UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 19 May 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Inflation occurs when there is an overall increase in the price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. Hyperinflation is a term used to describe extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. Deflation is the opposite of inflation and occurs when the price level of goods and services decreases over time. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) are two measures used to gauge inflation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Inflation is defined as the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and subsequently, purchasing power is falling. Central banks attempt to limit inflation, and avoid deflation, to keep the economy running smoothly. Statement 2: Correct. Hyperinflation is an extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. It can lead to the quick erosion of the real value of local currency, as the prices of all goods increase. Statement 3: Correct. Deflation is the decrease in the general price level of goods and services, which can increase the real value of money. This is the opposite of inflation and can be harmful to the economy, leading to reduced consumer spending and increased real value of debt. Statement 4: Correct. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output. Both are used to gauge inflation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Inflation is defined as the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and subsequently, purchasing power is falling. Central banks attempt to limit inflation, and avoid deflation, to keep the economy running smoothly. Statement 2: Correct. Hyperinflation is an extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. It can lead to the quick erosion of the real value of local currency, as the prices of all goods increase. Statement 3: Correct. Deflation is the decrease in the general price level of goods and services, which can increase the real value of money. This is the opposite of inflation and can be harmful to the economy, leading to reduced consumer spending and increased real value of debt. Statement 4: Correct. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output. Both are used to gauge inflation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Inflation occurs when there is an overall increase in the price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. Hyperinflation is a term used to describe extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. Deflation is the opposite of inflation and occurs when the price level of goods and services decreases over time. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) are two measures used to gauge inflation.

• Inflation occurs when there is an overall increase in the price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time.

• Hyperinflation is a term used to describe extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month.

• Deflation is the opposite of inflation and occurs when the price level of goods and services decreases over time.

• The Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) are two measures used to gauge inflation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Correct. Inflation is defined as the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and subsequently, purchasing power is falling. Central banks attempt to limit inflation, and avoid deflation, to keep the economy running smoothly.

• Statement 2: Correct. Hyperinflation is an extremely high and typically accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. It can lead to the quick erosion of the real value of local currency, as the prices of all goods increase.

• Statement 3: Correct. Deflation is the decrease in the general price level of goods and services, which can increase the real value of money. This is the opposite of inflation and can be harmful to the economy, leading to reduced consumer spending and increased real value of debt.

• Statement 4: Correct. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output. Both are used to gauge inflation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The Reserve Bank of India is using which of the following inflation indices as anchor for ‘Inflation Targeting’? (a) CPI (b) WPI (c) IIP (d) CPI(Combined) Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The inflation target in India is indeed fixed in terms of the all-India Consumer Price Index (CPI)-Combined. This index reflects the price changes for a basket of goods and services consumed by households. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The inflation target in India is indeed fixed in terms of the all-India Consumer Price Index (CPI)-Combined. This index reflects the price changes for a basket of goods and services consumed by households. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

#### 2. Question

The Reserve Bank of India is using which of the following inflation indices as anchor for ‘Inflation Targeting’?

• (d) CPI(Combined)

Explanation:

• The inflation target in India is indeed fixed in terms of the all-India Consumer Price Index (CPI)-Combined. This index reflects the price changes for a basket of goods and services consumed by households.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Soil nailing, consider the following statements: Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations. Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to enhance its strength. Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Soil nailing is indeed a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations. It involves inserting reinforcing elements, called soil nails, into the ground to create a composite mass that resists deformation. Statement 2: Incorrect. Soil nails are typically installed at an angle, not vertically. The angle of installation is usually between 10 to 20 degrees from the horizontal to provide optimal stability and resistance to the forces acting on the slope or excavation. Statement 3: Correct. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements, usually steel bars, into the soil to enhance its strength and stability. Statement 4: Incorrect. While soil nailing can be used in various soil types, it is not primarily for soft soils with high moisture content. The method is versatile and can be used in a range of soil conditions, but it is particularly effective in stiff clays, dense sands, and other cohesive soils. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/soil-nailing/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Soil nailing is indeed a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations. It involves inserting reinforcing elements, called soil nails, into the ground to create a composite mass that resists deformation. Statement 2: Incorrect. Soil nails are typically installed at an angle, not vertically. The angle of installation is usually between 10 to 20 degrees from the horizontal to provide optimal stability and resistance to the forces acting on the slope or excavation. Statement 3: Correct. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements, usually steel bars, into the soil to enhance its strength and stability. Statement 4: Incorrect. While soil nailing can be used in various soil types, it is not primarily for soft soils with high moisture content. The method is versatile and can be used in a range of soil conditions, but it is particularly effective in stiff clays, dense sands, and other cohesive soils. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/soil-nailing/

#### 3. Question

With reference to Soil nailing, consider the following statements:

• Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations. Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to enhance its strength. Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content.

• Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations.

• Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability.

• The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to enhance its strength.

• Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Correct. Soil nailing is indeed a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations. It involves inserting reinforcing elements, called soil nails, into the ground to create a composite mass that resists deformation.

• Statement 2: Incorrect. Soil nails are typically installed at an angle, not vertically. The angle of installation is usually between 10 to 20 degrees from the horizontal to provide optimal stability and resistance to the forces acting on the slope or excavation.

• Statement 3: Correct. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements, usually steel bars, into the soil to enhance its strength and stability.

• Statement 4: Incorrect. While soil nailing can be used in various soil types, it is not primarily for soft soils with high moisture content. The method is versatile and can be used in a range of soil conditions, but it is particularly effective in stiff clays, dense sands, and other cohesive soils.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/soil-nailing/

Explanation:

• Statement 3: Correct. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements, usually steel bars, into the soil to enhance its strength and stability.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/soil-nailing/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: The NCDRC is a statutory body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The NCDRC has jurisdiction to entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services and compensation is claimed up to one crore rupees. The NCDRC is headquartered in Mumbai. Appeals against the orders of the NCDRC can be made directly to the Supreme Court of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct ANs:(b) Explanation: S1: The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to provide a mechanism for the quick resolution of consumer disputes. S2: Centre notifies rules for Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021 The revised pecuniary jurisdiction for entertaining consumer complaints shall be upto – 50 lakh for District Commissions, More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai. S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before reaching the highest judicial body. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/services-under-the-consumer-protection-act/ Incorrect ANs:(b) Explanation: S1: The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to provide a mechanism for the quick resolution of consumer disputes. S2: Centre notifies rules for Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021 The revised pecuniary jurisdiction for entertaining consumer complaints shall be upto – 50 lakh for District Commissions, More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai. S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before reaching the highest judicial body. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/services-under-the-consumer-protection-act/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:

• The NCDRC is a statutory body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The NCDRC has jurisdiction to entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services and compensation is claimed up to one crore rupees. The NCDRC is headquartered in Mumbai. Appeals against the orders of the NCDRC can be made directly to the Supreme Court of India.

• The NCDRC is a statutory body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

• The NCDRC has jurisdiction to entertain consumer complaints where the value of goods or services and compensation is claimed up to one crore rupees.

• The NCDRC is headquartered in Mumbai.

• Appeals against the orders of the NCDRC can be made directly to the Supreme Court of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• S1: The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to provide a mechanism for the quick resolution of consumer disputes.

• S2: Centre notifies rules for Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021 The revised pecuniary jurisdiction for entertaining consumer complaints shall be upto – 50 lakh for District Commissions, More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai. S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before reaching the highest judicial body.

• The revised pecuniary jurisdiction for entertaining consumer complaints shall be upto – 50 lakh for District Commissions, More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission

• 50 lakh for District Commissions,

• More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and

• More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission

• S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

• S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before reaching the highest judicial body.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/services-under-the-consumer-protection-act/

Explanation:

• S1: The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to provide a mechanism for the quick resolution of consumer disputes.

