UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 18 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points The development of Quantum Satellite Communication by ISRO-DRDO primarily aims to address which of the following national security concerns? a) To reduce the cost of launching communication satellites. b) To provide highly precise positioning services for disaster management. c) To establish extremely secure and tamper-proof communication channels for defence networks. d) To increase the bandwidth available for civilian internet services via satellite. Correct Solution: C The ISRO-DRDO initiative for Quantum Satellite Communication is to develop quantum-encrypted communication for tamper-proof defence networks. The core benefit of quantum encryption is its inherent security against eavesdropping and tampering, making communication channels exceptionally secure. Option (a) is incorrect; quantum communication is a technology for secure data transmission, not directly related to launch cost reduction. The primary driver is unbreakable security for sensitive defence communications. Option (b) is incorrect; positioning services are the domain of Positioning, Navigation, and Timing (PNT) systems like NavIC, not directly of quantum communication, although secure data transfer could be a component. Option (d) is incorrect; while satellite communication can provide internet, quantum communication’s current focus is on security, not bandwidth for general civilian use. Incorrect Solution: C The ISRO-DRDO initiative for Quantum Satellite Communication is to develop quantum-encrypted communication for tamper-proof defence networks. The core benefit of quantum encryption is its inherent security against eavesdropping and tampering, making communication channels exceptionally secure. Option (a) is incorrect; quantum communication is a technology for secure data transmission, not directly related to launch cost reduction. The primary driver is unbreakable security for sensitive defence communications. Option (b) is incorrect; positioning services are the domain of Positioning, Navigation, and Timing (PNT) systems like NavIC, not directly of quantum communication, although secure data transfer could be a component. Option (d) is incorrect; while satellite communication can provide internet, quantum communication’s current focus is on security, not bandwidth for general civilian use.

#### 1. Question

The development of Quantum Satellite Communication by ISRO-DRDO primarily aims to address which of the following national security concerns?

• a) To reduce the cost of launching communication satellites.

• b) To provide highly precise positioning services for disaster management.

• c) To establish extremely secure and tamper-proof communication channels for defence networks.

• d) To increase the bandwidth available for civilian internet services via satellite.

Solution: C

• The ISRO-DRDO initiative for Quantum Satellite Communication is to develop quantum-encrypted communication for tamper-proof defence networks. The core benefit of quantum encryption is its inherent security against eavesdropping and tampering, making communication channels exceptionally secure.

• Option (a) is incorrect; quantum communication is a technology for secure data transmission, not directly related to launch cost reduction. The primary driver is unbreakable security for sensitive defence communications.

• Option (b) is incorrect; positioning services are the domain of Positioning, Navigation, and Timing (PNT) systems like NavIC, not directly of quantum communication, although secure data transfer could be a component.

• Option (d) is incorrect; while satellite communication can provide internet, quantum communication’s current focus is on security, not bandwidth for general civilian use.

Solution: C

• Option (d) is incorrect; while satellite communication can provide internet, quantum communication’s current focus is on security, not bandwidth for general civilian use.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the following Tiger Reserves with their respective States: Tiger Reserve State A. Simlipal 1. Jharkhand B. Palamau 2. Chhattisgarh C. Guru Ghasidas 3. Odisha D. Udanti-Sitanadi 4. Chhattisgarh Select the correct answer code: a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 Correct Solution: C Simlipal Tiger Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha and is one of the earliest Project Tiger reserves, known for its semi-evergreen forests and tiger-elephant habitat. Palamau Tiger Reserve lies in Jharkhand and is part of the Betla National Park; it is one of India’s original nine Tiger Reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973. Guru Ghasidas National Park, carved out of the former Sanjay National Park, was declared a Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh in 2021 and shares its boundary with Madhya Pradesh. It plays a critical role as a corridor for tiger movement between Bandhavgarh and Palamau ranges. Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, also in Chhattisgarh, is known for its undulating terrain and is home to species like the endangered wild buffalo. Incorrect Solution: C Simlipal Tiger Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha and is one of the earliest Project Tiger reserves, known for its semi-evergreen forests and tiger-elephant habitat. Palamau Tiger Reserve lies in Jharkhand and is part of the Betla National Park; it is one of India’s original nine Tiger Reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973. Guru Ghasidas National Park, carved out of the former Sanjay National Park, was declared a Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh in 2021 and shares its boundary with Madhya Pradesh. It plays a critical role as a corridor for tiger movement between Bandhavgarh and Palamau ranges. Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, also in Chhattisgarh, is known for its undulating terrain and is home to species like the endangered wild buffalo.

