UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 19 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about golden tigers: 1. Their coloration is the result of excessive melanin deposition. 2. Golden tigers are classified under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act separately. 3. The golden coat trait is dominant and can pass to offspring even if only one parent carries the gene. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: Golden tigers exhibit a pale golden or strawberry coat due to a reduction in eumelanin, a type of melanin pigment responsible for darker coloration. Their appearance is not caused by excess melanin, but rather a genetic mutation leading to hypomelanism. Statement 2 is incorrect: Golden tigers are not classified separately under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are a rare color morph of the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), which as a whole is listed under Schedule I. The golden variant does not enjoy a distinct legal status. Statement 3 is incorrect: The golden coat trait is a recessive genetic trait. For it to be expressed in offspring, both parents must carry the recessive gene. If only one parent carries it, the trait will not appear but may be passed on silently. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: Golden tigers exhibit a pale golden or strawberry coat due to a reduction in eumelanin, a type of melanin pigment responsible for darker coloration. Their appearance is not caused by excess melanin, but rather a genetic mutation leading to hypomelanism. Statement 2 is incorrect: Golden tigers are not classified separately under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are a rare color morph of the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), which as a whole is listed under Schedule I. The golden variant does not enjoy a distinct legal status. Statement 3 is incorrect: The golden coat trait is a recessive genetic trait. For it to be expressed in offspring, both parents must carry the recessive gene. If only one parent carries it, the trait will not appear but may be passed on silently.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about golden tigers:

1. 1.Their coloration is the result of excessive melanin deposition. 2. Golden tigers are classified under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act separately. 3. The golden coat trait is dominant and can pass to offspring even if only one parent carries the gene.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Golden tigers exhibit a pale golden or strawberry coat due to a reduction in eumelanin, a type of melanin pigment responsible for darker coloration. Their appearance is not caused by excess melanin, but rather a genetic mutation leading to hypomelanism.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Golden tigers are not classified separately under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are a rare color morph of the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), which as a whole is listed under Schedule I. The golden variant does not enjoy a distinct legal status.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The golden coat trait is a recessive genetic trait. For it to be expressed in offspring, both parents must carry the recessive gene. If only one parent carries it, the trait will not appear but may be passed on silently.

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Golden tigers exhibit a pale golden or strawberry coat due to a reduction in eumelanin, a type of melanin pigment responsible for darker coloration. Their appearance is not caused by excess melanin, but rather a genetic mutation leading to hypomelanism.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Golden tigers are not classified separately under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are a rare color morph of the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), which as a whole is listed under Schedule I. The golden variant does not enjoy a distinct legal status.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The golden coat trait is a recessive genetic trait. For it to be expressed in offspring, both parents must carry the recessive gene. If only one parent carries it, the trait will not appear but may be passed on silently.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the core objective of UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme in Madagascar? a) Promotion of trade and investment in protected zones b) Military protection of ecological reserves from illegal logging c) Urban resettlement of forest-dependent communities d) Conservation of biodiversity alongside inclusive community development Correct Solution: d) The BIOCOM Programme—Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development—was launched by UNESCO and KOICA in 2020. It specifically aims to integrate biodiversity conservation with sustainable livelihood generation in vulnerable communities across Madagascar’s ecological hotspots. The programme does not advocate urban resettlement (eliminating option d) or military approaches (option b). Nor is it focused on promoting trade per se (option a). Instead, it pursues eco-tourism, vocational training (e.g., in basketry and masonry), and local governance (via dina contracts), creating alternatives to harmful practices like slash-and-burn farming. About UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme: What it is: The Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development (BIOCOM) is a flagship UNESCO initiative promoting conservation-linked livelihood generation in Madagascar. Launched by: UNESCO, in collaboration with the Korea International Cooperation Agency (KOICA). Launched in: 2020, implemented across Madagascar’s Montagne des Français, Marojejy, and Andohahela protected areas. Aim: To conserve biodiversity while enhancing socio-economic resilience among local communities vulnerable to climate change and unsustainable forest exploitation. Key Features of BIOCOM Programme: Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage. Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss. Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts. Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions. Incorrect Solution: d) The BIOCOM Programme—Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development—was launched by UNESCO and KOICA in 2020. It specifically aims to integrate biodiversity conservation with sustainable livelihood generation in vulnerable communities across Madagascar’s ecological hotspots. The programme does not advocate urban resettlement (eliminating option d) or military approaches (option b). Nor is it focused on promoting trade per se (option a). Instead, it pursues eco-tourism, vocational training (e.g., in basketry and masonry), and local governance (via dina contracts), creating alternatives to harmful practices like slash-and-burn farming. About UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme: What it is: The Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development (BIOCOM) is a flagship UNESCO initiative promoting conservation-linked livelihood generation in Madagascar. Launched by: UNESCO, in collaboration with the Korea International Cooperation Agency (KOICA). Launched in: 2020, implemented across Madagascar’s Montagne des Français, Marojejy, and Andohahela protected areas. Aim: To conserve biodiversity while enhancing socio-economic resilience among local communities vulnerable to climate change and unsustainable forest exploitation. Key Features of BIOCOM Programme: Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage. Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss. Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts. Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best describes the core objective of UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme in Madagascar?

• a) Promotion of trade and investment in protected zones

• b) Military protection of ecological reserves from illegal logging

• c) Urban resettlement of forest-dependent communities

• d) Conservation of biodiversity alongside inclusive community development

Solution: d)

• The BIOCOM Programme—Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development—was launched by UNESCO and KOICA in 2020.

• It specifically aims to integrate biodiversity conservation with sustainable livelihood generation in vulnerable communities across Madagascar’s ecological hotspots.

• The programme does not advocate urban resettlement (eliminating option d) or military approaches (option b).

• Nor is it focused on promoting trade per se (option a). Instead, it pursues eco-tourism, vocational training (e.g., in basketry and masonry), and local governance (via dina contracts), creating alternatives to harmful practices like slash-and-burn farming.

About UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme:

• What it is: The Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development (BIOCOM) is a flagship UNESCO initiative promoting conservation-linked livelihood generation in Madagascar.

• Launched by: UNESCO, in collaboration with the Korea International Cooperation Agency (KOICA).

• Launched in: 2020, implemented across Madagascar’s Montagne des Français, Marojejy, and Andohahela protected areas.

• Aim: To conserve biodiversity while enhancing socio-economic resilience among local communities vulnerable to climate change and unsustainable forest exploitation.

• Key Features of BIOCOM Programme: Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage. Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss. Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts. Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions.

• Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging.

• Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage.

• Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss.

• Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts.

• Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions.

Solution: d)

• The BIOCOM Programme—Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development—was launched by UNESCO and KOICA in 2020.

• It specifically aims to integrate biodiversity conservation with sustainable livelihood generation in vulnerable communities across Madagascar’s ecological hotspots.

• The programme does not advocate urban resettlement (eliminating option d) or military approaches (option b).

• Nor is it focused on promoting trade per se (option a). Instead, it pursues eco-tourism, vocational training (e.g., in basketry and masonry), and local governance (via dina contracts), creating alternatives to harmful practices like slash-and-burn farming.

About UNESCO’s BIOCOM Programme:

• What it is: The Biodiversity Conservation and Sustainable Natural Resource Management for Integrated Community Development (BIOCOM) is a flagship UNESCO initiative promoting conservation-linked livelihood generation in Madagascar.

• Launched by: UNESCO, in collaboration with the Korea International Cooperation Agency (KOICA).

• Launched in: 2020, implemented across Madagascar’s Montagne des Français, Marojejy, and Andohahela protected areas.

• Aim: To conserve biodiversity while enhancing socio-economic resilience among local communities vulnerable to climate change and unsustainable forest exploitation.

• Key Features of BIOCOM Programme: Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging. Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage. Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss. Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts. Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions.

• Sustainable Livelihood Training: Offers training in masonry, metalwork, eco-tourism, cooking, and basketry to create alternatives to slash-and-burn agriculture and illegal logging.

• Community Participation: Sets up local forest governance and conflict management systems like “dina” contracts to reduce ecological damage.

• Ecological Protection: Supports carbon sequestration, watershed preservation, and forest connectivity to counter deforestation and biodiversity loss.

• Educational Empowerment: Establishes environmental education and sustainable development awareness, especially among women and school dropouts.

• Resilience Against Climate Change: Targets Forest regeneration and flood prevention in erosion-prone zones by integrating nature-based solutions.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding GPS spoofing. Statement-I: GPS spoofing poses a growing threat to civilian and military infrastructure. Statement-II: Spoofers can hijack satellite control systems and change global coordinates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) GPS spoofing is a major concern due to its ability to mislead navigation systems, risking security, logistics, and public safety. However, Statement-II is wrong – spoofers do not hijack satellite systems; they deceive the receiver on the ground. Satellite control remains secure and protected under separate layers of encryption and access. What is GPS Spoofing? GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location. GPS spoofing working: GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites. Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones. The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data. Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS. Implications of GPS Spoofing: Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety. Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses. Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions. Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info. Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation. Protection Against GPS Spoofing: Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite. Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds. Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison. Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics. Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats. Incorrect Solution: c) GPS spoofing is a major concern due to its ability to mislead navigation systems, risking security, logistics, and public safety. However, Statement-II is wrong – spoofers do not hijack satellite systems; they deceive the receiver on the ground. Satellite control remains secure and protected under separate layers of encryption and access. What is GPS Spoofing? GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location. GPS spoofing working: GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites. Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones. The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data. Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS. Implications of GPS Spoofing: Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety. Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses. Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions. Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info. Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation. Protection Against GPS Spoofing: Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite. Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds. Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison. Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics. Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding GPS spoofing.