• 50 lakh for District Commissions,

• More than ₹50 lakh to ₹2 Crore for State Commissions and

• More than ₹2 Crore for National Commission

• S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

• S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before reaching the highest judicial body.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/services-under-the-consumer-protection-act/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)’, consider the following statements. CAATSA was enacted in response to Russia’s interference in the 2016 U.S. elections. The primary goal of CAATSA is to enhance the U.S. military presence in Eastern Europe. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to potential sanctions under CAATSA. S1: CAATSA was enacted in response to various actions by Russia, including its interference in the 2016 U.S. elections, its involvement in the conflict in Ukraine, and its support for the Assad regime in Syria. S2: It, enacted in 2017, is a US law targeting countries engaged with Russia, North Korea, and Iran through economic sanctions. It imposes penalties on nations conducting significant transactions with Russian intelligence and military entities. In 2018, the US House of Representatives passed an amendment exempting India from CAATSA sanctions for purchasing the S-400 missile defence system from Russia. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/countering-americas-adversaries-through-sanctions-act-caatsa-4/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to potential sanctions under CAATSA. S1: CAATSA was enacted in response to various actions by Russia, including its interference in the 2016 U.S. elections, its involvement in the conflict in Ukraine, and its support for the Assad regime in Syria. S2: It, enacted in 2017, is a US law targeting countries engaged with Russia, North Korea, and Iran through economic sanctions. It imposes penalties on nations conducting significant transactions with Russian intelligence and military entities. In 2018, the US House of Representatives passed an amendment exempting India from CAATSA sanctions for purchasing the S-400 missile defence system from Russia. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/countering-americas-adversaries-through-sanctions-act-caatsa-4/

#### 5. Question

With reference to Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)’, consider the following statements.

• CAATSA was enacted in response to Russia’s interference in the 2016 U.S. elections. The primary goal of CAATSA is to enhance the U.S. military presence in Eastern Europe.

• CAATSA was enacted in response to Russia’s interference in the 2016 U.S. elections.

• The primary goal of CAATSA is to enhance the U.S. military presence in Eastern Europe.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to potential sanctions under CAATSA.

• S1: CAATSA was enacted in response to various actions by Russia, including its interference in the 2016 U.S. elections, its involvement in the conflict in Ukraine, and its support for the Assad regime in Syria.

• S2: It, enacted in 2017, is a US law targeting countries engaged with Russia, North Korea, and Iran through economic sanctions. It imposes penalties on nations conducting significant transactions with Russian intelligence and military entities. In 2018, the US House of Representatives passed an amendment exempting India from CAATSA sanctions for purchasing the S-400 missile defence system from Russia.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/countering-americas-adversaries-through-sanctions-act-caatsa-4/

Explanation:

• Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to potential sanctions under CAATSA.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/countering-americas-adversaries-through-sanctions-act-caatsa-4/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024 is released by the (a) WEF (b) UNPF (c) OECD (d) None Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The report was released by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) A report by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) reveals that about 76 million people were internally displaced (IDPs) globally by the end of 2023, up from over 71 million in 2022. Of these, over 68 million were displaced due to conflict and violence, with Sudan, Syria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Colombia, and Yemen hosting nearly half. In South Asia, Manipur is a significant contributor. The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre or IDMC is an international non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The report was released by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) A report by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) reveals that about 76 million people were internally displaced (IDPs) globally by the end of 2023, up from over 71 million in 2022. Of these, over 68 million were displaced due to conflict and violence, with Sudan, Syria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Colombia, and Yemen hosting nearly half. In South Asia, Manipur is a significant contributor. The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre or IDMC is an international non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

#### 6. Question

Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024 is released by the

Explanation:

• The report was released by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC)

• A report by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) reveals that about 76 million people were internally displaced (IDPs) globally by the end of 2023, up from over 71 million in 2022. Of these, over 68 million were displaced due to conflict and violence, with Sudan, Syria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Colombia, and Yemen hosting nearly half.

• In South Asia, Manipur is a significant contributor.

• The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre or IDMC is an international non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

Explanation:

• The report was released by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC)

• In South Asia, Manipur is a significant contributor.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’ is released by the (a) IPCC (b) UNCCD (c) UNEP (d) None Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’, released by the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) In India, over 70% of arable land faces degradation and desertification. Additionally, the top 10% of landowners control 45% of the farmland, and the average agricultural holding is just 1.08 hectares (2015-16). What is Land Squeeze?: Land Squeeze refers to the increasing and converging pressures on global farmland, leading to issues like land degradation, desertification, land concentration, and fragmentation IPES-Food is an international non-profit association, with the goal to promote transition to sustainable food systems around the world and it was registered in Belgium in the year 2015. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’, released by the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) In India, over 70% of arable land faces degradation and desertification. Additionally, the top 10% of landowners control 45% of the farmland, and the average agricultural holding is just 1.08 hectares (2015-16). What is Land Squeeze?: Land Squeeze refers to the increasing and converging pressures on global farmland, leading to issues like land degradation, desertification, land concentration, and fragmentation IPES-Food is an international non-profit association, with the goal to promote transition to sustainable food systems around the world and it was registered in Belgium in the year 2015. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

#### 7. Question

A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’ is released by the

Explanation:

• A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’, released by the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food)

• In India, over 70% of arable land faces degradation and desertification. Additionally, the top 10% of landowners control 45% of the farmland, and the average agricultural holding is just 1.08 hectares (2015-16).

