UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 19 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements: All Central Asian republics are permanent members of the SCO. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese. The SCO Development Bank has been established to fund infrastructure projects in member states. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Only statement 2 is correct. The official working languages of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) are Russian and Chinese. All official documents and proceedings of the organization are conducted in these two languages. Statement 1 is incorrect. Not all Central Asian republics are permanent members of the SCO. While Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan are permanent members, Turkmenistan is not a member of the SCO. Turkmenistan has a foreign policy of permanent neutrality, which has been recognized by the United Nations, and it generally refrains from joining political or military blocs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The establishment of an SCO Development Bank is a proposal that has been under discussion for several years, primarily to facilitate financial cooperation and fund joint projects. However, as of now, the bank has not been established. There are differences among member states on the modalities and structure of such a bank. Incorrect Solution: B Only statement 2 is correct. The official working languages of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) are Russian and Chinese. All official documents and proceedings of the organization are conducted in these two languages. Statement 1 is incorrect. Not all Central Asian republics are permanent members of the SCO. While Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan are permanent members, Turkmenistan is not a member of the SCO. Turkmenistan has a foreign policy of permanent neutrality, which has been recognized by the United Nations, and it generally refrains from joining political or military blocs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The establishment of an SCO Development Bank is a proposal that has been under discussion for several years, primarily to facilitate financial cooperation and fund joint projects. However, as of now, the bank has not been established. There are differences among member states on the modalities and structure of such a bank.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements:

• All Central Asian republics are permanent members of the SCO.

• The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.

• The SCO Development Bank has been established to fund infrastructure projects in member states.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Only statement 2 is correct. The official working languages of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) are Russian and Chinese. All official documents and proceedings of the organization are conducted in these two languages.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Not all Central Asian republics are permanent members of the SCO. While Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan are permanent members, Turkmenistan is not a member of the SCO. Turkmenistan has a foreign policy of permanent neutrality, which has been recognized by the United Nations, and it generally refrains from joining political or military blocs.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The establishment of an SCO Development Bank is a proposal that has been under discussion for several years, primarily to facilitate financial cooperation and fund joint projects. However, as of now, the bank has not been established. There are differences among member states on the modalities and structure of such a bank.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the protection offered by GI registration in India: The GI tag helps to protect products against unauthorized use by individuals or entities outside the registered geographic area. GI registration helps promote exports by enhancing the marketability of products linked to their origin. A GI tag can be transferred or assigned to other producers outside the geographical region. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as the GI tag helps protect products from unauthorized use by individuals or producers outside the specified geographical area, thus preserving the unique identity and reputation of the product. Statement 2 is also correct because the GI tag enhances the marketability and export potential of products by linking them to a specific origin known for quality and distinctiveness. Statement 3 is incorrect because a GI tag cannot be transferred or assigned to other producers outside the defined geographical region. GIs are tied to the location of production and the qualities associated with that region. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as the GI tag helps protect products from unauthorized use by individuals or producers outside the specified geographical area, thus preserving the unique identity and reputation of the product. Statement 2 is also correct because the GI tag enhances the marketability and export potential of products by linking them to a specific origin known for quality and distinctiveness. Statement 3 is incorrect because a GI tag cannot be transferred or assigned to other producers outside the defined geographical region. GIs are tied to the location of production and the qualities associated with that region.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the protection offered by GI registration in India:

• The GI tag helps to protect products against unauthorized use by individuals or entities outside the registered geographic area.

• GI registration helps promote exports by enhancing the marketability of products linked to their origin.

• A GI tag can be transferred or assigned to other producers outside the geographical region.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct as the GI tag helps protect products from unauthorized use by individuals or producers outside the specified geographical area, thus preserving the unique identity and reputation of the product.

• Statement 2 is also correct because the GI tag enhances the marketability and export potential of products by linking them to a specific origin known for quality and distinctiveness.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because a GI tag cannot be transferred or assigned to other producers outside the defined geographical region. GIs are tied to the location of production and the qualities associated with that region.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is also correct because the GI tag enhances the marketability and export potential of products by linking them to a specific origin known for quality and distinctiveness.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is incorrect about how a hydrogen fuel cell works? a) Hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode of the fuel cell. b) Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode through the electrolyte, generating an electric current. c) Water is formed at the cathode by combining protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air. d) The only byproducts of the fuel cell reaction are water vapor and heat. Correct Solution: B In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode (Statement a). The electrons do not travel through the electrolyte; instead, they flow from the anode to the cathode through an external circuit, creating an electric current. The electrolyte selectively allows only the protons (positively charged particles) to pass through it to the cathode, ensuring that electrons take the external path to generate usable electricity. At the cathode, protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air combine to form water (Statement c), producing water vapor and heat as byproducts (Statement d). This efficient process of generating electricity with minimal byproducts makes hydrogen fuel cells a promising clean energy source. Incorrect Solution: B In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode (Statement a). The electrons do not travel through the electrolyte; instead, they flow from the anode to the cathode through an external circuit, creating an electric current. The electrolyte selectively allows only the protons (positively charged particles) to pass through it to the cathode, ensuring that electrons take the external path to generate usable electricity. At the cathode, protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air combine to form water (Statement c), producing water vapor and heat as byproducts (Statement d). This efficient process of generating electricity with minimal byproducts makes hydrogen fuel cells a promising clean energy source.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements is incorrect about how a hydrogen fuel cell works?