#### 2. Question

Match the following Tiger Reserves with their respective States:

Tiger Reserve | State

A. Simlipal | 1. Jharkhand

B. Palamau | 2. Chhattisgarh

C. Guru Ghasidas | 3. Odisha

D. Udanti-Sitanadi | 4. Chhattisgarh

Select the correct answer code:

• a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

• b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

• c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Solution: C

• Simlipal Tiger Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha and is one of the earliest Project Tiger reserves, known for its semi-evergreen forests and tiger-elephant habitat.

• Palamau Tiger Reserve lies in Jharkhand and is part of the Betla National Park; it is one of India’s original nine Tiger Reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973.

• Guru Ghasidas National Park, carved out of the former Sanjay National Park, was declared a Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh in 2021 and shares its boundary with Madhya Pradesh. It plays a critical role as a corridor for tiger movement between Bandhavgarh and Palamau ranges.

• Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, also in Chhattisgarh, is known for its undulating terrain and is home to species like the endangered wild buffalo.

Solution: C

• Simlipal Tiger Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha and is one of the earliest Project Tiger reserves, known for its semi-evergreen forests and tiger-elephant habitat.

• Palamau Tiger Reserve lies in Jharkhand and is part of the Betla National Park; it is one of India’s original nine Tiger Reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973.

• Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, also in Chhattisgarh, is known for its undulating terrain and is home to species like the endangered wild buffalo.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the core principle of a “Bait and Switch” dark pattern? a) Hiding the final price of a product by adding undisclosed fees at the last step of checkout. b) Advertising a high-quality product but shipping a lower-quality version to the customer. c) Promoting a desirable outcome or offer to attract a user, and then delivering a different, less favourable one. d) Forcing a user to create an account to view content that was initially accessible without one. Correct Solution: C The essence of a Bait and Switch dark pattern lies in the deception of intent and outcome. It is a two-step process. First, the “bait” is presented – this is an attractive offer, product, or action that entices the user to click or proceed (e.g., “Click here for a free download”). Second, upon acting on the bait, the user is presented with the “switch” – an unexpected and less desirable outcome (e.g., the download requires signing up for a paid service, or the user is taken to a page to purchase a different product). Option (c) perfectly encapsulates this dynamic of promoting one thing to attract engagement and then delivering another. Incorrect Solution: C The essence of a Bait and Switch dark pattern lies in the deception of intent and outcome. It is a two-step process. First, the “bait” is presented – this is an attractive offer, product, or action that entices the user to click or proceed (e.g., “Click here for a free download”). Second, upon acting on the bait, the user is presented with the “switch” – an unexpected and less desirable outcome (e.g., the download requires signing up for a paid service, or the user is taken to a page to purchase a different product). Option (c) perfectly encapsulates this dynamic of promoting one thing to attract engagement and then delivering another.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes the core principle of a “Bait and Switch” dark pattern?

• a) Hiding the final price of a product by adding undisclosed fees at the last step of checkout.

• b) Advertising a high-quality product but shipping a lower-quality version to the customer.

• c) Promoting a desirable outcome or offer to attract a user, and then delivering a different, less favourable one.

• d) Forcing a user to create an account to view content that was initially accessible without one.

Solution: C

The essence of a Bait and Switch dark pattern lies in the deception of intent and outcome. It is a two-step process.

First, the “bait” is presented – this is an attractive offer, product, or action that entices the user to click or proceed (e.g., “Click here for a free download”).

Second, upon acting on the bait, the user is presented with the “switch” – an unexpected and less desirable outcome (e.g., the download requires signing up for a paid service, or the user is taken to a page to purchase a different product).

Option (c) perfectly encapsulates this dynamic of promoting one thing to attract engagement and then delivering another.

Solution: C

The essence of a Bait and Switch dark pattern lies in the deception of intent and outcome. It is a two-step process.

First, the “bait” is presented – this is an attractive offer, product, or action that entices the user to click or proceed (e.g., “Click here for a free download”).

Option (c) perfectly encapsulates this dynamic of promoting one thing to attract engagement and then delivering another.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Regarding the qualifications and disqualifications for Rajya Sabha membership, consider the following statements: To be eligible, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age. Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a state government is a ground for disqualification. A member can be disqualified if they are declared to be of unsound mind by a court. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest. Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest. Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the qualifications and disqualifications for Rajya Sabha membership, consider the following statements:

• To be eligible, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.

• Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a state government is a ground for disqualification.

• A member can be disqualified if they are declared to be of unsound mind by a court.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While being a citizen of India is a mandatory qualification, the minimum age requirement for membership in the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, as prescribed by Article 84 of the Constitution. The age of 35 is the minimum requirement for the President and Vice-President of India.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Union or any State Government, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This is a key provision to prevent conflicts of interest.

• Statement 3 is correct. As per the constitutional provisions for disqualification, a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This ensures that members of Parliament are mentally capable of fulfilling their legislative duties.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the ecological role of Dugongs? (a) They are filter-feeders that improve water quality by consuming plankton and other microorganisms. (b) They are known as “gardeners of the sea” because their feeding habits maintain the health of seagrass beds. (c) They primarily feed on coral reefs, helping in the natural pruning and regeneration of corals. (d) They are apex predators that control fish populations in coastal waters. Correct Solution: b) Option (a) is incorrect. Dugongs are not filter-feeders; they are large herbivorous mammals that actively graze on seagrass. Filter-feeding is a method used by other marine animals like baleen whales and shellfish. Option (b) is correct. Dugongs are “gardeners of the sea.” This is because their primary activity of grazing on seagrass helps maintain healthy seagrass beds. This role is vital for biodiversity and coastal ecosystem stability. Option (c) is incorrect. Dugongs feed on seagrass, not coral reefs. Their feeding mechanism is adapted for grazing on marine vegetation found on the seabed. Option (d) is incorrect. Dugongs are herbivores, not apex predators. Their diet consists almost exclusively of seagrass. Incorrect Solution: b) Option (a) is incorrect. Dugongs are not filter-feeders; they are large herbivorous mammals that actively graze on seagrass. Filter-feeding is a method used by other marine animals like baleen whales and shellfish. Option (b) is correct. Dugongs are “gardeners of the sea.” This is because their primary activity of grazing on seagrass helps maintain healthy seagrass beds. This role is vital for biodiversity and coastal ecosystem stability. Option (c) is incorrect. Dugongs feed on seagrass, not coral reefs. Their feeding mechanism is adapted for grazing on marine vegetation found on the seabed. Option (d) is incorrect. Dugongs are herbivores, not apex predators. Their diet consists almost exclusively of seagrass.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following best describes the ecological role of Dugongs?

• (a) They are filter-feeders that improve water quality by consuming plankton and other microorganisms.

• (b) They are known as “gardeners of the sea” because their feeding habits maintain the health of seagrass beds.

• (c) They primarily feed on coral reefs, helping in the natural pruning and regeneration of corals.

• (d) They are apex predators that control fish populations in coastal waters.

Solution: b)

• Option (a) is incorrect. Dugongs are not filter-feeders; they are large herbivorous mammals that actively graze on seagrass. Filter-feeding is a method used by other marine animals like baleen whales and shellfish.

• Option (b) is correct. Dugongs are “gardeners of the sea.” This is because their primary activity of grazing on seagrass helps maintain healthy seagrass beds. This role is vital for biodiversity and coastal ecosystem stability.

• Option (c) is incorrect. Dugongs feed on seagrass, not coral reefs. Their feeding mechanism is adapted for grazing on marine vegetation found on the seabed.

• Option (d) is incorrect. Dugongs are herbivores, not apex predators. Their diet consists almost exclusively of seagrass.

Solution: b)

• Option (c) is incorrect. Dugongs feed on seagrass, not coral reefs. Their feeding mechanism is adapted for grazing on marine vegetation found on the seabed.