• What is Land Squeeze?: Land Squeeze refers to the increasing and converging pressures on global farmland, leading to issues like land degradation, desertification, land concentration, and fragmentation

• IPES-Food is an international non-profit association, with the goal to promote transition to sustainable food systems around the world and it was registered in Belgium in the year 2015.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

Explanation:

• A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’, released by the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food)

• IPES-Food is an international non-profit association, with the goal to promote transition to sustainable food systems around the world and it was registered in Belgium in the year 2015.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points World Wildlife Crime Report 2024 is released by the (a) WWF (b) FATF (c) UNODC (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) A report covering 2015-2021 reveals that rhinoceroses and cedars were the most impacted animal and plant species, respectively. The largest number of seizures during this period involved corals, followed by crocodilians and elephants. Animal species seizures increased from 2015 to 2019 before declining in 2020 and 2021, while plant species seizures saw a sharp rise in 2020 and 2021. Wildlife crime, defined as the illegal taking, possession, trade, or use of wild animals and plants or their derivatives, is driven by demand for medicine, pets, bushmeat, and ornamental plants, along with the high profits from illegal trade and corruption undermining regulations. Globally, efforts to combat wildlife crime include the UNODC’s Global Programme for Combating Wildlife and Forest Crime, launched in 2014, and the Wildlife Crime Initiative by TRAFFIC and WWF The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), established in 1997 by merging the UNDCP and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division, focuses on combating illicit drug trafficking and abuse, crime prevention, criminal justice, international terrorism, and political corruption. It adopted its current name in 2002 and is part of the United Nations Development Group Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) A report covering 2015-2021 reveals that rhinoceroses and cedars were the most impacted animal and plant species, respectively. The largest number of seizures during this period involved corals, followed by crocodilians and elephants. Animal species seizures increased from 2015 to 2019 before declining in 2020 and 2021, while plant species seizures saw a sharp rise in 2020 and 2021. Wildlife crime, defined as the illegal taking, possession, trade, or use of wild animals and plants or their derivatives, is driven by demand for medicine, pets, bushmeat, and ornamental plants, along with the high profits from illegal trade and corruption undermining regulations. Globally, efforts to combat wildlife crime include the UNODC’s Global Programme for Combating Wildlife and Forest Crime, launched in 2014, and the Wildlife Crime Initiative by TRAFFIC and WWF The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), established in 1997 by merging the UNDCP and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division, focuses on combating illicit drug trafficking and abuse, crime prevention, criminal justice, international terrorism, and political corruption. It adopted its current name in 2002 and is part of the United Nations Development Group Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

#### 8. Question

World Wildlife Crime Report 2024 is released by the

Explanation:

• Released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)

• A report covering 2015-2021 reveals that rhinoceroses and cedars were the most impacted animal and plant species, respectively. The largest number of seizures during this period involved corals, followed by crocodilians and elephants.

• Animal species seizures increased from 2015 to 2019 before declining in 2020 and 2021, while plant species seizures saw a sharp rise in 2020 and 2021.

• Wildlife crime, defined as the illegal taking, possession, trade, or use of wild animals and plants or their derivatives, is driven by demand for medicine, pets, bushmeat, and ornamental plants, along with the high profits from illegal trade and corruption undermining regulations.

• Globally, efforts to combat wildlife crime include the UNODC’s Global Programme for Combating Wildlife and Forest Crime, launched in 2014, and the Wildlife Crime Initiative by TRAFFIC and WWF

• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), established in 1997 by merging the UNDCP and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division, focuses on combating illicit drug trafficking and abuse, crime prevention, criminal justice, international terrorism, and political corruption. It adopted its current name in 2002 and is part of the United Nations Development Group

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

Explanation:

• Released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)

• Animal species seizures increased from 2015 to 2019 before declining in 2020 and 2021, while plant species seizures saw a sharp rise in 2020 and 2021.

