UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 19 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Lokpal of India, consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under Article 323B of the Constitution of India. The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to the Prime Minister, but allegations of corruption against the PM regarding international relations and internal security are excluded. The Chairperson of Lokpal must be a person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Lokpal is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as per the Act, which provides that the Lokpal shall not inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister if they relate to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space. This ensures that sensitive matters of national importance are not compromised during investigations. Statement 3 is also correct. The eligibility for the Chairperson is strictly defined: they must be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and 25 years of experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, etc. The inclusion of the Prime Minister under the Lokpal’s ambit was a major point of debate during the bill’s passage, eventually leading to the current balanced approach where the PM is covered with specific procedural safeguards. Incorrect Solution: B The Lokpal is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as per the Act, which provides that the Lokpal shall not inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister if they relate to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space. This ensures that sensitive matters of national importance are not compromised during investigations. Statement 3 is also correct. The eligibility for the Chairperson is strictly defined: they must be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and 25 years of experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, etc. The inclusion of the Prime Minister under the Lokpal’s ambit was a major point of debate during the bill’s passage, eventually leading to the current balanced approach where the PM is covered with specific procedural safeguards.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Lokpal of India, consider the following statements:

• It is a constitutional body established under Article 323B of the Constitution of India.

• The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to the Prime Minister, but allegations of corruption against the PM regarding international relations and internal security are excluded.

• The Chairperson of Lokpal must be a person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Lokpal is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Statement 2 is correct as per the Act, which provides that the Lokpal shall not inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister if they relate to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space. This ensures that sensitive matters of national importance are not compromised during investigations.

• Statement 3 is also correct. The eligibility for the Chairperson is strictly defined: they must be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and 25 years of experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, etc.

• The inclusion of the Prime Minister under the Lokpal’s ambit was a major point of debate during the bill’s passage, eventually leading to the current balanced approach where the PM is covered with specific procedural safeguards.

Solution: B

• The Lokpal is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): The CVC was established based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than four Vigilance Commissioners. The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the CVC was set up in 1964 following the Santhanam Committee report (1962-64). It was originally an executive body and was granted statutory status in 2003. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Commission consists of a Chairperson (Central Vigilance Commissioner) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, not four. Statement 3 is correct regarding the appointment process. The Selection Committee is a high-level body comprising the Prime Minister (Chair), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The CVC acts as the “Apex Vigilance Institution,” free from control of any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work. It also exercises superintendence over the CBI for cases related to the Prevention of Corruption Act. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the CVC was set up in 1964 following the Santhanam Committee report (1962-64). It was originally an executive body and was granted statutory status in 2003. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Commission consists of a Chairperson (Central Vigilance Commissioner) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, not four. Statement 3 is correct regarding the appointment process. The Selection Committee is a high-level body comprising the Prime Minister (Chair), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The CVC acts as the “Apex Vigilance Institution,” free from control of any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work. It also exercises superintendence over the CBI for cases related to the Prevention of Corruption Act.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):

• The CVC was established based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

• It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than four Vigilance Commissioners.

• The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct as the CVC was set up in 1964 following the Santhanam Committee report (1962-64). It was originally an executive body and was granted statutory status in 2003.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the Commission consists of a Chairperson (Central Vigilance Commissioner) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, not four.

• Statement 3 is correct regarding the appointment process. The Selection Committee is a high-level body comprising the Prime Minister (Chair), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

The CVC acts as the “Apex Vigilance Institution,” free from control of any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work. It also exercises superintendence over the CBI for cases related to the Prevention of Corruption Act.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct as the CVC was set up in 1964 following the Santhanam Committee report (1962-64). It was originally an executive body and was granted statutory status in 2003.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the Commission consists of a Chairperson (Central Vigilance Commissioner) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners, not four.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the ‘StartUp India’ initiative, consider the following statements: The initiative aims to transform India from a country of job seekers to a country of job creators. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) acts as the nodal agency for its implementation. The “Fund of Funds for Startups” (FFS) is managed directly by the Reserve Bank of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. It is the foundational objective of the StartUp India scheme, launched in 2016. Statement 2 is correct as DPIIT (under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the implementing body. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) with a ₹10,000 crore corpus, it is managed by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India), not the RBI. The FFS does not provide funding directly to startups but invests in SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which in turn invest in startups. This creates a multiplier effect. Over the last decade, the initiative has seen the number of recognized startups grow to over 2 lakh, significantly impacting the innovation landscape, especially in Tier-II and Tier-III cities. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. It is the foundational objective of the StartUp India scheme, launched in 2016. Statement 2 is correct as DPIIT (under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the implementing body. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) with a ₹10,000 crore corpus, it is managed by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India), not the RBI. The FFS does not provide funding directly to startups but invests in SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which in turn invest in startups. This creates a multiplier effect. Over the last decade, the initiative has seen the number of recognized startups grow to over 2 lakh, significantly impacting the innovation landscape, especially in Tier-II and Tier-III cities.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the ‘StartUp India’ initiative, consider the following statements:

• The initiative aims to transform India from a country of job seekers to a country of job creators.

• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) acts as the nodal agency for its implementation.

• The “Fund of Funds for Startups” (FFS) is managed directly by the Reserve Bank of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. It is the foundational objective of the StartUp India scheme, launched in 2016.

• Statement 2 is correct as DPIIT (under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the implementing body.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) with a ₹10,000 crore corpus, it is managed by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India), not the RBI.

The FFS does not provide funding directly to startups but invests in SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which in turn invest in startups. This creates a multiplier effect. Over the last decade, the initiative has seen the number of recognized startups grow to over 2 lakh, significantly impacting the innovation landscape, especially in Tier-II and Tier-III cities.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. It is the foundational objective of the StartUp India scheme, launched in 2016.

• Statement 2 is correct as DPIIT (under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is the implementing body.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to Dugongs, consider the following statements: They are the only strictly marine herbivorous mammals. They are found in both the Indian and Atlantic Oceans. They are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Dugongs are unique among mammals because they are strictly marine herbivores. Unlike manatees, which can inhabit freshwater and estuarine environments, dugongs are entirely dependent on marine ecosystems, particularly shallow coastal waters rich in seagrass meadows. Their anatomy, feeding behavior, and migratory patterns are all closely adapted to seagrass grazing, making them ecologically distinct within the order Sirenia. Statement 2 is incorrect. Dugongs are not found in the Atlantic Ocean. Their distribution is confined to the Indo-Pacific region, including the Indian Ocean, western Pacific Ocean, and the coastal waters of Australia, Southeast Asia, the Red Sea, and parts of East Africa. In contrast, the Atlantic Ocean is inhabited by different sirenian species, namely manatees, not dugongs. Statement 3 is incorrect. On the IUCN Red List, dugongs are classified as ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While their populations are declining due to habitat loss, coastal development, boat strikes, fishing net entanglement, and seagrass degradation, the threat level does not currently meet the criteria for the critically endangered category at the global level, though some local populations are severely threatened. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Dugongs are unique among mammals because they are strictly marine herbivores. Unlike manatees, which can inhabit freshwater and estuarine environments, dugongs are entirely dependent on marine ecosystems, particularly shallow coastal waters rich in seagrass meadows. Their anatomy, feeding behavior, and migratory patterns are all closely adapted to seagrass grazing, making them ecologically distinct within the order Sirenia. Statement 2 is incorrect. Dugongs are not found in the Atlantic Ocean. Their distribution is confined to the Indo-Pacific region, including the Indian Ocean, western Pacific Ocean, and the coastal waters of Australia, Southeast Asia, the Red Sea, and parts of East Africa. In contrast, the Atlantic Ocean is inhabited by different sirenian species, namely manatees, not dugongs. Statement 3 is incorrect. On the IUCN Red List, dugongs are classified as ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While their populations are declining due to habitat loss, coastal development, boat strikes, fishing net entanglement, and seagrass degradation, the threat level does not currently meet the criteria for the critically endangered category at the global level, though some local populations are severely threatened.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Dugongs, consider the following statements:

• They are the only strictly marine herbivorous mammals.

• They are found in both the Indian and Atlantic Oceans.

• They are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Dugongs are unique among mammals because they are strictly marine herbivores. Unlike manatees, which can inhabit freshwater and estuarine environments, dugongs are entirely dependent on marine ecosystems, particularly shallow coastal waters rich in seagrass meadows. Their anatomy, feeding behavior, and migratory patterns are all closely adapted to seagrass grazing, making them ecologically distinct within the order Sirenia.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Dugongs are not found in the Atlantic Ocean. Their distribution is confined to the Indo-Pacific region, including the Indian Ocean, western Pacific Ocean, and the coastal waters of Australia, Southeast Asia, the Red Sea, and parts of East Africa. In contrast, the Atlantic Ocean is inhabited by different sirenian species, namely manatees, not dugongs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. On the IUCN Red List, dugongs are classified as ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While their populations are declining due to habitat loss, coastal development, boat strikes, fishing net entanglement, and seagrass degradation, the threat level does not currently meet the criteria for the critically endangered category at the global level, though some local populations are severely threatened.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara: Statement I: It is the largest tribal festival in Asia, celebrated biennially in the state of Telangana. Statement II: The festival commemorates a revolt against the Kakatiya dynasty’s taxation policies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the historical context (the reason for the celebration/sanctity) of the event. The Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara (also known as Medaram Jatara) is the largest tribal gathering in Asia. It is held in the Mulugu district of Telangana. The Jatara honors the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, against the Kakatiya kings who imposed taxes during a period of severe drought. The martyrdom of these two women turned them into deities for the Koya tribe. Unlike many Hindu festivals, there are no permanent idols; instead, the goddesses are represented by caskets of vermillion and bamboo totems brought from the forest. Devotees offer jaggery (locally called Bangaram or gold) equal to their weight. The festival is significant as it reflects the resistance of indigenous people against state oppression and has been declared a State Festival by the Telangana government. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the historical context (the reason for the celebration/sanctity) of the event. The Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara (also known as Medaram Jatara) is the largest tribal gathering in Asia. It is held in the Mulugu district of Telangana. The Jatara honors the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, against the Kakatiya kings who imposed taxes during a period of severe drought. The martyrdom of these two women turned them into deities for the Koya tribe. Unlike many Hindu festivals, there are no permanent idols; instead, the goddesses are represented by caskets of vermillion and bamboo totems brought from the forest. Devotees offer jaggery (locally called Bangaram or gold) equal to their weight. The festival is significant as it reflects the resistance of indigenous people against state oppression and has been declared a State Festival by the Telangana government.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara:

Statement I: It is the largest tribal festival in Asia, celebrated biennially in the state of Telangana.

Statement II: The festival commemorates a revolt against the Kakatiya dynasty’s taxation policies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the historical context (the reason for the celebration/sanctity) of the event.

• The Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara (also known as Medaram Jatara) is the largest tribal gathering in Asia. It is held in the Mulugu district of Telangana. The Jatara honors the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, against the Kakatiya kings who imposed taxes during a period of severe drought. The martyrdom of these two women turned them into deities for the Koya tribe.

• Unlike many Hindu festivals, there are no permanent idols; instead, the goddesses are represented by caskets of vermillion and bamboo totems brought from the forest. Devotees offer jaggery (locally called Bangaram or gold) equal to their weight.

• The festival is significant as it reflects the resistance of indigenous people against state oppression and has been declared a State Festival by the Telangana government.

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the historical context (the reason for the celebration/sanctity) of the event.

• The festival is significant as it reflects the resistance of indigenous people against state oppression and has been declared a State Festival by the Telangana government.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the geographical location of Mount Elbrus? (a) It is located in the Ural Mountains between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. (b) It is the highest peak in the Alps, situated on the border of France and Italy. (c) It is an extinct volcano located in the Caucasus Mountains in Russia. (d) It is a dormant volcano in the Balkan mountain range. Correct Solution: C Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains in Southern Russia, near the border with Georgia. It is correctly identified as an extinct stratovolcano with two peaks (the West peak being the highest at 5,642 meters). Option (a) is incorrect because while it is between the Black and Caspian Seas, it is in the Caucasus range, not the Ural Mountains (which run north-south and separate Europe from Asia). Option (b) describes Mont Blanc, which is often mistaken for the highest peak in Europe, but geographically, Elbrus holds that title. Option (d) is incorrect as the Balkan range is located further west in Southeastern Europe. Mount Elbrus is one of the “Seven Summits” (the highest peaks on each of the seven continents). Its glaciers feed major rivers like the Kuban and Terek, which are vital for the regional ecology and economy. Incorrect Solution: C Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains in Southern Russia, near the border with Georgia. It is correctly identified as an extinct stratovolcano with two peaks (the West peak being the highest at 5,642 meters). Option (a) is incorrect because while it is between the Black and Caspian Seas, it is in the Caucasus range, not the Ural Mountains (which run north-south and separate Europe from Asia). Option (b) describes Mont Blanc, which is often mistaken for the highest peak in Europe, but geographically, Elbrus holds that title. Option (d) is incorrect as the Balkan range is located further west in Southeastern Europe. Mount Elbrus is one of the “Seven Summits” (the highest peaks on each of the seven continents). Its glaciers feed major rivers like the Kuban and Terek, which are vital for the regional ecology and economy.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the geographical location of Mount Elbrus?