• Option (d) is incorrect. Dugongs are herbivores, not apex predators. Their diet consists almost exclusively of seagrass.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following features are characteristic of the enhanced convective phase of the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO)? Increased rainfall Sinking dry air Greater cloud formation Suppressed cyclogenesis Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a major intra-seasonal atmospheric phenomenon that influences tropical and even global weather patterns, including the Indian monsoon. It is characterized by an eastward-moving pulse of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. The MJO consists of two parts, or phases: one is the enhanced rainfall (or convective) phase and the other is the suppressed rainfall phase. Strong MJO activity often dissects the planet into halves: one half within the enhanced convective phase and the other half in the suppressed convective phase. Statement 1 is correct. This phase is defined by increased rainfall, as rising moist air leads to significant precipitation. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sinking dry air is characteristic of the suppressed convective phase, which follows the enhanced phase. This sinking air inhibits cloud development and leads to clearer skies and reduced rainfall. Statement 3 is correct. The enhanced phase involves greater cloud formation due to rising air (convection) and moisture convergence in the tropics. Statement 4 is incorrect. The active phase of the MJO over the Indian Ocean is known to boost or trigger cyclogenesis (the formation of tropical cyclones), not suppress it. Suppressed conditions would hinder cyclone development. Incorrect Solution: C The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a major intra-seasonal atmospheric phenomenon that influences tropical and even global weather patterns, including the Indian monsoon. It is characterized by an eastward-moving pulse of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. The MJO consists of two parts, or phases: one is the enhanced rainfall (or convective) phase and the other is the suppressed rainfall phase. Strong MJO activity often dissects the planet into halves: one half within the enhanced convective phase and the other half in the suppressed convective phase. Statement 1 is correct. This phase is defined by increased rainfall, as rising moist air leads to significant precipitation. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sinking dry air is characteristic of the suppressed convective phase, which follows the enhanced phase. This sinking air inhibits cloud development and leads to clearer skies and reduced rainfall. Statement 3 is correct. The enhanced phase involves greater cloud formation due to rising air (convection) and moisture convergence in the tropics. Statement 4 is incorrect. The active phase of the MJO over the Indian Ocean is known to boost or trigger cyclogenesis (the formation of tropical cyclones), not suppress it. Suppressed conditions would hinder cyclone development.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following features are characteristic of the enhanced convective phase of the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO)?

• Increased rainfall

• Sinking dry air

• Greater cloud formation

• Suppressed cyclogenesis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a major intra-seasonal atmospheric phenomenon that influences tropical and even global weather patterns, including the Indian monsoon. It is characterized by an eastward-moving pulse of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.

The MJO consists of two parts, or phases: one is the enhanced rainfall (or convective) phase and the other is the suppressed rainfall phase. Strong MJO activity often dissects the planet into halves: one half within the enhanced convective phase and the other half in the suppressed convective phase.

• Statement 1 is correct. This phase is defined by increased rainfall, as rising moist air leads to significant precipitation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Sinking dry air is characteristic of the suppressed convective phase, which follows the enhanced phase. This sinking air inhibits cloud development and leads to clearer skies and reduced rainfall.

• Statement 3 is correct. The enhanced phase involves greater cloud formation due to rising air (convection) and moisture convergence in the tropics.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The active phase of the MJO over the Indian Ocean is known to boost or trigger cyclogenesis (the formation of tropical cyclones), not suppress it. Suppressed conditions would hinder cyclone development.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. This phase is defined by increased rainfall, as rising moist air leads to significant precipitation.

• Statement 3 is correct. The enhanced phase involves greater cloud formation due to rising air (convection) and moisture convergence in the tropics.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Honey Mission in India: The mission is primarily focused on increasing honey production for domestic consumption only. The Central Bee Research and Training Institute (CBRTI) in Pune is the key institution for skill development under this mission. The mission provides holistic support, including processing, marketing, and enabling sales on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While meeting domestic demand is important, a significant component of the mission’s success is its contribution to exports. In FY 2024–25, honey exports under KVIC touched ₹25 crore, and India is among the top 10 honey exporters. This shows a clear focus on both domestic and international markets. Statement 2 is correct. More than 50,000 beekeepers have been trained through CBRTI, Pune, in modern apiculture techniques. This identifies CBRTI as the principal training centre for the mission. Statement 3 is correct. The mission employs a holistic model. It doesn’t just focus on production but supports the entire value chain, which includes setting up processing plants, marketing support, and providing digital access for sales, with a specific example of enabling beekeepers to sell their products on the GeM portal. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While meeting domestic demand is important, a significant component of the mission’s success is its contribution to exports. In FY 2024–25, honey exports under KVIC touched ₹25 crore, and India is among the top 10 honey exporters. This shows a clear focus on both domestic and international markets. Statement 2 is correct. More than 50,000 beekeepers have been trained through CBRTI, Pune, in modern apiculture techniques. This identifies CBRTI as the principal training centre for the mission. Statement 3 is correct. The mission employs a holistic model. It doesn’t just focus on production but supports the entire value chain, which includes setting up processing plants, marketing support, and providing digital access for sales, with a specific example of enabling beekeepers to sell their products on the GeM portal.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Honey Mission in India:

• The mission is primarily focused on increasing honey production for domestic consumption only.

• The Central Bee Research and Training Institute (CBRTI) in Pune is the key institution for skill development under this mission.

• The mission provides holistic support, including processing, marketing, and enabling sales on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While meeting domestic demand is important, a significant component of the mission’s success is its contribution to exports. In FY 2024–25, honey exports under KVIC touched ₹25 crore, and India is among the top 10 honey exporters. This shows a clear focus on both domestic and international markets.

• Statement 2 is correct. More than 50,000 beekeepers have been trained through CBRTI, Pune, in modern apiculture techniques. This identifies CBRTI as the principal training centre for the mission.

• Statement 3 is correct. The mission employs a holistic model. It doesn’t just focus on production but supports the entire value chain, which includes setting up processing plants, marketing support, and providing digital access for sales, with a specific example of enabling beekeepers to sell their products on the GeM portal.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about microRNAs (miRNAs): They are small non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression. They bind to the coding region of mRNA to inhibit translation. They play roles in cancer progression and genetic disorders. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules typically 20-25 nucleotides long that regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level. They achieve this by binding to the 3′-untranslated region (3′-UTR) of target messenger RNAs (mRNAs), leading to mRNA degradation or inhibition of translation. This mechanism makes statement 1 correct but statement 2 incorrect, as miRNAs do not bind to the coding region of mRNA. Additionally, miRNAs are crucial in maintaining cellular homeostasis and are implicated in various biological processes, including development, differentiation, and apoptosis. Dysregulation of miRNAs is linked to several genetic disorders and plays a key role in the progression of cancers by acting as oncogenes or tumor suppressors. Thus, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules typically 20-25 nucleotides long that regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level. They achieve this by binding to the 3′-untranslated region (3′-UTR) of target messenger RNAs (mRNAs), leading to mRNA degradation or inhibition of translation. This mechanism makes statement 1 correct but statement 2 incorrect, as miRNAs do not bind to the coding region of mRNA. Additionally, miRNAs are crucial in maintaining cellular homeostasis and are implicated in various biological processes, including development, differentiation, and apoptosis. Dysregulation of miRNAs is linked to several genetic disorders and plays a key role in the progression of cancers by acting as oncogenes or tumor suppressors. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about microRNAs (miRNAs):

• They are small non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression.

• They bind to the coding region of mRNA to inhibit translation.

• They play roles in cancer progression and genetic disorders.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules typically 20-25 nucleotides long that regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level. They achieve this by binding to the 3′-untranslated region (3′-UTR) of target messenger RNAs (mRNAs), leading to mRNA degradation or inhibition of translation. This mechanism makes statement 1 correct but statement 2 incorrect, as miRNAs do not bind to the coding region of mRNA.

Additionally, miRNAs are crucial in maintaining cellular homeostasis and are implicated in various biological processes, including development, differentiation, and apoptosis. Dysregulation of miRNAs is linked to several genetic disorders and plays a key role in the progression of cancers by acting as oncogenes or tumor suppressors. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following challenges are associated with the Miyawaki Technique? High initial costs for soil preparation and planting. Difficulty in implementation in saline or degraded lands. Limited applicability to monoculture plantations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: D The Miyawaki Technique, a method for creating dense and fast-growing forests, is innovative but comes with challenges: High Initial Costs: Preparing soil to support a variety of native species and ensuring proper planting techniques require significant investment. This makes Statement 1 correct. Difficulty in Degraded or Saline Lands: The technique thrives in areas with fertile soil. However, its implementation on saline or heavily degraded lands is challenging unless extensive remediation measures are undertaken. This makes Statement 2 correct. Incompatibility with Monoculture: The Miyawaki Technique emphasizes biodiversity, requiring the planting of a mix of native species for ecological balance. This approach directly contrasts with monoculture practices, which focus on a single species. Thus, Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The Miyawaki Technique, a method for creating dense and fast-growing forests, is innovative but comes with challenges: High Initial Costs: Preparing soil to support a variety of native species and ensuring proper planting techniques require significant investment. This makes Statement 1 correct. Difficulty in Degraded or Saline Lands: The technique thrives in areas with fertile soil. However, its implementation on saline or heavily degraded lands is challenging unless extensive remediation measures are undertaken. This makes Statement 2 correct. Incompatibility with Monoculture: The Miyawaki Technique emphasizes biodiversity, requiring the planting of a mix of native species for ecological balance. This approach directly contrasts with monoculture practices, which focus on a single species. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following challenges are associated with the Miyawaki Technique?

