UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 19 February 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a component of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme? (a) Price Support Scheme (PSS) (b) Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) (c) Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) (d) National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) Correct Solution: D The PM-AASHA scheme includes three major components: Price Support Scheme (PSS) – Direct procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra at Minimum Support Price (MSP). Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) – Farmers receive direct payments for the difference between market price and MSP. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) – Government intervention for perishable horticultural crops to prevent distress selling. Option (d) is incorrect: e-NAM is a separate initiative aimed at creating a unified online trading platform for agricultural commodities, not part of PM-AASHA. About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme: What it is: An umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to farmers through effective procurement operations and price support mechanisms. Ministry: Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Implementing Agency: Implemented through Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF) along with State Governments. Components: Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25). Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement. Key Features: Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce. Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years. Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports. Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers. Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers. Incorrect Solution: D The PM-AASHA scheme includes three major components: Price Support Scheme (PSS) – Direct procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra at Minimum Support Price (MSP). Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) – Farmers receive direct payments for the difference between market price and MSP. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) – Government intervention for perishable horticultural crops to prevent distress selling. Option (d) is incorrect: e-NAM is a separate initiative aimed at creating a unified online trading platform for agricultural commodities, not part of PM-AASHA. About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme: What it is: An umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to farmers through effective procurement operations and price support mechanisms. Ministry: Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Implementing Agency: Implemented through Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF) along with State Governments. Components: Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25). Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement. Key Features: Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce. Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years. Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports. Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers. Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme?

• (a) Price Support Scheme (PSS)

• (b) Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)

• (c) Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)

• (d) National Agricultural Market (e-NAM)

Solution: D

The PM-AASHA scheme includes three major components:

• Price Support Scheme (PSS) – Direct procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra at Minimum Support Price (MSP).

• Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) – Farmers receive direct payments for the difference between market price and MSP.

• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) – Government intervention for perishable horticultural crops to prevent distress selling.

Option (d) is incorrect: e-NAM is a separate initiative aimed at creating a unified online trading platform for agricultural commodities, not part of PM-AASHA.

About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme:

• What it is: An umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to farmers through effective procurement operations and price support mechanisms.

• Ministry: Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.

• Implementing Agency: Implemented through Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF) along with State Governments.

• Components: Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25). Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement.

• Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25).

• Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers.

• Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months.

• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement.

• Key Features:

• Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce. Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years. Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports. Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers. Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers.

• Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce.

• Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years.

• Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports.

• Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers.

• Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers.

Solution: D

The PM-AASHA scheme includes three major components:

• Price Support Scheme (PSS) – Direct procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra at Minimum Support Price (MSP).

• Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) – Farmers receive direct payments for the difference between market price and MSP.

• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) – Government intervention for perishable horticultural crops to prevent distress selling.

Option (d) is incorrect: e-NAM is a separate initiative aimed at creating a unified online trading platform for agricultural commodities, not part of PM-AASHA.

About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme:

• What it is: An umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to farmers through effective procurement operations and price support mechanisms.

• Ministry: Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.

• Implementing Agency: Implemented through Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF) along with State Governments.

• Components: Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25). Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement.

• Price Support Scheme (PSS): procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra at MSP through NAFED & NCCF, covering 25% of national production (except 100% for Tur, Urad, Masur in 2024-25).

• Price Stabilization Fund (PSF): Maintains buffer stock of pulses and onions to stabilize prices, prevent hoarding, and ensure affordable supply to consumers.

• Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Farmers receive direct compensation for the difference between MSP & market price, with coverage extended to 40% of oilseed production for four months.

• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Provides remunerative prices for perishable horticulture crops, covering 25% of production, with direct payment to farmers instead of physical procurement.

• Key Features:

• Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce. Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years. Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports. Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers. Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers.

• Procurement at MSP: Ensures farmers receive fair prices for their produce.

• Self-Sufficiency in Pulses: Govt. commits 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masur for the next four years.

• Reduction in Import Dependence: Enhances domestic production and minimizes reliance on pulses imports.

• Direct Farmer Registration: Pre-registered farmers sell directly at mandated procurement centers.

• Market Price Stabilization: Prevents price volatility and ensures affordable prices for consumers.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack? a) A cyber attack that exploits zero-day vulnerabilities in operating systems b) An attack where a hacker gains remote access to a system and steals sensitive data c) A coordinated effort where multiple devices flood a target system with excessive requests to disrupt its services d) A type of malware that encrypts a victim’s data and demands ransom for decryption Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct: A DDoS attack overwhelms a target server, website, or network with high traffic from multiple compromised devices (botnets), causing service disruptions. Option (a) is incorrect: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities is more associated with Advanced Persistent Threats (APT) than DDoS. Option (b) is incorrect: Remote access hacking is a different type of cyber attack (e.g., Remote Access Trojans). Option (d) is incorrect: Encrypting files for ransom is associated with Ransomware attacks, not DDoS. What is a DDoS Attack? A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions. It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system. How Does a DDoS Attack Work? Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots. Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power. Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure. Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment. How to Counter a DDoS Attack? Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring. Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload. Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks. Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access. Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct: A DDoS attack overwhelms a target server, website, or network with high traffic from multiple compromised devices (botnets), causing service disruptions. Option (a) is incorrect: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities is more associated with Advanced Persistent Threats (APT) than DDoS. Option (b) is incorrect: Remote access hacking is a different type of cyber attack (e.g., Remote Access Trojans). Option (d) is incorrect: Encrypting files for ransom is associated with Ransomware attacks, not DDoS. What is a DDoS Attack? A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions. It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system. How Does a DDoS Attack Work? Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots. Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power. Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure. Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment. How to Counter a DDoS Attack? Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring. Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload. Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks. Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access. Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best describes a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

• a) A cyber attack that exploits zero-day vulnerabilities in operating systems

• b) An attack where a hacker gains remote access to a system and steals sensitive data

• c) A coordinated effort where multiple devices flood a target system with excessive requests to disrupt its services

• d) A type of malware that encrypts a victim’s data and demands ransom for decryption

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct: A DDoS attack overwhelms a target server, website, or network with high traffic from multiple compromised devices (botnets), causing service disruptions.

Option (a) is incorrect: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities is more associated with Advanced Persistent Threats (APT) than DDoS.

Option (b) is incorrect: Remote access hacking is a different type of cyber attack (e.g., Remote Access Trojans).

Option (d) is incorrect: Encrypting files for ransom is associated with Ransomware attacks, not DDoS.

• What is a DDoS Attack? A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions. It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system.

• A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions.

• It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system.

• How Does a DDoS Attack Work? Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots. Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power. Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure. Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment.

• Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots.

• Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power.

• Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure.

• Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment.

• How to Counter a DDoS Attack? Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring. Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload. Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks. Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access. Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats.

• Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring.

• Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload.

• Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks.

• Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access.

• Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats.

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct: A DDoS attack overwhelms a target server, website, or network with high traffic from multiple compromised devices (botnets), causing service disruptions.

Option (a) is incorrect: Exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities is more associated with Advanced Persistent Threats (APT) than DDoS.

Option (b) is incorrect: Remote access hacking is a different type of cyber attack (e.g., Remote Access Trojans).

Option (d) is incorrect: Encrypting files for ransom is associated with Ransomware attacks, not DDoS.

• What is a DDoS Attack? A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions. It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system.

• A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attackfloods a server or network with excessive traffic, causing service disruptions.

• It leverages a botneta network of compromised devices—to send overwhelming requests to the target system.

• How Does a DDoS Attack Work? Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots. Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power. Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure. Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment.

• Botnet Formation:Hackers infect multiple devices with malware, converting them into bots.

• Traffic Overload:The botnet directs massive fake requests to the target, exhausting bandwidth or processing power.

• Service Disruption:Legitimate users experience slowdowns or complete service failure.

• Diversion Tactic:Attackers may use DDoS as a smokescreen for data breaches or malware deployment.

• How to Counter a DDoS Attack? Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring. Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload. Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks. Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access. Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats.

• Traffic Filtering:Identify and block malicious requests using AI-based monitoring.

• Rate Limiting:Restrict the number of requests per user to prevent overload.

• Bot Detection Tools:Use CAPTCHA and behavioral analysis to block automated attacks.

• Robust Authentication:Strengthen login security to prevent unauthorized access.

• Incident Response Teams:Establish cybersecurity teams to monitor, detect, and mitigate threats.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding fecal coliform bacteria: High levels of fecal coliform in water bodies indicate excessive organic pollution, leading to an increase in Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The presence of fecal coliform in drinking water suggests the possible contamination of water with harmful enteric pathogens. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation and chlorination are ineffective in removing fecal coliform bacteria from water sources. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: High fecal coliform levels indicate organic waste pollution, which increases BOD, leading to oxygen depletion in water bodies. Statement 2 is correct: Fecal coliform bacteria suggest the presence of harmful enteric pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae. Statement 3 is incorrect: UV radiation and chlorination are effective in killing fecal coliform bacteria, making water safe for drinking. About Fecal Coliform: What it is? A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans. Limit: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) standards have set a permissible limit of 2,500 units of faecal coliform per 100 ml of water, while for drinking water, E. coli must be absent. Types of Bacteria: Includes Escherichia coli ( coli), with certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 being harmful and capable of causing intestinal infections. What its Presence Indicates? Sewage contamination of water sources. Potential presence of disease-causing pathogens such as those responsible for typhoid, hepatitis A, and gastroenteritis. Poor waste management, leakage from septic systems, or agricultural runoff polluting water bodies. Impacts of Fecal coliform on BOD and COD: BOD Increase: Fecal coliform bacteria decompose organic waste, consuming dissolved oxygen and raising Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), leading to oxygen depletion and aquatic life suffocation. COD Increase: Contaminants from sewage and industrial discharge raise Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), indicating non-biodegradable pollutants, lowering water quality and harming ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: High fecal coliform levels indicate organic waste pollution, which increases BOD, leading to oxygen depletion in water bodies. Statement 2 is correct: Fecal coliform bacteria suggest the presence of harmful enteric pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae. Statement 3 is incorrect: UV radiation and chlorination are effective in killing fecal coliform bacteria, making water safe for drinking. About Fecal Coliform: What it is? A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans. Limit: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) standards have set a permissible limit of 2,500 units of faecal coliform per 100 ml of water, while for drinking water, E. coli must be absent. Types of Bacteria: Includes Escherichia coli ( coli), with certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 being harmful and capable of causing intestinal infections. What its Presence Indicates? Sewage contamination of water sources. Potential presence of disease-causing pathogens such as those responsible for typhoid, hepatitis A, and gastroenteritis. Poor waste management, leakage from septic systems, or agricultural runoff polluting water bodies. Impacts of Fecal coliform on BOD and COD: BOD Increase: Fecal coliform bacteria decompose organic waste, consuming dissolved oxygen and raising Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), leading to oxygen depletion and aquatic life suffocation. COD Increase: Contaminants from sewage and industrial discharge raise Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), indicating non-biodegradable pollutants, lowering water quality and harming ecosystems.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding fecal coliform bacteria:

• High levels of fecal coliform in water bodies indicate excessive organic pollution, leading to an increase in Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).

• The presence of fecal coliform in drinking water suggests the possible contamination of water with harmful enteric pathogens.

• Ultraviolet (UV) radiation and chlorination are ineffective in removing fecal coliform bacteria from water sources.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: High fecal coliform levels indicate organic waste pollution, which increases BOD, leading to oxygen depletion in water bodies.

Statement 2 is correct: Fecal coliform bacteria suggest the presence of harmful enteric pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae.

Statement 3 is incorrect: UV radiation and chlorination are effective in killing fecal coliform bacteria, making water safe for drinking.

About Fecal Coliform:

• What it is? A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans.

• A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans.

• Limit: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) standards have set a permissible limit of 2,500 units of faecal coliform per 100 ml of water, while for drinking water, E. coli must be absent.

• Types of Bacteria: Includes Escherichia coli ( coli), with certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 being harmful and capable of causing intestinal infections.

What its Presence Indicates?

• Sewage contamination of water sources.

• Potential presence of disease-causing pathogens such as those responsible for typhoid, hepatitis A, and gastroenteritis.

• Poor waste management, leakage from septic systems, or agricultural runoff polluting water bodies.

Impacts of Fecal coliform on BOD and COD:

• BOD Increase: Fecal coliform bacteria decompose organic waste, consuming dissolved oxygen and raising Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), leading to oxygen depletion and aquatic life suffocation.

• COD Increase: Contaminants from sewage and industrial discharge raise Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), indicating non-biodegradable pollutants, lowering water quality and harming ecosystems.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: High fecal coliform levels indicate organic waste pollution, which increases BOD, leading to oxygen depletion in water bodies.

Statement 2 is correct: Fecal coliform bacteria suggest the presence of harmful enteric pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae.

Statement 3 is incorrect: UV radiation and chlorination are effective in killing fecal coliform bacteria, making water safe for drinking.

About Fecal Coliform:

• What it is? A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans.

• A subgroup of coliform bacteria that primarily originate from the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded animals, including humans.

• Limit: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) standards have set a permissible limit of 2,500 units of faecal coliform per 100 ml of water, while for drinking water, E. coli must be absent.

• Types of Bacteria: Includes Escherichia coli ( coli), with certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 being harmful and capable of causing intestinal infections.

What its Presence Indicates?

• Sewage contamination of water sources.

• Potential presence of disease-causing pathogens such as those responsible for typhoid, hepatitis A, and gastroenteritis.

• Poor waste management, leakage from septic systems, or agricultural runoff polluting water bodies.

Impacts of Fecal coliform on BOD and COD:

• BOD Increase: Fecal coliform bacteria decompose organic waste, consuming dissolved oxygen and raising Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), leading to oxygen depletion and aquatic life suffocation.

• COD Increase: Contaminants from sewage and industrial discharge raise Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), indicating non-biodegradable pollutants, lowering water quality and harming ecosystems.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the coverage of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) insurance: DICGC provides insurance coverage for bank deposits up to ₹10 lakh per depositor per bank. Deposits in foreign banks operating in India are not covered under the DICGC scheme. DICGC covers savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: DICGC provides insurance coverage of only ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, not ₹10 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect: Foreign banks operating in India are covered under DICGC if they are licensed under the RBI. Statement 3 is correct: DICGC covers all deposit types, including savings, FDs, current, and recurring deposits. About Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC): What it is? DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures. History: First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank. The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962. Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance. Ministry: Operates under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Aim: To protect depositors’ funds and maintain public confidence in the banking system. Functions: Insures deposits of banks against failure. Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions. Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required. Features of Deposit Insurance: Existing Limit: Each depositor insured up to ₹5 lakh (including principal and interest) per bank, per depositor. Coverage: Includes commercial banks, regional rural banks, foreign banks operating in India, and cooperative banks. What is Covered? Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits. What is NOT Covered? Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits. Deposits with State Land Development Banks. Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval. Multiple Branches in Same Bank? Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: DICGC provides insurance coverage of only ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, not ₹10 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect: Foreign banks operating in India are covered under DICGC if they are licensed under the RBI. Statement 3 is correct: DICGC covers all deposit types, including savings, FDs, current, and recurring deposits. About Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC): What it is? DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures. History: First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank. The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962. Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance. Ministry: Operates under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Aim: To protect depositors’ funds and maintain public confidence in the banking system. Functions: Insures deposits of banks against failure. Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions. Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required. Features of Deposit Insurance: Existing Limit: Each depositor insured up to ₹5 lakh (including principal and interest) per bank, per depositor. Coverage: Includes commercial banks, regional rural banks, foreign banks operating in India, and cooperative banks. What is Covered? Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits. What is NOT Covered? Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits. Deposits with State Land Development Banks. Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval. Multiple Branches in Same Bank? Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the coverage of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) insurance:

• DICGC provides insurance coverage for bank deposits up to ₹10 lakh per depositor per bank.

• Deposits in foreign banks operating in India are not covered under the DICGC scheme.

• DICGC covers savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Statement 1 is incorrect: DICGC provides insurance coverage of only ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, not ₹10 lakh.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Foreign banks operating in India are covered under DICGC if they are licensed under the RBI.

Statement 3 is correct: DICGC covers all deposit types, including savings, FDs, current, and recurring deposits.

About Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC):

• What it is? DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures.

• DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures.

• History:

• First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank. The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962. Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance.

• First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank.

• The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962.

• Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance.

• Ministry: Operates under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

• Aim: To protect depositors’ funds and maintain public confidence in the banking system.

• Functions: Insures deposits of banks against failure. Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions. Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required.

• Insures deposits of banks against failure.

• Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions.

• Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required.

Features of Deposit Insurance:

• Existing Limit: Each depositor insured up to ₹5 lakh (including principal and interest) per bank, per depositor.

• Coverage: Includes commercial banks, regional rural banks, foreign banks operating in India, and cooperative banks.

• What is Covered? Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.

• Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.

• What is NOT Covered? Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits. Deposits with State Land Development Banks. Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval.

• Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits.

• Deposits with State Land Development Banks.

• Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval.

• Multiple Branches in Same Bank? Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover.

• Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is incorrect: DICGC provides insurance coverage of only ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, not ₹10 lakh.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Foreign banks operating in India are covered under DICGC if they are licensed under the RBI.

Statement 3 is correct: DICGC covers all deposit types, including savings, FDs, current, and recurring deposits.

About Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC):

• What it is? DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures.

• DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors, ensuring the safety of their money in case of bank failures.

• History:

• First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank. The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962. Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance.

• First considered in 1948 after banking crises in Bengal and revisited in 1960 after the collapse of Palai Central Bank & Laxmi Bank.

• The Deposit Insurance Corporation Act, 1961, came into force on January 1, 1962.

• Merged with the Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 to form DICGC under the Ministry of Finance.

• Ministry: Operates under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

• Aim: To protect depositors’ funds and maintain public confidence in the banking system.

• Functions: Insures deposits of banks against failure. Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions. Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required.

• Insures deposits of banks against failure.

• Provides credit guarantees to priority sector lending institutions.

• Monitors bank financial health and steps in when required.

Features of Deposit Insurance:

• Existing Limit: Each depositor insured up to ₹5 lakh (including principal and interest) per bank, per depositor.

• Coverage: Includes commercial banks, regional rural banks, foreign banks operating in India, and cooperative banks.

• What is Covered? Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.

• Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.

• What is NOT Covered? Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits. Deposits with State Land Development Banks. Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval.

• Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, and inter-bank deposits.

• Deposits with State Land Development Banks.

• Deposits outside India and exempted by RBI approval.

• Multiple Branches in Same Bank? Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover.

• Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding the appointment process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is correct as per the Election Commission (Appointment, Conditions of Service, and Term of Office) Act, 2023? a) The CEC is appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India. b) The CEC is appointed by the President at his discretion without any consultation. c) The CEC is directly elected by Parliament through a two-thirds majority in both Houses. d) The CEC is appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha. Correct Solution: D The 2023 Act replaced the earlier system where the President appointed the CEC based on the recommendation of the government. The new Selection Committee includes: Prime Minister A Union Cabinet Minister Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Option (c) is incorrect as there is no provision for direct election of the CEC by Parliament. About Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India: What it is? The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections. Article:Governed by Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission. Appointment Process: Previously: CEC was appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. Under the 2023 Act: A Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha recommends candidates. A Search Committee, chaired by the Law Minister, shortlists names for consideration. Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must: Be persons of integrity Have knowledge and experience in the management and conduct of elections Be or have been a secretary (or equivalent) to the government Term:Six-year tenure or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Service Conditions:The salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs will be equivalent to that of Cabinet Secretary. Removal:The CEC may be removed in the same manner as applicable for a Supreme Court judge. ECs may only be removed upon the recommendation of the CEC. Powers and Functions: Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India. Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes. Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur. Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters. Incorrect Solution: D The 2023 Act replaced the earlier system where the President appointed the CEC based on the recommendation of the government. The new Selection Committee includes: Prime Minister A Union Cabinet Minister Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Option (c) is incorrect as there is no provision for direct election of the CEC by Parliament. About Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India: What it is? The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections. Article:Governed by Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission. Appointment Process: Previously: CEC was appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. Under the 2023 Act: A Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha recommends candidates. A Search Committee, chaired by the Law Minister, shortlists names for consideration. Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must: Be persons of integrity Have knowledge and experience in the management and conduct of elections Be or have been a secretary (or equivalent) to the government Term:Six-year tenure or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Service Conditions:The salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs will be equivalent to that of Cabinet Secretary. Removal:The CEC may be removed in the same manner as applicable for a Supreme Court judge. ECs may only be removed upon the recommendation of the CEC. Powers and Functions: Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India. Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes. Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur. Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements regarding the appointment process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is correct as per the Election Commission (Appointment, Conditions of Service, and Term of Office) Act, 2023?

• a) The CEC is appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India.

• b) The CEC is appointed by the President at his discretion without any consultation.

• c) The CEC is directly elected by Parliament through a two-thirds majority in both Houses.

• d) The CEC is appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.

Solution: D

The 2023 Act replaced the earlier system where the President appointed the CEC based on the recommendation of the government.

The new Selection Committee includes:

• Prime Minister

• A Union Cabinet Minister

• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

Option (c) is incorrect as there is no provision for direct election of the CEC by Parliament.

About Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

• What it is? The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections.

• Article:Governed by Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.

Appointment Process:

• Previously: CEC was appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

• Under the 2023 Act: A Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha recommends candidates.

• A Search Committee, chaired by the Law Minister, shortlists names for consideration. Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must:

• Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must:

• Be persons of integrity

• Have knowledge and experience in the management and conduct of elections

• Be or have been a secretary (or equivalent) to the government

• Term:Six-year tenure or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• Service Conditions:The salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs will be equivalent to that of Cabinet Secretary.

• Removal:The CEC may be removed in the same manner as applicable for a Supreme Court judge. ECs may only be removed upon the recommendation of the CEC.

• Powers and Functions: Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India. Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes. Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur. Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters.

• Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India.

• Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC).

• Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes.

• Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur.

• Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters.

Solution: D

The 2023 Act replaced the earlier system where the President appointed the CEC based on the recommendation of the government.

The new Selection Committee includes:

• Prime Minister

• A Union Cabinet Minister

• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

Option (c) is incorrect as there is no provision for direct election of the CEC by Parliament.

About Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

• What it is? The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commissionof India (ECI), ensuring free and fair elections.

• Article:Governed by Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.

Appointment Process:

• Previously: CEC was appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

• Under the 2023 Act: A Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha recommends candidates.

• A Search Committee, chaired by the Law Minister, shortlists names for consideration. Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must:

• Eligibility: The new Act now specifies that candidates must:

• Be persons of integrity

• Have knowledge and experience in the management and conduct of elections

• Be or have been a secretary (or equivalent) to the government

• Term:Six-year tenure or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• Service Conditions:The salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs will be equivalent to that of Cabinet Secretary.

• Removal:The CEC may be removed in the same manner as applicable for a Supreme Court judge. ECs may only be removed upon the recommendation of the CEC.

• Powers and Functions: Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India. Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes. Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur. Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters.

• Conducts free and fair electionsfor Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, and the President & Vice President of India.

• Regulates political parties, monitors election funding, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC).

• Supervises voter registration, prepares electoral rolls, and ensures smooth voting processes.

• Has the authority to disqualify candidates for electoral malpracticesand cancel elections if irregularities occur.

• Advises the President and Governors on election-related matters.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Parambikulam Tiger Reserve: It is home to the world’s largest teak tree, known as the Kannimara Teak. It is an integral part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring ecological connectivity. The only indigenous tribe found in the reserve is the Toto Tribe, which has exclusive rights over forest resources. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Parambikulam is home to Kannimara Teak, one of the largest and oldest teak trees in the world. Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring biodiversity connectivity. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Toto Tribe is found in West Bengal, not Kerala. The Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar tribes inhabit Parambikulam. About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve: Location: Situated in Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, between the Anamalai Hills and Nelliampathy Hills in the Western Ghats. Area: Covers 643.66 sq. km, including the Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary (declared in 1973, expanded in 1984) and later notified as a Tiger Reserve in 2010. Flora: Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands. Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed). Fauna: Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters. Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish). Tribes Found: Indigenous tribes like Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar inhabit the reserve in six colonies. Conservation Significance: A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster. Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Parambikulam is home to Kannimara Teak, one of the largest and oldest teak trees in the world. Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring biodiversity connectivity. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Toto Tribe is found in West Bengal, not Kerala. The Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar tribes inhabit Parambikulam. About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve: Location: Situated in Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, between the Anamalai Hills and Nelliampathy Hills in the Western Ghats. Area: Covers 643.66 sq. km, including the Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary (declared in 1973, expanded in 1984) and later notified as a Tiger Reserve in 2010. Flora: Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands. Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed). Fauna: Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters. Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish). Tribes Found: Indigenous tribes like Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar inhabit the reserve in six colonies. Conservation Significance: A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster. Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:

• It is home to the world’s largest teak tree, known as the Kannimara Teak.

• It is an integral part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring ecological connectivity.

• The only indigenous tribe found in the reserve is the Toto Tribe, which has exclusive rights over forest resources.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct: Parambikulam is home to Kannimara Teak, one of the largest and oldest teak trees in the world.

Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring biodiversity connectivity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Toto Tribe is found in West Bengal, not Kerala. The Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar tribes inhabit Parambikulam.

About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Situated in Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, between the Anamalai Hills and Nelliampathy Hills in the Western Ghats.

• Area: Covers 643.66 sq. km, including the Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary (declared in 1973, expanded in 1984) and later notified as a Tiger Reserve in 2010.

• Flora:

• Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands. Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed).

• Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands.

• Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed).

• Fauna:

• Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters. Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish).

• Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters.

• Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish).

• Tribes Found: Indigenous tribes like Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar inhabit the reserve in six colonies.