• a) Hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode of the fuel cell.

• b) Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode through the electrolyte, generating an electric current.

• c) Water is formed at the cathode by combining protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air.

• d) The only byproducts of the fuel cell reaction are water vapor and heat.

Solution: B

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode (Statement a).

The electrons do not travel through the electrolyte; instead, they flow from the anode to the cathode through an external circuit, creating an electric current. The electrolyte selectively allows only the protons (positively charged particles) to pass through it to the cathode, ensuring that electrons take the external path to generate usable electricity.

At the cathode, protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air combine to form water (Statement c), producing water vapor and heat as byproducts (Statement d). This efficient process of generating electricity with minimal byproducts makes hydrogen fuel cells a promising clean energy source.

Solution: B

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen molecules are split into protons and electrons at the anode (Statement a).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA): The IAEA is a United Nations based organisation responsible for promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy. The Additional Protocol of the IAEA allows for more stringent inspections of nuclear facilities to ensure peaceful use. India is not a member of the IAEA as it is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct). It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria. The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct). However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution: A The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct). It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria. The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct). However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):

• The IAEA is a United Nations based organisation responsible for promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy.

• The Additional Protocol of the IAEA allows for more stringent inspections of nuclear facilities to ensure peaceful use.

• India is not a member of the IAEA as it is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct).

• It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria.

• The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct).

• However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

Solution: A

• The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct).

• The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct).

• However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solar Radiation Management (SRM) and the use of diamond dust: SRM aims to reduce greenhouse gases in the atmosphere by increasing the amount of sunlight that reaches the Earth’s surface. Diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its low reflectivity and minimal effect on solar radiation. The Mount Pinatubo eruption is an example of natural SRM effects, where sulfur dioxide release led to a temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Only statement 3 is correct. The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM. Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space. Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels. Incorrect Solution: A Only statement 3 is correct. The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM. Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space. Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Solar Radiation Management (SRM) and the use of diamond dust:

• SRM aims to reduce greenhouse gases in the atmosphere by increasing the amount of sunlight that reaches the Earth’s surface.

• Diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its low reflectivity and minimal effect on solar radiation.

• The Mount Pinatubo eruption is an example of natural SRM effects, where sulfur dioxide release led to a temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Only statement 3 is correct.

The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM.

Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space.

Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels.

Solution: A

Only statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and lifestyle of the Indian flapshell turtle: The Indian flapshell turtle is found across South Asia, including countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh. This species is omnivorous, feeding on a variety of plants, insects, and small animals. It is well adapted to drought conditions and can survive in low-water environments. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals. Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals. Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and lifestyle of the Indian flapshell turtle:

• The Indian flapshell turtle is found across South Asia, including countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh.

• This species is omnivorous, feeding on a variety of plants, insects, and small animals.

• It is well adapted to drought conditions and can survive in low-water environments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.

Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals.

Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.

Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals.

Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Match the following movements with their corresponding leaders or key contributions of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Movements Contributions by Sardar Patel A. Kheda Satyagraha 1. Mobilized significant funds for Khadi promotion B. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Gained the title “Sardar” for successful leadership C. Quit India Movement 3. Called for mass protests against British Salt Laws D. Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Supported farmers during a famine against tax collection Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 Correct Solution: D In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine. The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments. During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence. In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods. Incorrect Solution: D In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine. The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments. During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence. In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods.

#### 7. Question

Match the following movements with their corresponding leaders or key contributions of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

Movements | Contributions by Sardar Patel

A. Kheda Satyagraha | 1. Mobilized significant funds for Khadi promotion

B. Bardoli Satyagraha | 2. Gained the title “Sardar” for successful leadership

C. Quit India Movement | 3. Called for mass protests against British Salt Laws

D. Non-Cooperation Movement | 4. Supported farmers during a famine against tax collection

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

• (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

• (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Solution: D

• In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine.

• The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments.

• During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence.

• In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods.

Solution: D

• In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine.

• The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments.

• During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and threats to the Great Indian Bustard: The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix II of CITES. The primary threats to its survival include habitat destruction, power line collisions, and human interference. It is included under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in India. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade. Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade. Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and threats to the Great Indian Bustard:

• The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix II of CITES.

• The primary threats to its survival include habitat destruction, power line collisions, and human interference.

• It is included under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in India.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade.

Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT): Both SAI and CCT target shortwave solar radiation to mitigate global warming. SAI involves dispersing reflective aerosols in the troposphere, while CCT focuses on reducing the amount of longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Both techniques aim to increase the Earth’s albedo to reduce the amount of heat absorbed by the surface. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect. Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation. Incorrect Solution: A Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect. Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT):

• Both SAI and CCT target shortwave solar radiation to mitigate global warming.

• SAI involves dispersing reflective aerosols in the troposphere, while CCT focuses on reducing the amount of longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

• Both techniques aim to increase the Earth’s albedo to reduce the amount of heat absorbed by the surface.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect.

Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the composition and formation of coking coal: Coking coal has high sulphur and phosphorus levels, making it ideal for steel production. It is formed from the carbonization process, which produces metallurgical coke at high temperatures. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production. Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production. Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the composition and formation of coking coal:

• Coking coal has high sulphur and phosphorus levels, making it ideal for steel production.

• It is formed from the carbonization process, which produces metallurgical coke at high temperatures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry.

Solution: B

Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production.

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