• (a) It is located in the Ural Mountains between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea.

• (b) It is the highest peak in the Alps, situated on the border of France and Italy.

• (c) It is an extinct volcano located in the Caucasus Mountains in Russia.

• (d) It is a dormant volcano in the Balkan mountain range.

Solution: C

• Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains in Southern Russia, near the border with Georgia. It is correctly identified as an extinct stratovolcano with two peaks (the West peak being the highest at 5,642 meters).

• Option (a) is incorrect because while it is between the Black and Caspian Seas, it is in the Caucasus range, not the Ural Mountains (which run north-south and separate Europe from Asia).

• Option (b) describes Mont Blanc, which is often mistaken for the highest peak in Europe, but geographically, Elbrus holds that title.

• Option (d) is incorrect as the Balkan range is located further west in Southeastern Europe.

• Mount Elbrus is one of the “Seven Summits” (the highest peaks on each of the seven continents). Its glaciers feed major rivers like the Kuban and Terek, which are vital for the regional ecology and economy.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect because while it is between the Black and Caspian Seas, it is in the Caucasus range, not the Ural Mountains (which run north-south and separate Europe from Asia).

• Option (b) describes Mont Blanc, which is often mistaken for the highest peak in Europe, but geographically, Elbrus holds that title.

• Option (d) is incorrect as the Balkan range is located further west in Southeastern Europe.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Havana Syndrome’: It is officially termed as Anomalous Health Incidents (AHIs). The symptoms are primarily caused by exposure to biological pathogens in tropical climates. Affected individuals often exhibit symptoms similar to mild traumatic brain injury without visible external injuries. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. In official investigations, particularly by United States government agencies, Havana Syndrome is formally referred to as Anomalous Health Incidents (AHIs). This terminology is used deliberately to avoid prematurely attributing the condition to a specific cause, such as hostile action or environmental exposure, while acknowledging a consistent pattern of unexplained health effects reported by diplomats, intelligence personnel, and their families across multiple countries. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no credible scientific evidence establishing biological pathogens, tropical diseases, or infectious agents as the primary cause of Havana Syndrome. Extensive medical evaluations, epidemiological analyses, and intelligence assessments have ruled out conventional infectious diseases. Hypotheses have instead focused on possibilities such as directed energy exposure, acoustic phenomena, or complex neuropsychological factors, though no single cause has been conclusively proven. Statement 3 is correct. Many affected individuals display symptoms resembling mild traumatic brain injury, including headaches, dizziness, cognitive difficulties, balance problems, and auditory disturbances, despite the absence of visible external trauma. Advanced neuroimaging and clinical assessments in some cases have indicated subtle neurological changes, reinforcing comparisons with concussion-like injuries rather than psychosomatic illness alone. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. In official investigations, particularly by United States government agencies, Havana Syndrome is formally referred to as Anomalous Health Incidents (AHIs). This terminology is used deliberately to avoid prematurely attributing the condition to a specific cause, such as hostile action or environmental exposure, while acknowledging a consistent pattern of unexplained health effects reported by diplomats, intelligence personnel, and their families across multiple countries. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no credible scientific evidence establishing biological pathogens, tropical diseases, or infectious agents as the primary cause of Havana Syndrome. Extensive medical evaluations, epidemiological analyses, and intelligence assessments have ruled out conventional infectious diseases. Hypotheses have instead focused on possibilities such as directed energy exposure, acoustic phenomena, or complex neuropsychological factors, though no single cause has been conclusively proven. Statement 3 is correct. Many affected individuals display symptoms resembling mild traumatic brain injury, including headaches, dizziness, cognitive difficulties, balance problems, and auditory disturbances, despite the absence of visible external trauma. Advanced neuroimaging and clinical assessments in some cases have indicated subtle neurological changes, reinforcing comparisons with concussion-like injuries rather than psychosomatic illness alone.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Havana Syndrome’:

• It is officially termed as Anomalous Health Incidents (AHIs).

• The symptoms are primarily caused by exposure to biological pathogens in tropical climates.

• Affected individuals often exhibit symptoms similar to mild traumatic brain injury without visible external injuries.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. In official investigations, particularly by United States government agencies, Havana Syndrome is formally referred to as Anomalous Health Incidents (AHIs). This terminology is used deliberately to avoid prematurely attributing the condition to a specific cause, such as hostile action or environmental exposure, while acknowledging a consistent pattern of unexplained health effects reported by diplomats, intelligence personnel, and their families across multiple countries.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no credible scientific evidence establishing biological pathogens, tropical diseases, or infectious agents as the primary cause of Havana Syndrome. Extensive medical evaluations, epidemiological analyses, and intelligence assessments have ruled out conventional infectious diseases. Hypotheses have instead focused on possibilities such as directed energy exposure, acoustic phenomena, or complex neuropsychological factors, though no single cause has been conclusively proven.

