provides confidence to retail investors. The recent surge in India’s IPO market, where 701 IPOs raised ₹3.8 lakh crore in two years, reflects the growing depth of the Indian capital market and the increasing appetite of both institutional and retail investors for equity as an asset class. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because filing a DRHP with SEBI is a mandatory requirement for any company wishing to raise money from the public in India, not just for foreign listings. It serves as a disclosure document for potential investors. Statement 2 is incorrect as the pricing is decided by the company in consultation with its merchant bankers based on market demand; the government does not set IPO prices. Statement 3 is correct; Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) are large institutional investors such as Mutual Funds, Banks, and FPIs. SEBI reserves a specific portion of the IPO (often 50%) for QIBs because their participation provides confidence to retail investors. The recent surge in India’s IPO market, where 701 IPOs raised ₹3.8 lakh crore in two years, reflects the growing depth of the Indian capital market and the increasing appetite of both institutional and retail investors for equity as an asset class.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Initial Public Offering (IPO) process:

• A company must file a Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) only if it intends to list on foreign stock exchanges.

• The “Pricing” of an IPO is always determined by the Government of India to prevent market volatility.

• Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) include entities like mutual funds and foreign portfolio investors who are perceived to have expertise in the capital markets.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because filing a DRHP with SEBI is a mandatory requirement for any company wishing to raise money from the public in India, not just for foreign listings. It serves as a disclosure document for potential investors.

• Statement 2 is incorrect as the pricing is decided by the company in consultation with its merchant bankers based on market demand; the government does not set IPO prices.

• Statement 3 is correct; Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) are large institutional investors such as Mutual Funds, Banks, and FPIs. SEBI reserves a specific portion of the IPO (often 50%) for QIBs because their participation provides confidence to retail investors.

• The recent surge in India’s IPO market, where 701 IPOs raised ₹3.8 lakh crore in two years, reflects the growing depth of the Indian capital market and the increasing appetite of both institutional and retail investors for equity as an asset class.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is incorrect as the pricing is decided by the company in consultation with its merchant bankers based on market demand; the government does not set IPO prices.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the “Sustainability Focus” of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), consider the following statements: The scheme prohibits the use of plastic waste in road construction to prevent microplastic pollution. Use of cold mix technology is encouraged to reduce the consumption of fuel and carbon emissions. Bio-bitumen and climate-resilient construction techniques are part of the eco-friendly materials adopted. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY actually encourages the use of waste plastic. It is mixed with bitumen to create more durable roads, which also helps in managing plastic waste—a double benefit. Statement 2 is correct; Cold Mix Technology allows for road construction without heating the bitumen to high temperatures, significantly saving fuel and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme has recently introduced bio-bitumen and climate-resilient designs to ensure roads can withstand extreme weather events like floods or landslides, which are becoming more frequent. Over 1 lakh km of roads have been constructed using these “green” technologies. This focus on sustainability ensures that the infrastructure is not only robust but also environmentally responsible. This transition is crucial for India’s Net Zero goals and demonstrates how rural infrastructure can be modernised without a heavy environmental toll. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY actually encourages the use of waste plastic. It is mixed with bitumen to create more durable roads, which also helps in managing plastic waste—a double benefit. Statement 2 is correct; Cold Mix Technology allows for road construction without heating the bitumen to high temperatures, significantly saving fuel and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme has recently introduced bio-bitumen and climate-resilient designs to ensure roads can withstand extreme weather events like floods or landslides, which are becoming more frequent. Over 1 lakh km of roads have been constructed using these “green” technologies. This focus on sustainability ensures that the infrastructure is not only robust but also environmentally responsible. This transition is crucial for India’s Net Zero goals and demonstrates how rural infrastructure can be modernised without a heavy environmental toll.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the “Sustainability Focus” of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), consider the following statements:

• The scheme prohibits the use of plastic waste in road construction to prevent microplastic pollution.

• Use of cold mix technology is encouraged to reduce the consumption of fuel and carbon emissions.

• Bio-bitumen and climate-resilient construction techniques are part of the eco-friendly materials adopted.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY actually encourages the use of waste plastic. It is mixed with bitumen to create more durable roads, which also helps in managing plastic waste—a double benefit.

• Statement 2 is correct; Cold Mix Technology allows for road construction without heating the bitumen to high temperatures, significantly saving fuel and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

• Statement 3 is correct as the scheme has recently introduced bio-bitumen and climate-resilient designs to ensure roads can withstand extreme weather events like floods or landslides, which are becoming more frequent. Over 1 lakh km of roads have been constructed using these “green” technologies.

• This focus on sustainability ensures that the infrastructure is not only robust but also environmentally responsible. This transition is crucial for India’s Net Zero goals and demonstrates how rural infrastructure can be modernised without a heavy environmental toll.

Solution: C

• Statement 2 is correct; Cold Mix Technology allows for road construction without heating the bitumen to high temperatures, significantly saving fuel and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE