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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 17 September 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), consider the following statements: The ICG was formally established based on the recommendations of the K.F. Rustamji Committee. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The ICG is designated as the fourth armed force of India. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) plays a pivotal role in safeguarding India’s maritime interests. Its establishment and operational framework are crucial aspects of India’s coastal security architecture. Statement 1 is correct. The concept for a dedicated maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency gained momentum in the early 1970s. The Nag Committee (1970) and subsequently the K.F. Rustamji Committee (1974) provided the foundational recommendations that led to the formal establishment of the Indian Coast Guard on February 1, 1977. This was a significant step in strengthening India’s maritime security apparatus. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its functions are closely intertwined with the country’s naval defence and overall maritime security strategy. Its collaboration with the Indian Navy is essential for effective coastal defence and surveillance. Statement 3 is correct. The ICG is recognized as the fourth armed force of India, alongside the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This status underscores its importance in the national security framework and its role in protecting India’s vast coastline, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and offshore assets. Its responsibilities range from law enforcement at sea to search and rescue operations and marine environment protection. Incorrect Solution: A The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) plays a pivotal role in safeguarding India’s maritime interests. Its establishment and operational framework are crucial aspects of India’s coastal security architecture. Statement 1 is correct. The concept for a dedicated maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency gained momentum in the early 1970s. The Nag Committee (1970) and subsequently the K.F. Rustamji Committee (1974) provided the foundational recommendations that led to the formal establishment of the Indian Coast Guard on February 1, 1977. This was a significant step in strengthening India’s maritime security apparatus. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its functions are closely intertwined with the country’s naval defence and overall maritime security strategy. Its collaboration with the Indian Navy is essential for effective coastal defence and surveillance. Statement 3 is correct. The ICG is recognized as the fourth armed force of India, alongside the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This status underscores its importance in the national security framework and its role in protecting India’s vast coastline, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and offshore assets. Its responsibilities range from law enforcement at sea to search and rescue operations and marine environment protection.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), consider the following statements:

• The ICG was formally established based on the recommendations of the K.F. Rustamji Committee.

• It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

• The ICG is designated as the fourth armed force of India.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) plays a pivotal role in safeguarding India’s maritime interests. Its establishment and operational framework are crucial aspects of India’s coastal security architecture.

• Statement 1 is correct. The concept for a dedicated maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency gained momentum in the early 1970s. The Nag Committee (1970) and subsequently the K.F. Rustamji Committee (1974) provided the foundational recommendations that led to the formal establishment of the Indian Coast Guard on February 1, 1977. This was a significant step in strengthening India’s maritime security apparatus.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its functions are closely intertwined with the country’s naval defence and overall maritime security strategy. Its collaboration with the Indian Navy is essential for effective coastal defence and surveillance.

• Statement 3 is correct. The ICG is recognized as the fourth armed force of India, alongside the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This status underscores its importance in the national security framework and its role in protecting India’s vast coastline, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and offshore assets. Its responsibilities range from law enforcement at sea to search and rescue operations and marine environment protection.

Solution: A

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) plays a pivotal role in safeguarding India’s maritime interests. Its establishment and operational framework are crucial aspects of India’s coastal security architecture.

• Statement 1 is correct. The concept for a dedicated maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency gained momentum in the early 1970s. The Nag Committee (1970) and subsequently the K.F. Rustamji Committee (1974) provided the foundational recommendations that led to the formal establishment of the Indian Coast Guard on February 1, 1977. This was a significant step in strengthening India’s maritime security apparatus.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its functions are closely intertwined with the country’s naval defence and overall maritime security strategy. Its collaboration with the Indian Navy is essential for effective coastal defence and surveillance.

• Statement 3 is correct. The ICG is recognized as the fourth armed force of India, alongside the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This status underscores its importance in the national security framework and its role in protecting India’s vast coastline, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and offshore assets. Its responsibilities range from law enforcement at sea to search and rescue operations and marine environment protection.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the phenomenon of ‘Involution’ in the context of China’s EV sector? (a) A strategic consolidation of the EV market leading to increased profitability and innovation. (b) A government-led initiative to promote sustainable and cost-effective EV production. (c) A cycle of destructive price wars and oversupply, resulting in diminishing returns and financial stress for manufacturers. (d) The process of vertically integrating the supply chain to reduce dependence on foreign components. Correct Solution: C The term ‘Involution’ has gained prominence in discussions about China’s socio-economic landscape, particularly its highly competitive industries. Option (a) is incorrect. Involution is the opposite of strategic consolidation. Instead of leading to increased profitability, it erodes profits as companies are forced to sell products at or below production cost to remain competitive. Option (b) is incorrect. While the Chinese government has been instrumental in the growth of the EV sector, involution is not a government initiative. In fact, it is viewed as a negative phenomenon that poses a threat to the long-term stability and health of the industry, prompting government intervention to manage the situation. Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately captures the essence of involution in the context of China’s EV sector. The market is characterized by hyper-competition among a large number of manufacturers (120-130). This has led to intense price wars, where companies drastically cut prices to attract customers, often selling their vehicles for less than what it costs to produce them. This, combined with excess production capacity and insufficient demand, creates a vicious cycle of diminishing returns, financial losses, and a high risk of bankruptcy for smaller players. Option (d) is incorrect. While vertical integration is a strategy employed by some companies in the EV sector, it is not the defining characteristic of involution. Involution is about the nature of competition and its consequences, not a specific business strategy. Incorrect Solution: C The term ‘Involution’ has gained prominence in discussions about China’s socio-economic landscape, particularly its highly competitive industries. Option (a) is incorrect. Involution is the opposite of strategic consolidation. Instead of leading to increased profitability, it erodes profits as companies are forced to sell products at or below production cost to remain competitive. Option (b) is incorrect. While the Chinese government has been instrumental in the growth of the EV sector, involution is not a government initiative. In fact, it is viewed as a negative phenomenon that poses a threat to the long-term stability and health of the industry, prompting government intervention to manage the situation. Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately captures the essence of involution in the context of China’s EV sector. The market is characterized by hyper-competition among a large number of manufacturers (120-130). This has led to intense price wars, where companies drastically cut prices to attract customers, often selling their vehicles for less than what it costs to produce them. This, combined with excess production capacity and insufficient demand, creates a vicious cycle of diminishing returns, financial losses, and a high risk of bankruptcy for smaller players. Option (d) is incorrect. While vertical integration is a strategy employed by some companies in the EV sector, it is not the defining characteristic of involution. Involution is about the nature of competition and its consequences, not a specific business strategy.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the phenomenon of ‘Involution’ in the context of China’s EV sector?

• (a) A strategic consolidation of the EV market leading to increased profitability and innovation.

• (b) A government-led initiative to promote sustainable and cost-effective EV production.

• (c) A cycle of destructive price wars and oversupply, resulting in diminishing returns and financial stress for manufacturers.

• (d) The process of vertically integrating the supply chain to reduce dependence on foreign components.

Solution: C

The term ‘Involution’ has gained prominence in discussions about China’s socio-economic landscape, particularly its highly competitive industries.

• Option (a) is incorrect. Involution is the opposite of strategic consolidation. Instead of leading to increased profitability, it erodes profits as companies are forced to sell products at or below production cost to remain competitive.

• Option (b) is incorrect. While the Chinese government has been instrumental in the growth of the EV sector, involution is not a government initiative. In fact, it is viewed as a negative phenomenon that poses a threat to the long-term stability and health of the industry, prompting government intervention to manage the situation.

• Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately captures the essence of involution in the context of China’s EV sector. The market is characterized by hyper-competition among a large number of manufacturers (120-130). This has led to intense price wars, where companies drastically cut prices to attract customers, often selling their vehicles for less than what it costs to produce them. This, combined with excess production capacity and insufficient demand, creates a vicious cycle of diminishing returns, financial losses, and a high risk of bankruptcy for smaller players.

Option (d) is incorrect. While vertical integration is a strategy employed by some companies in the EV sector, it is not the defining characteristic of involution. Involution is about the nature of competition and its consequences, not a specific business strategy.

Solution: C

The term ‘Involution’ has gained prominence in discussions about China’s socio-economic landscape, particularly its highly competitive industries.

• Option (a) is incorrect. Involution is the opposite of strategic consolidation. Instead of leading to increased profitability, it erodes profits as companies are forced to sell products at or below production cost to remain competitive.

• Option (b) is incorrect. While the Chinese government has been instrumental in the growth of the EV sector, involution is not a government initiative. In fact, it is viewed as a negative phenomenon that poses a threat to the long-term stability and health of the industry, prompting government intervention to manage the situation.

• Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately captures the essence of involution in the context of China’s EV sector. The market is characterized by hyper-competition among a large number of manufacturers (120-130). This has led to intense price wars, where companies drastically cut prices to attract customers, often selling their vehicles for less than what it costs to produce them. This, combined with excess production capacity and insufficient demand, creates a vicious cycle of diminishing returns, financial losses, and a high risk of bankruptcy for smaller players.

Option (d) is incorrect. While vertical integration is a strategy employed by some companies in the EV sector, it is not the defining characteristic of involution. Involution is about the nature of competition and its consequences, not a specific business strategy.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: It is the first WTO agreement that focuses on environmental sustainability. The agreement prohibits all forms of government subsidies to the fisheries sector. A WTO Fish Fund has been established to assist developed countries in implementing the agreement. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies is a landmark agreement that addresses a critical issue at the intersection of trade, environment, and development. Statement 1 is correct. This agreement is a significant milestone for the World Trade Organization as it is the first multilateral agreement under its aegis that is primarily focused on environmental sustainability. By targeting harmful fishing subsidies, the agreement aims to protect marine resources, address the problem of overfishing, and promote the long-term health of global fish stocks. Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement does not prohibit all forms of subsidies. Instead, it specifically targets subsidies that are most harmful to fish stocks. The prohibitions apply to subsidies for illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing, fishing of overfished stocks, and fishing on the unregulated high seas. It does not impose a blanket ban on all fisheries subsidies, recognizing that some forms of support may be necessary for sustainable development and the livelihoods of small-scale fishers. Statement 3 is incorrect. The WTO Fish Fund has been established to provide technical assistance and capacity-building support to developing countries and Least Developed Countries (LDCs), not developed countries. This is to help them implement the provisions of the agreement and transition to more sustainable fishing practices. The fund acknowledges the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and the special needs of developing and least-developed members. Incorrect Solution: A The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies is a landmark agreement that addresses a critical issue at the intersection of trade, environment, and development. Statement 1 is correct. This agreement is a significant milestone for the World Trade Organization as it is the first multilateral agreement under its aegis that is primarily focused on environmental sustainability. By targeting harmful fishing subsidies, the agreement aims to protect marine resources, address the problem of overfishing, and promote the long-term health of global fish stocks. Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement does not prohibit all forms of subsidies. Instead, it specifically targets subsidies that are most harmful to fish stocks. The prohibitions apply to subsidies for illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing, fishing of overfished stocks, and fishing on the unregulated high seas. It does not impose a blanket ban on all fisheries subsidies, recognizing that some forms of support may be necessary for sustainable development and the livelihoods of small-scale fishers. Statement 3 is incorrect. The WTO Fish Fund has been established to provide technical assistance and capacity-building support to developing countries and Least Developed Countries (LDCs), not developed countries. This is to help them implement the provisions of the agreement and transition to more sustainable fishing practices. The fund acknowledges the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and the special needs of developing and least-developed members.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies:

• It is the first WTO agreement that focuses on environmental sustainability.

• The agreement prohibits all forms of government subsidies to the fisheries sector.

• A WTO Fish Fund has been established to assist developed countries in implementing the agreement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies is a landmark agreement that addresses a critical issue at the intersection of trade, environment, and development.

• Statement 1 is correct. This agreement is a significant milestone for the World Trade Organization as it is the first multilateral agreement under its aegis that is primarily focused on environmental sustainability. By targeting harmful fishing subsidies, the agreement aims to protect marine resources, address the problem of overfishing, and promote the long-term health of global fish stocks.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement does not prohibit all forms of subsidies. Instead, it specifically targets subsidies that are most harmful to fish stocks. The prohibitions apply to subsidies for illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing, fishing of overfished stocks, and fishing on the unregulated high seas. It does not impose a blanket ban on all fisheries subsidies, recognizing that some forms of support may be necessary for sustainable development and the livelihoods of small-scale fishers.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The WTO Fish Fund has been established to provide technical assistance and capacity-building support to developing countries and Least Developed Countries (LDCs), not developed countries. This is to help them implement the provisions of the agreement and transition to more sustainable fishing practices. The fund acknowledges the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and the special needs of developing and least-developed members.

Solution: A

The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies is a landmark agreement that addresses a critical issue at the intersection of trade, environment, and development.

• Statement 1 is correct. This agreement is a significant milestone for the World Trade Organization as it is the first multilateral agreement under its aegis that is primarily focused on environmental sustainability. By targeting harmful fishing subsidies, the agreement aims to protect marine resources, address the problem of overfishing, and promote the long-term health of global fish stocks.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement does not prohibit all forms of subsidies. Instead, it specifically targets subsidies that are most harmful to fish stocks. The prohibitions apply to subsidies for illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing, fishing of overfished stocks, and fishing on the unregulated high seas. It does not impose a blanket ban on all fisheries subsidies, recognizing that some forms of support may be necessary for sustainable development and the livelihoods of small-scale fishers.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The WTO Fish Fund has been established to provide technical assistance and capacity-building support to developing countries and Least Developed Countries (LDCs), not developed countries. This is to help them implement the provisions of the agreement and transition to more sustainable fishing practices. The fund acknowledges the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and the special needs of developing and least-developed members.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, consider the following statements: The Act provides for the creation of six schedules to classify species based on their protection level. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has increased the number of schedules in the Act. The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) is the authority for granting permission for the acquisition of scheduled wild animals. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The original Act of 1972 established six schedules to categorize flora and fauna based on the degree of protection they require. Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide the highest level of protection, with stringent penalties for any violations. The other schedules offer varying degrees of protection, and Schedule VI regulates the cultivation of specified plants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has rationalized the schedules and reduced their number from six to four. This was done to simplify the Act and remove redundancies. The amended schedules are: Schedule I for animal species with the highest level of protection, Schedule II for animal species with a lesser degree of protection, Schedule III for protected plant species, and Schedule IV for specimens listed under CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora). Statement 3 is correct. According to Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, any individual or organization intending to acquire, possess, or transfer a scheduled wild animal must obtain prior permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the respective state or union territory. This provision is in place to ensure that all such acquisitions are legal, transparent, and do not contribute to the illegal wildlife trade. The CWW is responsible for verifying the legality of the source and ensuring compliance with all relevant rules and regulations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The original Act of 1972 established six schedules to categorize flora and fauna based on the degree of protection they require. Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide the highest level of protection, with stringent penalties for any violations. The other schedules offer varying degrees of protection, and Schedule VI regulates the cultivation of specified plants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has rationalized the schedules and reduced their number from six to four. This was done to simplify the Act and remove redundancies. The amended schedules are: Schedule I for animal species with the highest level of protection, Schedule II for animal species with a lesser degree of protection, Schedule III for protected plant species, and Schedule IV for specimens listed under CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora). Statement 3 is correct. According to Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, any individual or organization intending to acquire, possess, or transfer a scheduled wild animal must obtain prior permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the respective state or union territory. This provision is in place to ensure that all such acquisitions are legal, transparent, and do not contribute to the illegal wildlife trade. The CWW is responsible for verifying the legality of the source and ensuring compliance with all relevant rules and regulations.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, consider the following statements:

• The Act provides for the creation of six schedules to classify species based on their protection level.

• The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has increased the number of schedules in the Act.

• The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) is the authority for granting permission for the acquisition of scheduled wild animals.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The original Act of 1972 established six schedules to categorize flora and fauna based on the degree of protection they require. Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide the highest level of protection, with stringent penalties for any violations. The other schedules offer varying degrees of protection, and Schedule VI regulates the cultivation of specified plants.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has rationalized the schedules and reduced their number from six to four. This was done to simplify the Act and remove redundancies. The amended schedules are: Schedule I for animal species with the highest level of protection, Schedule II for animal species with a lesser degree of protection, Schedule III for protected plant species, and Schedule IV for specimens listed under CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora).

Statement 3 is correct. According to Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, any individual or organization intending to acquire, possess, or transfer a scheduled wild animal must obtain prior permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the respective state or union territory. This provision is in place to ensure that all such acquisitions are legal, transparent, and do not contribute to the illegal wildlife trade. The CWW is responsible for verifying the legality of the source and ensuring compliance with all relevant rules and regulations.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The original Act of 1972 established six schedules to categorize flora and fauna based on the degree of protection they require. Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide the highest level of protection, with stringent penalties for any violations. The other schedules offer varying degrees of protection, and Schedule VI regulates the cultivation of specified plants.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has rationalized the schedules and reduced their number from six to four. This was done to simplify the Act and remove redundancies. The amended schedules are: Schedule I for animal species with the highest level of protection, Schedule II for animal species with a lesser degree of protection, Schedule III for protected plant species, and Schedule IV for specimens listed under CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora).