• Statement 3 is correct. Many affected individuals display symptoms resembling mild traumatic brain injury, including headaches, dizziness, cognitive difficulties, balance problems, and auditory disturbances, despite the absence of visible external trauma. Advanced neuroimaging and clinical assessments in some cases have indicated subtle neurological changes, reinforcing comparisons with concussion-like injuries rather than psychosomatic illness alone.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the M.S. Sahoo Committee, consider the following statements: It was constituted directly by the Ministry of Finance to overhaul the pension system for government employees. The committee is tasked with designing a framework for assured and predictable pension payouts under the National Pension Scheme (NPS). One of its key functions is to create safeguards against the mis-selling of pension products. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect because the committee was constituted by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), not directly by the Ministry of Finance. While PFRDA falls under the Ministry, the specific body creating the expert group is relevant for technical accuracy. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The committee, headed by S. Sahoo (former IBBI Chairperson), aims to design a regulatory framework for assured pension payouts, addressing the market-linked volatility of the NPS. The NPS is a defined contribution scheme, meaning the final pension depends on market performance. The Sahoo Committee seeks to introduce predictability by defining lock-in periods, withdrawal limits, and pricing mechanisms. Furthermore, it focuses on consumer protection by creating safeguards to prevent misleading claims or unfair practices by providers. This shift is crucial for increasing participation among the private sector and self-employed individuals who seek financial security in their post-retirement years. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect because the committee was constituted by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), not directly by the Ministry of Finance. While PFRDA falls under the Ministry, the specific body creating the expert group is relevant for technical accuracy. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The committee, headed by S. Sahoo (former IBBI Chairperson), aims to design a regulatory framework for assured pension payouts, addressing the market-linked volatility of the NPS. The NPS is a defined contribution scheme, meaning the final pension depends on market performance. The Sahoo Committee seeks to introduce predictability by defining lock-in periods, withdrawal limits, and pricing mechanisms. Furthermore, it focuses on consumer protection by creating safeguards to prevent misleading claims or unfair practices by providers. This shift is crucial for increasing participation among the private sector and self-employed individuals who seek financial security in their post-retirement years.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the M.S. Sahoo Committee, consider the following statements:

• It was constituted directly by the Ministry of Finance to overhaul the pension system for government employees.

• The committee is tasked with designing a framework for assured and predictable pension payouts under the National Pension Scheme (NPS).

• One of its key functions is to create safeguards against the mis-selling of pension products.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the committee was constituted by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), not directly by the Ministry of Finance. While PFRDA falls under the Ministry, the specific body creating the expert group is relevant for technical accuracy.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The committee, headed by S. Sahoo (former IBBI Chairperson), aims to design a regulatory framework for assured pension payouts, addressing the market-linked volatility of the NPS.

• The NPS is a defined contribution scheme, meaning the final pension depends on market performance. The Sahoo Committee seeks to introduce predictability by defining lock-in periods, withdrawal limits, and pricing mechanisms. Furthermore, it focuses on consumer protection by creating safeguards to prevent misleading claims or unfair practices by providers. This shift is crucial for increasing participation among the private sector and self-employed individuals who seek financial security in their post-retirement years.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to Jharkhand Megaliths, consider the following statements: They are primarily located in the Singhbhum and Ranchi-Khunti belts. The tradition of building megaliths has completely ceased, leaving only ancient ruins. Some sites serve as solar observatories to track the movement of the sun. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct; these structures are spread across districts like Ranchi, Khunti, and Singhbhum (specifically among Ho communities). Statement 2 is incorrect. A unique feature of Jharkhand’s megaliths is “living megalithism,” where Adivasi communities like the Munda and Oraon continue to place new memorial stones for their ancestors today. This cultural continuity distinguishes these sites from “dead” archaeological ruins found elsewhere. Statement 3 is correct. Research indicates that certain megalithic alignments in the region function as prehistoric calendars, showing deliberate placement to mark the equinox and solstice sunrises or sunsets. These structures, known locally as Sasandiri or Birdiri, serve multiple functions including burial markers, boundary stones, and commemorative monuments. The state government is highlighting this “living tradition + large landscape” combination to secure a UNESCO World Heritage Tag. This fusion of ancient practice and astronomical knowledge makes them globally significant. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct; these structures are spread across districts like Ranchi, Khunti, and Singhbhum (specifically among Ho communities). Statement 2 is incorrect. A unique feature of Jharkhand’s megaliths is “living megalithism,” where Adivasi communities like the Munda and Oraon continue to place new memorial stones for their ancestors today. This cultural continuity distinguishes these sites from “dead” archaeological ruins found elsewhere. Statement 3 is correct. Research indicates that certain megalithic alignments in the region function as prehistoric calendars, showing deliberate placement to mark the equinox and solstice sunrises or sunsets. These structures, known locally as Sasandiri or Birdiri, serve multiple functions including burial markers, boundary stones, and commemorative monuments. The state government is highlighting this “living tradition + large landscape” combination to secure a UNESCO World Heritage Tag. This fusion of ancient practice and astronomical knowledge makes them globally significant.

#### 9. Question

With reference to Jharkhand Megaliths, consider the following statements:

• They are primarily located in the Singhbhum and Ranchi-Khunti belts.

• The tradition of building megaliths has completely ceased, leaving only ancient ruins.

• Some sites serve as solar observatories to track the movement of the sun.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct; these structures are spread across districts like Ranchi, Khunti, and Singhbhum (specifically among Ho communities).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A unique feature of Jharkhand’s megaliths is “living megalithism,” where Adivasi communities like the Munda and Oraon continue to place new memorial stones for their ancestors today. This cultural continuity distinguishes these sites from “dead” archaeological ruins found elsewhere.

• Statement 3 is correct. Research indicates that certain megalithic alignments in the region function as prehistoric calendars, showing deliberate placement to mark the equinox and solstice sunrises or sunsets. These structures, known locally as Sasandiri or Birdiri, serve multiple functions including burial markers, boundary stones, and commemorative monuments.

• The state government is highlighting this “living tradition + large landscape” combination to secure a UNESCO World Heritage Tag. This fusion of ancient practice and astronomical knowledge makes them globally significant.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct; these structures are spread across districts like Ranchi, Khunti, and Singhbhum (specifically among Ho communities).

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the aim(s) of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)? Climate change mitigation Energy security Green economic growth Equitable use of renewable energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D All four objectives are central to IRENA’s mission. The agency aims to accelerate the global energy transition by promoting the widespread and sustainable use of renewable energy. Climate change mitigation is a primary goal, aligning with the Paris Agreement. Energy security is enhanced by reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels. Green economic growth is promoted through investment support and technology cooperation, which creates jobs and modernizes economies. Furthermore, IRENA emphasizes the equitable use of energy, ensuring that developing countries have access to the finance and technology needed for a clean energy transition. It supports SDG-7, which focuses on affordable and clean energy for all. By acting as a multilateral platform for renewable energy diplomacy, IRENA helps countries develop roadmaps and regulations. Incorrect Solution: D All four objectives are central to IRENA’s mission. The agency aims to accelerate the global energy transition by promoting the widespread and sustainable use of renewable energy. Climate change mitigation is a primary goal, aligning with the Paris Agreement. Energy security is enhanced by reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels. Green economic growth is promoted through investment support and technology cooperation, which creates jobs and modernizes economies. Furthermore, IRENA emphasizes the equitable use of energy, ensuring that developing countries have access to the finance and technology needed for a clean energy transition. It supports SDG-7, which focuses on affordable and clean energy for all. By acting as a multilateral platform for renewable energy diplomacy, IRENA helps countries develop roadmaps and regulations.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following is/are the aim(s) of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)?

• Climate change mitigation

• Energy security

• Green economic growth

• Equitable use of renewable energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• All four objectives are central to IRENA’s mission. The agency aims to accelerate the global energy transition by promoting the widespread and sustainable use of renewable energy.

• Climate change mitigation is a primary goal, aligning with the Paris Agreement. Energy security is enhanced by reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels. Green economic growth is promoted through investment support and technology cooperation, which creates jobs and modernizes economies.

• Furthermore, IRENA emphasizes the equitable use of energy, ensuring that developing countries have access to the finance and technology needed for a clean energy transition. It supports SDG-7, which focuses on affordable and clean energy for all. By acting as a multilateral platform for renewable energy diplomacy, IRENA helps countries develop roadmaps and regulations.

Solution: D

• All four objectives are central to IRENA’s mission. The agency aims to accelerate the global energy transition by promoting the widespread and sustainable use of renewable energy.

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