• High initial costs for soil preparation and planting.

• Difficulty in implementation in saline or degraded lands.

• Limited applicability to monoculture plantations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

The Miyawaki Technique, a method for creating dense and fast-growing forests, is innovative but comes with challenges:

• High Initial Costs: Preparing soil to support a variety of native species and ensuring proper planting techniques require significant investment. This makes Statement 1 correct.

• Difficulty in Degraded or Saline Lands: The technique thrives in areas with fertile soil. However, its implementation on saline or heavily degraded lands is challenging unless extensive remediation measures are undertaken. This makes Statement 2 correct.

Incompatibility with Monoculture: The Miyawaki Technique emphasizes biodiversity, requiring the planting of a mix of native species for ecological balance. This approach directly contrasts with monoculture practices, which focus on a single species. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

The Miyawaki Technique, a method for creating dense and fast-growing forests, is innovative but comes with challenges:

• High Initial Costs: Preparing soil to support a variety of native species and ensuring proper planting techniques require significant investment. This makes Statement 1 correct.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following phenomena are directly associated with a disrupted polar vortex? Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) Wavy jet stream patterns Enhanced cyclogenesis in the Arctic region Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: D A disrupted polar vortex leads to several significant atmospheric phenomena: Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW): This phenomenon occurs when the polar vortex weakens due to a sudden increase in stratospheric temperatures. The warming disrupts the vortex’s stability, often leading to its splitting or displacement. Statement 1 is correct. Wavy Jet Stream Patterns: A weakened polar vortex disrupts the normally stable jet stream, causing it to develop meandering or wavy patterns. This allows cold Arctic air to move southward and warm air to intrude into the Arctic, resulting in extreme weather events in mid-latitudes. Statement 2 is correct. Enhanced Cyclogenesis in the Arctic Region: The instability caused by a disrupted polar vortex increases cyclonic activity (cyclogenesis) in the Arctic. This leads to more frequent and intense storms in the region. Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D A disrupted polar vortex leads to several significant atmospheric phenomena: Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW): This phenomenon occurs when the polar vortex weakens due to a sudden increase in stratospheric temperatures. The warming disrupts the vortex’s stability, often leading to its splitting or displacement. Statement 1 is correct. Wavy Jet Stream Patterns: A weakened polar vortex disrupts the normally stable jet stream, causing it to develop meandering or wavy patterns. This allows cold Arctic air to move southward and warm air to intrude into the Arctic, resulting in extreme weather events in mid-latitudes. Statement 2 is correct. Enhanced Cyclogenesis in the Arctic Region: The instability caused by a disrupted polar vortex increases cyclonic activity (cyclogenesis) in the Arctic. This leads to more frequent and intense storms in the region. Statement 3 is correct.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following phenomena are directly associated with a disrupted polar vortex?

• Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW)

• Wavy jet stream patterns

• Enhanced cyclogenesis in the Arctic region

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

A disrupted polar vortex leads to several significant atmospheric phenomena:

• Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW): This phenomenon occurs when the polar vortex weakens due to a sudden increase in stratospheric temperatures. The warming disrupts the vortex’s stability, often leading to its splitting or displacement. Statement 1 is correct.

• Wavy Jet Stream Patterns: A weakened polar vortex disrupts the normally stable jet stream, causing it to develop meandering or wavy patterns. This allows cold Arctic air to move southward and warm air to intrude into the Arctic, resulting in extreme weather events in mid-latitudes. Statement 2 is correct.

• Enhanced Cyclogenesis in the Arctic Region: The instability caused by a disrupted polar vortex increases cyclonic activity (cyclogenesis) in the Arctic. This leads to more frequent and intense storms in the region. Statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

A disrupted polar vortex leads to several significant atmospheric phenomena:

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