• Conservation Significance:

• A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster. Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster.

• Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct: Parambikulam is home to Kannimara Teak, one of the largest and oldest teak trees in the world.

Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is part of the Anamalai Hills Conservation Landscape, ensuring biodiversity connectivity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Toto Tribe is found in West Bengal, not Kerala. The Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar tribes inhabit Parambikulam.

About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Situated in Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, between the Anamalai Hills and Nelliampathy Hills in the Western Ghats.

• Area: Covers 643.66 sq. km, including the Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary (declared in 1973, expanded in 1984) and later notified as a Tiger Reserve in 2010.

• Flora:

• Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands. Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed).

• Comprises evergreen, moist and dry deciduous forests, and grasslands.

• Home to endangered medicinal plants like Coscinium fenestratum and Utleria salicifolia (IUCN Red-listed).

• Fauna:

• Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters. Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish).

• Mammals: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel, flying squirrel, leopards, elephants, Nilgiri langurs, smooth-coated otters.

• Amphibians & Fish: Endemic species like Tomopterna parambikulamana (frog) and Garra surendranathanii (sucker fish).

• Tribes Found: Indigenous tribes like Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar inhabit the reserve in six colonies.

• Conservation Significance:

• A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster. Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• A UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster.

• Implements Project Tiger under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a function of Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)? (a) Monitoring and regulating the export of scheduled agricultural products (b) Providing financial assistance to exporters for market promotion and quality improvement (c) Formulating policies for domestic agricultural pricing and procurement (d) Implementing traceability systems for export-oriented agricultural products Correct Solution: C APEDA is responsible for export promotion and market development but does not formulate domestic agricultural pricing policies (which falls under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)). Options (a), (b), and (d) are correct: APEDA monitors exports, provides financial aid, and implements traceability systems like ANARNET for pomegranates and Hortinet for fruits and vegetables. About Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA): Origin: Established in 1986 under the APEDA Act to promote agricultural exports. Ministry: Functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. Aim: Enhance India’s agricultural exports, improve market access, and ensure quality standards in global trade. Functions and Powers: Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally. Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system). Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control. Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses. Incorrect Solution: C APEDA is responsible for export promotion and market development but does not formulate domestic agricultural pricing policies (which falls under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)). Options (a), (b), and (d) are correct: APEDA monitors exports, provides financial aid, and implements traceability systems like ANARNET for pomegranates and Hortinet for fruits and vegetables. About Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA): Origin: Established in 1986 under the APEDA Act to promote agricultural exports. Ministry: Functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. Aim: Enhance India’s agricultural exports, improve market access, and ensure quality standards in global trade. Functions and Powers: Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally. Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system). Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control. Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following is NOT a function of Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)?

• (a) Monitoring and regulating the export of scheduled agricultural products

• (b) Providing financial assistance to exporters for market promotion and quality improvement

• (c) Formulating policies for domestic agricultural pricing and procurement

• (d) Implementing traceability systems for export-oriented agricultural products

Solution: C

APEDA is responsible for export promotion and market development but does not formulate domestic agricultural pricing policies (which falls under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)).

Options (a), (b), and (d) are correct: APEDA monitors exports, provides financial aid, and implements traceability systems like ANARNET for pomegranates and Hortinet for fruits and vegetables.

About Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):

• Origin: Established in 1986 under the APEDA Act to promote agricultural exports.

• Ministry: Functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.

• Aim: Enhance India’s agricultural exports, improve market access, and ensure quality standards in global trade.

• Functions and Powers:

• Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally. Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system). Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control. Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses.

• Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally.

• Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system).

• Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control.

• Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses.

Solution: C

APEDA is responsible for export promotion and market development but does not formulate domestic agricultural pricing policies (which falls under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)).

Options (a), (b), and (d) are correct: APEDA monitors exports, provides financial aid, and implements traceability systems like ANARNET for pomegranates and Hortinet for fruits and vegetables.

About Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):

• Origin: Established in 1986 under the APEDA Act to promote agricultural exports.

• Ministry: Functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.

• Aim: Enhance India’s agricultural exports, improve market access, and ensure quality standards in global trade.

• Functions and Powers:

• Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally. Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system). Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control. Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses.

• Market Development: Expands market access for Indian agri-products globally.

• Export Promotion: Facilitates agricultural trade through initiatives like ANARNET (traceability system).

• Infrastructure Expansion: Supports post-harvest infrastructure, cold chain logistics, and quality control.