Statement-I: GPS spoofing poses a growing threat to civilian and military infrastructure. Statement-II: Spoofers can hijack satellite control systems and change global coordinates.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

GPS spoofing is a major concern due to its ability to mislead navigation systems, risking security, logistics, and public safety. However, Statement-II is wrong – spoofers do not hijack satellite systems; they deceive the receiver on the ground. Satellite control remains secure and protected under separate layers of encryption and access.

• What is GPS Spoofing? GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location.

• GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location.

• GPS spoofing working: GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites. Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones. The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data. Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS.

• GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites.

• Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones.

• The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data.

• Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS.

• Implications of GPS Spoofing: Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety. Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses. Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions. Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info. Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation.

• Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety.

• Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses.

• Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions.

• Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info.

• Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation.

• Protection Against GPS Spoofing: Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite. Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds. Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison. Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics. Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats.

• Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite.

• Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds.

• Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison.

• Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics.

• Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats.

Solution: c)

GPS spoofing is a major concern due to its ability to mislead navigation systems, risking security, logistics, and public safety. However, Statement-II is wrong – spoofers do not hijack satellite systems; they deceive the receiver on the ground. Satellite control remains secure and protected under separate layers of encryption and access.

• What is GPS Spoofing? GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location.

• GPS spoofing is a type of cyberattack where false GPS signals are sent to mislead a receiver about its actual location.

• GPS spoofing working: GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites. Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones. The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data. Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS.

• GPS receivers calculate location based on signals from satellites.

• Spoofers broadcast fake GPS signals that are stronger than the real ones.

• The receiver locks onto these fake signals, producing incorrect location data.

• Attackers may mislead planes, ships, vehicles, or even apps relying on GPS.

• Implications of GPS Spoofing: Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety. Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses. Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions. Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info. Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation.

• Aviation Risks: Aircraft can be misdirected, threatening flight safety.

• Logistics Disruptions: Misguides delivery vehicles, causing delays and financial losses.

• Defense & Surveillance Threats: May mislead military or reconnaissance missions.

• Consumer Impact: Rideshare apps, food delivery, or maps may provide wrong info.

• Cybersecurity Breach: Potential for data theft and identity manipulation.

• Protection Against GPS Spoofing: Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite. Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds. Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison. Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics. Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats.

• Signal Authentication: Verifies whether the signal truly comes from a satellite.

• Anomaly Detection: Watch for abnormal jumps in location or impossible speeds.

• Multi-Signal Systems: Use a combination of GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, etc., for comparison.

• Advanced Software Filters: Reject signals with suspicious characteristics.

• Pilot & Crew Training: IAF’s preparedness shows that trained operators can safely navigate such threats.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points What is the primary objective of the STELLAR model developed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA)? a) To simulate monsoon rainfall patterns for hydropower forecasting b) To optimize power trading in international markets c) To forecast coal demand in thermal power stations d) To enable integrated and dynamic power resource adequacy planning Correct Solution: d) The STELLAR model is a state-of-the-art, indigenously developed software tool designed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) with support from The Lantau Group (TLG) and ADB. Its main aim is to enable states and distribution companies to dynamically plan for power adequacy—by accounting for generation, storage, transmission, and demand response till FY 2034–35. Unlike static models, STELLAR uses chronological simulation, allowing detailed consideration of ramp rates, load flow, unit commitment, and ancillary services. It promotes transparency, is freely accessible to states, and provides a user-friendly interface for dynamic updates. About STELLAR Model: What it is? STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response. Developed by: Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in collaboration with The Lantau Group (TLG) and supported by the Asian Development Bank (ADB). Aim: To help states and power distribution companies (Discoms) prepare annual dynamic resource adequacy plans, ensuring uninterrupted power supply and system-wide efficiency. Key Features of STELLAR: Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints. Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35. Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost. Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves. Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback. Incorrect Solution: d) The STELLAR model is a state-of-the-art, indigenously developed software tool designed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) with support from The Lantau Group (TLG) and ADB. Its main aim is to enable states and distribution companies to dynamically plan for power adequacy—by accounting for generation, storage, transmission, and demand response till FY 2034–35. Unlike static models, STELLAR uses chronological simulation, allowing detailed consideration of ramp rates, load flow, unit commitment, and ancillary services. It promotes transparency, is freely accessible to states, and provides a user-friendly interface for dynamic updates. About STELLAR Model: What it is? STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response. Developed by: Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in collaboration with The Lantau Group (TLG) and supported by the Asian Development Bank (ADB). Aim: To help states and power distribution companies (Discoms) prepare annual dynamic resource adequacy plans, ensuring uninterrupted power supply and system-wide efficiency. Key Features of STELLAR: Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints. Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35. Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost. Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves. Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback.

#### 4. Question

What is the primary objective of the STELLAR model developed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA)?

• a) To simulate monsoon rainfall patterns for hydropower forecasting

• b) To optimize power trading in international markets

• c) To forecast coal demand in thermal power stations

• d) To enable integrated and dynamic power resource adequacy planning

Solution: d)

• The STELLAR model is a state-of-the-art, indigenously developed software tool designed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) with support from The Lantau Group (TLG) and ADB.

• Its main aim is to enable states and distribution companies to dynamically plan for power adequacy—by accounting for generation, storage, transmission, and demand response till FY 2034–35.

• Unlike static models, STELLAR uses chronological simulation, allowing detailed consideration of ramp rates, load flow, unit commitment, and ancillary services. It promotes transparency, is freely accessible to states, and provides a user-friendly interface for dynamic updates.

About STELLAR Model:

• What it is? STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response.

• STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response.

• Developed by: Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in collaboration with The Lantau Group (TLG) and supported by the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

• Aim: To help states and power distribution companies (Discoms) prepare annual dynamic resource adequacy plans, ensuring uninterrupted power supply and system-wide efficiency.

• Key Features of STELLAR:

• Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints. Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35. Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost. Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves. Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback.

• Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints.

• Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35.

• Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost.

• Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves.

• Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback.

Solution: d)

• The STELLAR model is a state-of-the-art, indigenously developed software tool designed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) with support from The Lantau Group (TLG) and ADB.

• Its main aim is to enable states and distribution companies to dynamically plan for power adequacy—by accounting for generation, storage, transmission, and demand response till FY 2034–35.

• Unlike static models, STELLAR uses chronological simulation, allowing detailed consideration of ramp rates, load flow, unit commitment, and ancillary services. It promotes transparency, is freely accessible to states, and provides a user-friendly interface for dynamic updates.

About STELLAR Model:

• What it is? STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response.

• STELLAR (State of the art Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is a next-gen software tool for integrated planning of power generation, transmission, storage, and demand response.

• Developed by: Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in collaboration with The Lantau Group (TLG) and supported by the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

• Aim: To help states and power distribution companies (Discoms) prepare annual dynamic resource adequacy plans, ensuring uninterrupted power supply and system-wide efficiency.

• Key Features of STELLAR:

• Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints. Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35. Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost. Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves. Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback.

• Chronological Power System Modelling: Simulates real-time power system operations with load flow, ramp rates, and unit constraints.

• Integrated Planning: Simultaneously models generation, transmission, storage expansion, and demand-side response till FY 2034-35.

• Endogenous Demand Response: Considers consumer flexibility in electricity use, optimizing overall load and cost.

• Ancillary Services Optimization: Ensures grid stability by factoring in services like frequency control and reserves.

• Transparent, Customizable, and Open Access: Shared with all states free of cost; designed for regular updates and user feedback.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Q-Shield, developed under India’s National Quantum Mission, primarily aims to: a) Enhance signal processing in underwater military communication b) Provide quantum-safe cryptography to protect critical digital infrastructure c) Create indigenous quantum satellites for secure interstellar communication d) Replace blockchain-based security systems with classical cryptography Correct Solution: b) Q-Shield is a quantum-resilient cryptographic management platform developed by QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park and supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It directly addresses the looming challenge of quantum computers breaking traditional encryption. Q-Shield integrates tools like Armos (Quantum Key Distribution), Tropos (Quantum Random Number Generator), and QHSM (Quantum Hardware Security Module), making systems future-proof against even the most advanced computational threats. It doesn’t serve underwater military communication or interstellar satellites, and instead of reverting to classical cryptography, it moves beyond current systems through Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC). About Q-Shield Platform: What is Q-Shield? Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats. Developed By: QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016) Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission Objective: To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner. Key Features of Q-Shield: Quantum-Safe Security Tools: These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future. Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break. Incorrect Solution: b) Q-Shield is a quantum-resilient cryptographic management platform developed by QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park and supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It directly addresses the looming challenge of quantum computers breaking traditional encryption. Q-Shield integrates tools like Armos (Quantum Key Distribution), Tropos (Quantum Random Number Generator), and QHSM (Quantum Hardware Security Module), making systems future-proof against even the most advanced computational threats. It doesn’t serve underwater military communication or interstellar satellites, and instead of reverting to classical cryptography, it moves beyond current systems through Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC). About Q-Shield Platform: What is Q-Shield? Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats. Developed By: QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016) Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission Objective: To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner. Key Features of Q-Shield: Quantum-Safe Security Tools: These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future. Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

#### 5. Question

Q-Shield, developed under India’s National Quantum Mission, primarily aims to:

• a) Enhance signal processing in underwater military communication

• b) Provide quantum-safe cryptography to protect critical digital infrastructure

• c) Create indigenous quantum satellites for secure interstellar communication

• d) Replace blockchain-based security systems with classical cryptography

Solution: b)

• Q-Shield is a quantum-resilient cryptographic management platform developed by QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park and supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

• It directly addresses the looming challenge of quantum computers breaking traditional encryption. Q-Shield integrates tools like Armos (Quantum Key Distribution), Tropos (Quantum Random Number Generator), and QHSM (Quantum Hardware Security Module), making systems future-proof against even the most advanced computational threats.

• It doesn’t serve underwater military communication or interstellar satellites, and instead of reverting to classical cryptography, it moves beyond current systems through Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC).

About Q-Shield Platform:

• What is Q-Shield? Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats.

• Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats.

• Developed By:

• QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016) Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission

• QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016)

• Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission

• Objective: To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner.

• To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner.

• Key Features of Q-Shield: Quantum-Safe Security Tools: These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future.

• Quantum-Safe Security Tools:

• These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop.

• Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger.

• QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure.

• PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

Solution: b)

• Q-Shield is a quantum-resilient cryptographic management platform developed by QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park and supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

• It directly addresses the looming challenge of quantum computers breaking traditional encryption. Q-Shield integrates tools like Armos (Quantum Key Distribution), Tropos (Quantum Random Number Generator), and QHSM (Quantum Hardware Security Module), making systems future-proof against even the most advanced computational threats.

• It doesn’t serve underwater military communication or interstellar satellites, and instead of reverting to classical cryptography, it moves beyond current systems through Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC).

About Q-Shield Platform:

• What is Q-Shield? Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats.

• Q-Shield is a comprehensive cryptography management platform designed to secure critical infrastructure against future quantum threats.

• Developed By:

• QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016) Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission

• QNu Labs, incubated at IIT Madras Research Park (2016)

• Supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Quantum Mission

• Objective: To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner.

• To empower enterprises with tools that ensure data privacy and cybersecurity across cloud, on-premises, and hybrid environments in a quantum-resilient manner.

• Key Features of Q-Shield: Quantum-Safe Security Tools: These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future.

• Quantum-Safe Security Tools:

• These are advanced tools that protect your data from being hacked, even by super-powerful quantum computers in the future.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop. Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger. QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure. PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

• Armos: A system that sends super-secure secret keys, so no one can eavesdrop.

• Tropos: Creates truly random numbers, which are used to make passwords and encryption much stronger.

• QHSM: Like a digital safe box that stores your keys and keeps them secure.

• PQC Standards: Uses special encryption methods that even future computers won’t be able to break.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Lake Tanganyika, which borders Tanzania, is the world’s largest freshwater lake by surface area. Mount Kilimanjaro is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano. The Serengeti National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its massive wildlife migration. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect – Lake Tanganyika is the second-deepest and longest freshwater lake, not the largest by surface area (which is Lake Superior in North America). Statement 2 is correct – Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m) is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano. Statement 3 is correct – Serengeti NP is globally renowned for wildebeest migration and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. India launched its first Africa-India maritime exercise (AIKEYME-2025) in Tanzania to strengthen naval cooperation. The exercise involves 9 African nations focusing on anti-piracy and maritime security operations. About Tanzania: Located in: East Africa, south of the Equator. Capital: Dodoma (official). Neighbouring Nations: Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo. Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles. Key Geological Features: Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera). Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source). Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda). UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect – Lake Tanganyika is the second-deepest and longest freshwater lake, not the largest by surface area (which is Lake Superior in North America). Statement 2 is correct – Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m) is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano. Statement 3 is correct – Serengeti NP is globally renowned for wildebeest migration and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. India launched its first Africa-India maritime exercise (AIKEYME-2025) in Tanzania to strengthen naval cooperation. The exercise involves 9 African nations focusing on anti-piracy and maritime security operations. About Tanzania: Located in: East Africa, south of the Equator. Capital: Dodoma (official). Neighbouring Nations: Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo. Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles. Key Geological Features: Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera). Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source). Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda). UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Lake Tanganyika, which borders Tanzania, is the world’s largest freshwater lake by surface area.

• Mount Kilimanjaro is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano.

• The Serengeti National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its massive wildlife migration.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect – Lake Tanganyika is the second-deepest and longest freshwater lake, not the largest by surface area (which is Lake Superior in North America).

Statement 2 is correct – Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m) is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano.

Statement 3 is correct – Serengeti NP is globally renowned for wildebeest migration and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

India launched its first Africa-India maritime exercise (AIKEYME-2025) in Tanzania to strengthen naval cooperation.

• The exercise involves 9 African nations focusing on anti-piracy and maritime security operations.

About Tanzania:

• Located in: East Africa, south of the Equator.

• Capital: Dodoma (official).

• Neighbouring Nations: Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo. Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles.

• Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo.

• Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles.

• Key Geological Features: Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera). Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source). Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda). UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

• Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera).

• Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera).

• Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source).

• Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source).

• Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda).

• Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda).

• UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

• Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration).

• Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect – Lake Tanganyika is the second-deepest and longest freshwater lake, not the largest by surface area (which is Lake Superior in North America).

Statement 2 is correct – Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m) is Africa’s highest peak and a dormant volcano.

Statement 3 is correct – Serengeti NP is globally renowned for wildebeest migration and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

India launched its first Africa-India maritime exercise (AIKEYME-2025) in Tanzania to strengthen naval cooperation.

• The exercise involves 9 African nations focusing on anti-piracy and maritime security operations.

About Tanzania:

• Located in: East Africa, south of the Equator.

• Capital: Dodoma (official).

• Neighbouring Nations: Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo. Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles.

• Borders: Kenya, Uganda, Mozambique, Malawi, Zambia, Rwanda, Burundi, DR Congo.

• Maritime Borders: Comoros, Seychelles.

• Key Geological Features: Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera). Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source). Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda). UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

• Mountains: Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera).

• Mount Kilimanjaro(Africa’s highest peak, 5,895 m), Mount Meru & Ngorongoro Crater (world’s largest volcanic caldera).

• Rivers: Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source).

• Rufiji(largest river, drains into Indian Ocean) and Kagera (feeds Lake Victoria, Nile’s source).

• Lakes: Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda).

• Lake Tanganyika(world’s 2nd deepest, 1,436 m) and Lake Victoria (Africa’s largest lake, shared with Kenya/Uganda).

• UNESCO Sites: Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration). Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

• Serengeti National Park(wildlife migration).

• Kilimanjaro NP& Selous Game Reserve.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Type 5 Diabetes is best characterized by which of the following? a) A malnutrition-associated diabetes seen in lean individuals with protein deficiency b) A genetic disorder common in high-income countries with high obesity rates c) A metabolic disorder linked primarily to autoimmune pancreatic damage d) A form of gestational diabetes observed only during pregnancy Correct Solution: a) Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa. Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years. The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia. Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation. Incorrect Solution: a) Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa. Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years. The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia. Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation.

#### 7. Question

Type 5 Diabetes is best characterized by which of the following?

• a) A malnutrition-associated diabetes seen in lean individuals with protein deficiency

• b) A genetic disorder common in high-income countries with high obesity rates

• c) A metabolic disorder linked primarily to autoimmune pancreatic damage

• d) A form of gestational diabetes observed only during pregnancy

Solution: a)

• Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa.

• Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years.

• The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia.

• Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation.

Solution: a)

• Type 5 Diabetes, also referred to as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is primarily observed in young, underweight individuals from low- and middle-income countries, especially in Asia and Africa.

• Unlike Type 1 (autoimmune) or Type 2 (obesity-driven) diabetes, Type 5 results from severe protein-energy malnutrition, often during early developmental years.

• The pancreas produces insulin, but due to poor metabolic adaptation and nutrient reserves, standard insulin therapy can induce hypoglycemia.

• Treatment requires small insulin doses, oral drugs, and nutritional rehabilitation, especially protein and micronutrient supplementation.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements related to constitutional provisions cited in the 2024 Supreme Court Constitution Bench (7-judge) ruling on SC sub-classification: Article 341 allows Parliament to make reasonable classification among SCs for reservation. Article 14 prohibits any classification within Scheduled Castes. Article 16(4) enables reservations in public employment based on inadequate representation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only (b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect – Article 341 concerns identification, not classification or reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 14 actually permits reasonable classification for substantive equality, not a blanket prohibition. Statement 3 is correct – Article 16(4) allows reservation in employment for underrepresented backward classes, including sub-groups within SCs if backed by data. About the Supreme Court Judgment on SC Sub-Classification: V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) – Overruled by 7-judge Constitution Bench in 2024 (6:1 majority). What the Judgment Clarified? Sub-classification Permitted: The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid. Articles Involved: Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality. Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation. Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states. States’ Power: States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List. Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation. Rejection of Homogeneity Argument: The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341. The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect – Article 341 concerns identification, not classification or reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 14 actually permits reasonable classification for substantive equality, not a blanket prohibition. Statement 3 is correct – Article 16(4) allows reservation in employment for underrepresented backward classes, including sub-groups within SCs if backed by data. About the Supreme Court Judgment on SC Sub-Classification: V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) – Overruled by 7-judge Constitution Bench in 2024 (6:1 majority). What the Judgment Clarified? Sub-classification Permitted: The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid. Articles Involved: Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality. Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation. Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states. States’ Power: States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List. Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation. Rejection of Homogeneity Argument: The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341. The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements related to constitutional provisions cited in the 2024 Supreme Court Constitution Bench (7-judge) ruling on SC sub-classification:

• Article 341 allows Parliament to make reasonable classification among SCs for reservation.

• Article 14 prohibits any classification within Scheduled Castes.

• Article 16(4) enables reservations in public employment based on inadequate representation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (b) 2 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect – Article 341 concerns identification, not classification or reservation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 14 actually permits reasonable classification for substantive equality, not a blanket prohibition.

• Statement 3 is correct – Article 16(4) allows reservation in employment for underrepresented backward classes, including sub-groups within SCs if backed by data.

About the Supreme Court Judgment on SC Sub-Classification:

• V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) – Overruled by 7-judge Constitution Bench in 2024 (6:1 majority).

What the Judgment Clarified?

• Sub-classification Permitted:

• The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid.

• The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid.

• Articles Involved:

• Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality. Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation. Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states.

• Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality.

• Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation.

• Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states.

• States’ Power:

• States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List. Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation.

• States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List.

• Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation.

• Rejection of Homogeneity Argument:

• The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341. The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation.

• The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341.

• The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation.

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect – Article 341 concerns identification, not classification or reservation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 14 actually permits reasonable classification for substantive equality, not a blanket prohibition.

• Statement 3 is correct – Article 16(4) allows reservation in employment for underrepresented backward classes, including sub-groups within SCs if backed by data.

About the Supreme Court Judgment on SC Sub-Classification:

• V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) – Overruled by 7-judge Constitution Bench in 2024 (6:1 majority).

What the Judgment Clarified?

• Sub-classification Permitted:

• The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid.

• The SC held that sub-classification within Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) for equitable reservation is constitutionally valid.

• Articles Involved:

• Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality. Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation. Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states.

• Article 14: Allows reasonable classification among unequal groups to ensure substantive equality.

• Articles 15(4) & 16(4): Permit affirmative action based on social and educational backwardness and inadequate representation.

• Article 341: Lists castes as SCs via Presidential Notification, which cannot be altered by states.

• States’ Power:

• States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List. Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation.

• States can sub-classify SCs for reservation without modifying the Presidential List.

• Sub-classification must be based on empirical data showing inter-se backwardness and under-representation.

• Rejection of Homogeneity Argument:

• The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341. The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation.

• The Court held that SCs are not homogeneous; hence, sub-classification does not violate Article 341.

• The Presidential List merely identifies SCs—it does not prevent internal categorisation.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following Tiger Variant, Genetic Basis, and Location: Tiger Variant Genetic Basis Natural Location A. Golden Tiger 1. Wideband gene mutation i. Kaziranga National Park B. White Tiger 2. Mutation in SLC45A2 ii. Originally Rewa, MP C. Black Tiger 3. Pseudomelanism iii. Simlipal Tiger Reserve How many of the above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Golden Tiger → Wideband gene mutation → Kaziranga National Park Golden tigers have a pale golden coat with light brown stripes due to a recessive mutation in the wideband gene, which reduces eumelanin pigmentation. These rare tigers have been spotted in the wild, particularly in Kaziranga National Park, Assam. White Tiger → SLC45A2 mutation → Rewa, Madhya Pradesh White tigers exhibit a leucistic condition caused by a mutation in the SLC45A2 gene, which affects melanin transport. They are not albino, as they retain blue eyes. The first recorded white tiger was captured in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, in 1951, and most captive white tigers today are descended from that lineage. Black Tiger → Pseudomelanism → Simlipal Tiger Reserve Black tigers have dense, merged stripes, making them appear melanistic, though they are genetically Bengal tigers. This condition is termed pseudomelanism. These unique individuals have been photographed in Simlipal Tiger Reserve, Odisha, and appear to be genetically isolated due to inbreeding. Incorrect Solution: c) Golden Tiger → Wideband gene mutation → Kaziranga National Park Golden tigers have a pale golden coat with light brown stripes due to a recessive mutation in the wideband gene, which reduces eumelanin pigmentation. These rare tigers have been spotted in the wild, particularly in Kaziranga National Park, Assam. White Tiger → SLC45A2 mutation → Rewa, Madhya Pradesh White tigers exhibit a leucistic condition caused by a mutation in the SLC45A2 gene, which affects melanin transport. They are not albino, as they retain blue eyes. The first recorded white tiger was captured in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, in 1951, and most captive white tigers today are descended from that lineage. Black Tiger → Pseudomelanism → Simlipal Tiger Reserve Black tigers have dense, merged stripes, making them appear melanistic, though they are genetically Bengal tigers. This condition is termed pseudomelanism. These unique individuals have been photographed in Simlipal Tiger Reserve, Odisha, and appear to be genetically isolated due to inbreeding.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following Tiger Variant, Genetic Basis, and Location:

Tiger Variant | Genetic Basis | Natural Location

A. Golden Tiger | 1. Wideband gene mutation | i. Kaziranga National Park

B. White Tiger | 2. Mutation in SLC45A2 | ii. Originally Rewa, MP

C. Black Tiger | 3. Pseudomelanism | iii. Simlipal Tiger Reserve

How many of the above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: c)

• Golden Tiger → Wideband gene mutation → Kaziranga National Park Golden tigers have a pale golden coat with light brown stripes due to a recessive mutation in the wideband gene, which reduces eumelanin pigmentation. These rare tigers have been spotted in the wild, particularly in Kaziranga National Park, Assam.

• White Tiger → SLC45A2 mutation → Rewa, Madhya Pradesh White tigers exhibit a leucistic condition caused by a mutation in the SLC45A2 gene, which affects melanin transport. They are not albino, as they retain blue eyes. The first recorded white tiger was captured in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, in 1951, and most captive white tigers today are descended from that lineage.

• Black Tiger → Pseudomelanism → Simlipal Tiger Reserve Black tigers have dense, merged stripes, making them appear melanistic, though they are genetically Bengal tigers. This condition is termed pseudomelanism. These unique individuals have been photographed in Simlipal Tiger Reserve, Odisha, and appear to be genetically isolated due to inbreeding.

Solution: c)

• Golden Tiger → Wideband gene mutation → Kaziranga National Park Golden tigers have a pale golden coat with light brown stripes due to a recessive mutation in the wideband gene, which reduces eumelanin pigmentation. These rare tigers have been spotted in the wild, particularly in Kaziranga National Park, Assam.

• White Tiger → SLC45A2 mutation → Rewa, Madhya Pradesh White tigers exhibit a leucistic condition caused by a mutation in the SLC45A2 gene, which affects melanin transport. They are not albino, as they retain blue eyes. The first recorded white tiger was captured in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, in 1951, and most captive white tigers today are descended from that lineage.

• Black Tiger → Pseudomelanism → Simlipal Tiger Reserve Black tigers have dense, merged stripes, making them appear melanistic, though they are genetically Bengal tigers. This condition is termed pseudomelanism. These unique individuals have been photographed in Simlipal Tiger Reserve, Odisha, and appear to be genetically isolated due to inbreeding.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following are features of the BIOCOM Programme? Sustainable vocational training for local communities Integration of nature-based solutions for flood prevention Large-scale forest clearance for agribusiness development Environmental awareness programs for women and youth Select the correct answer: a) 1, 2, and 4 b) 1, 3, and 4 c) 2, 3, and 4 d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Solution: a) BIOCOM aims to prevent deforestation, not promote it, making statement 3 incorrect. It focuses on skill training (like masonry and eco-cooking), nature-based solutions (e.g., erosion control, forest regeneration), and educational outreach, particularly for women and dropouts. Incorrect Solution: a) BIOCOM aims to prevent deforestation, not promote it, making statement 3 incorrect. It focuses on skill training (like masonry and eco-cooking), nature-based solutions (e.g., erosion control, forest regeneration), and educational outreach, particularly for women and dropouts.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following are features of the BIOCOM Programme?

• Sustainable vocational training for local communities

• Integration of nature-based solutions for flood prevention

• Large-scale forest clearance for agribusiness development

• Environmental awareness programs for women and youth

Select the correct answer:

• a) 1, 2, and 4

• b) 1, 3, and 4

• c) 2, 3, and 4

• d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: a)

• BIOCOM aims to prevent deforestation, not promote it, making statement 3 incorrect. It focuses on skill training (like masonry and eco-cooking), nature-based solutions (e.g., erosion control, forest regeneration), and educational outreach, particularly for women and dropouts.

Solution: a)

• BIOCOM aims to prevent deforestation, not promote it, making statement 3 incorrect. It focuses on skill training (like masonry and eco-cooking), nature-based solutions (e.g., erosion control, forest regeneration), and educational outreach, particularly for women and dropouts.

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