• Globally, efforts to combat wildlife crime include the UNODC’s Global Programme for Combating Wildlife and Forest Crime, launched in 2014, and the Wildlife Crime Initiative by TRAFFIC and WWF

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Project BHISHM is an initiative by the Indian Army. The project aims to enhance the combat capabilities of T-90 and Arjun tanks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Indian Air Force conducted a test of BHISHM portable hospital cubes in Agra, marking the first such test by the IAF. BHISHM cubes are part of “Project BHISHM” aimed at providing a rapid medical response for up to 200 casualties. Equipped with innovative tools, including AI and data analytics, the cubes are easily transportable and deployable within 12 minutes, suitable for various emergency scenarios. These cubes were strategically deployed during the Pran Pratishtha ceremony in Ayodhya earlier this year to enhance medical preparedness and response capabilities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/bhishm-portable-hospital-cubes/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Indian Air Force conducted a test of BHISHM portable hospital cubes in Agra, marking the first such test by the IAF. BHISHM cubes are part of “Project BHISHM” aimed at providing a rapid medical response for up to 200 casualties. Equipped with innovative tools, including AI and data analytics, the cubes are easily transportable and deployable within 12 minutes, suitable for various emergency scenarios. These cubes were strategically deployed during the Pran Pratishtha ceremony in Ayodhya earlier this year to enhance medical preparedness and response capabilities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/bhishm-portable-hospital-cubes/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Project BHISHM is an initiative by the Indian Army. The project aims to enhance the combat capabilities of T-90 and Arjun tanks.

• Project BHISHM is an initiative by the Indian Army.

• The project aims to enhance the combat capabilities of T-90 and Arjun tanks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Indian Air Force conducted a test of BHISHM portable hospital cubes in Agra, marking the first such test by the IAF.

• BHISHM cubes are part of “Project BHISHM” aimed at providing a rapid medical response for up to 200 casualties. Equipped with innovative tools, including AI and data analytics, the cubes are easily transportable and deployable within 12 minutes, suitable for various emergency scenarios. These cubes were strategically deployed during the Pran Pratishtha ceremony in Ayodhya earlier this year to enhance medical preparedness and response capabilities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/bhishm-portable-hospital-cubes/

Explanation:

• Context: The Indian Air Force conducted a test of BHISHM portable hospital cubes in Agra, marking the first such test by the IAF.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/bhishm-portable-hospital-cubes/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Kanwar Lake, also known as Kabar Taal, is significant for which of the following reasons? (a) It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in India and an important bird sanctuary. (b) It is the deepest natural lake in India, known for its unique marine biodiversity. (c) It is the largest saltwater lake in India, famous for its floating islands. (d) It is an artificial lake created for irrigation purposes in the 20th century. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar, is in critical condition due to encroachment and drying, severely impacting bird habitats. About the lake: Kanwar Lake (also known locally as Kabartal) is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, formed by the meandering Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the monsoon. Recognized as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention (the only one from Bihar), it was declared a protected area in 1986 and later designated as a sanctuary to prevent bird poaching. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/kanwar-lake-bihar/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar, is in critical condition due to encroachment and drying, severely impacting bird habitats. About the lake: Kanwar Lake (also known locally as Kabartal) is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, formed by the meandering Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the monsoon. Recognized as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention (the only one from Bihar), it was declared a protected area in 1986 and later designated as a sanctuary to prevent bird poaching. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/kanwar-lake-bihar/

#### 10. Question

Kanwar Lake, also known as Kabar Taal, is significant for which of the following reasons?

• (a) It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in India and an important bird sanctuary.

• (b) It is the deepest natural lake in India, known for its unique marine biodiversity.

• (c) It is the largest saltwater lake in India, famous for its floating islands.

• (d) It is an artificial lake created for irrigation purposes in the 20th century.

Explanation:

• Context: Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar, is in critical condition due to encroachment and drying, severely impacting bird habitats.

• About the lake: Kanwar Lake (also known locally as Kabartal) is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, formed by the meandering Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the monsoon. Recognized as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention (the only one from Bihar), it was declared a protected area in 1986 and later designated as a sanctuary to prevent bird poaching.

• Kanwar Lake (also known locally as Kabartal) is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, formed by the meandering Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the monsoon. Recognized as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention (the only one from Bihar), it was declared a protected area in 1986 and later designated as a sanctuary to prevent bird poaching.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/kanwar-lake-bihar/

Explanation:

• Context: Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar, is in critical condition due to encroachment and drying, severely impacting bird habitats.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/kanwar-lake-bihar/

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