• Policy Implementation: Implements government schemes to boost farmer income and reduce post-harvest losses.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme: It applies to all crops under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system. The scheme aims to ensure farmers receive remunerative prices while reducing the need for government procurement. It is implemented by agencies like NAFED and NCCF along with state governments. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme only covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra, not all crops under MSP (e.g., cereals like wheat and rice are excluded). Statement 2 is correct: PM-AASHA reduces over-reliance on physical procurement by providing price deficiency payments. Statement 3 is correct: NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) and NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India) play a key role in procurement and price stabilization under the scheme. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme only covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra, not all crops under MSP (e.g., cereals like wheat and rice are excluded). Statement 2 is correct: PM-AASHA reduces over-reliance on physical procurement by providing price deficiency payments. Statement 3 is correct: NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) and NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India) play a key role in procurement and price stabilization under the scheme.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme:

• It applies to all crops under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system.

• The scheme aims to ensure farmers receive remunerative prices while reducing the need for government procurement.

• It is implemented by agencies like NAFED and NCCF along with state governments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme only covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra, not all crops under MSP (e.g., cereals like wheat and rice are excluded).

Statement 2 is correct: PM-AASHA reduces over-reliance on physical procurement by providing price deficiency payments.

Statement 3 is correct: NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) and NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India) play a key role in procurement and price stabilization under the scheme.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme only covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra, not all crops under MSP (e.g., cereals like wheat and rice are excluded).

Statement 2 is correct: PM-AASHA reduces over-reliance on physical procurement by providing price deficiency payments.

Statement 3 is correct: NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) and NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India) play a key role in procurement and price stabilization under the scheme.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA): APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. It has the mandate to promote organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP). APEDA is responsible for overseeing dairy product exports under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture. Statement 2 is correct: APEDA regulates organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP). Statement 3 is correct: APEDA monitors dairy product exports, but not under the Essential Commodities Act—instead, it works under the APEDA Act, 1986. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture. Statement 2 is correct: APEDA regulates organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP). Statement 3 is correct: APEDA monitors dairy product exports, but not under the Essential Commodities Act—instead, it works under the APEDA Act, 1986.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):

• APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.

• It has the mandate to promote organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).

• APEDA is responsible for overseeing dairy product exports under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture.

Statement 2 is correct: APEDA regulates organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).

Statement 3 is correct: APEDA monitors dairy product exports, but not under the Essential Commodities Act—instead, it works under the APEDA Act, 1986.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture.

Statement 2 is correct: APEDA regulates organic exports under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).

Statement 3 is correct: APEDA monitors dairy product exports, but not under the Essential Commodities Act—instead, it works under the APEDA Act, 1986.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC): The CEC has a fixed term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The CEC can be removed by the President of India only after an impeachment process similar to that of Supreme Court judges. The CEC enjoys the same status and salary as a Union Cabinet Minister under the 2023 Act. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The CEC’s tenure is six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, as per the 2023 Act. Statement 2 is correct: The CEC can be removed only through a process similar to the impeachment of Supreme Court judges, requiring a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 2023 Act, the CEC and Election Commissioners (ECs) have the same salary as the Cabinet Secretary, not a Union Cabinet Minister. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The CEC’s tenure is six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, as per the 2023 Act. Statement 2 is correct: The CEC can be removed only through a process similar to the impeachment of Supreme Court judges, requiring a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 2023 Act, the CEC and Election Commissioners (ECs) have the same salary as the Cabinet Secretary, not a Union Cabinet Minister.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):

• The CEC has a fixed term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

• The CEC can be removed by the President of India only after an impeachment process similar to that of Supreme Court judges.

• The CEC enjoys the same status and salary as a Union Cabinet Minister under the 2023 Act.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: The CEC’s tenure is six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, as per the 2023 Act.

Statement 2 is correct: The CEC can be removed only through a process similar to the impeachment of Supreme Court judges, requiring a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 2023 Act, the CEC and Election Commissioners (ECs) have the same salary as the Cabinet Secretary, not a Union Cabinet Minister.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: The CEC’s tenure is six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, as per the 2023 Act.

Statement 2 is correct: The CEC can be removed only through a process similar to the impeachment of Supreme Court judges, requiring a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 2023 Act, the CEC and Election Commissioners (ECs) have the same salary as the Cabinet Secretary, not a Union Cabinet Minister.

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