Statement 3 is correct. According to Sections 40 and 42 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, any individual or organization intending to acquire, possess, or transfer a scheduled wild animal must obtain prior permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW) of the respective state or union territory. This provision is in place to ensure that all such acquisitions are legal, transparent, and do not contribute to the illegal wildlife trade. The CWW is responsible for verifying the legality of the source and ensuring compliance with all relevant rules and regulations.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary (TWS): It is located in the Yavatmal district of Maharashtra. The sanctuary is named after the Goddess Tipai. The vegetation in the sanctuary is predominantly composed of Red Sandalwood. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is an emerging tiger conservation success story and a biodiversity hotspot in Maharashtra. Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Pandarkawada region of the Yavatmal district in Maharashtra. It covers an area of 148.63 sq. km and is known for its rugged terrain and rich biodiversity. Its location makes it an important part of the tiger corridor in the region. Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary derives its name from the Goddess Tipai, whose shrine is located in the Tipeshwar village within the sanctuary premises. This local cultural connect is a common feature in the naming of many protected areas in India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The dominant tree species in the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is Teak (Tectona grandis), which covers approximately 60% of the vegetation. While Red Sandalwood is present, it constitutes a smaller portion, around 15%, of the flora. The sanctuary also has a rich mix of other species like Mahua, Achar, Lendia, Tiwas, and a significant bamboo population. Incorrect Solution: D Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is an emerging tiger conservation success story and a biodiversity hotspot in Maharashtra. Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Pandarkawada region of the Yavatmal district in Maharashtra. It covers an area of 148.63 sq. km and is known for its rugged terrain and rich biodiversity. Its location makes it an important part of the tiger corridor in the region. Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary derives its name from the Goddess Tipai, whose shrine is located in the Tipeshwar village within the sanctuary premises. This local cultural connect is a common feature in the naming of many protected areas in India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The dominant tree species in the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is Teak (Tectona grandis), which covers approximately 60% of the vegetation. While Red Sandalwood is present, it constitutes a smaller portion, around 15%, of the flora. The sanctuary also has a rich mix of other species like Mahua, Achar, Lendia, Tiwas, and a significant bamboo population.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary (TWS):

• It is located in the Yavatmal district of Maharashtra.

• The sanctuary is named after the Goddess Tipai.

• The vegetation in the sanctuary is predominantly composed of Red Sandalwood.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is an emerging tiger conservation success story and a biodiversity hotspot in Maharashtra.

• Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Pandarkawada region of the Yavatmal district in Maharashtra. It covers an area of 148.63 sq. km and is known for its rugged terrain and rich biodiversity. Its location makes it an important part of the tiger corridor in the region.

• Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary derives its name from the Goddess Tipai, whose shrine is located in the Tipeshwar village within the sanctuary premises. This local cultural connect is a common feature in the naming of many protected areas in India.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The dominant tree species in the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is Teak (Tectona grandis), which covers approximately 60% of the vegetation. While Red Sandalwood is present, it constitutes a smaller portion, around 15%, of the flora. The sanctuary also has a rich mix of other species like Mahua, Achar, Lendia, Tiwas, and a significant bamboo population.

Solution: D

Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is an emerging tiger conservation success story and a biodiversity hotspot in Maharashtra.

• Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Pandarkawada region of the Yavatmal district in Maharashtra. It covers an area of 148.63 sq. km and is known for its rugged terrain and rich biodiversity. Its location makes it an important part of the tiger corridor in the region.

• Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary derives its name from the Goddess Tipai, whose shrine is located in the Tipeshwar village within the sanctuary premises. This local cultural connect is a common feature in the naming of many protected areas in India.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The dominant tree species in the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is Teak (Tectona grandis), which covers approximately 60% of the vegetation. While Red Sandalwood is present, it constitutes a smaller portion, around 15%, of the flora. The sanctuary also has a rich mix of other species like Mahua, Achar, Lendia, Tiwas, and a significant bamboo population.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’. Statement-I: The ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ aims to bridge the digital and development divide in underserved regions of India. Statement-II: The initiative focuses on deploying proven frontier technology use cases in Aspirational Districts and Blocks. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. A key objective of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to bridge the digital and development divide in some of India’s most backward regions by 2047. By bringing the benefits of modern technology to these underserved areas, the initiative seeks to improve the quality of life of citizens and ensure inclusive growth. Statement-II is correct. The core strategy of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to deploy proven use cases of frontier technologies (like AI, IoT, drones, etc.) from the Frontier Tech Repository. These technologies will be implemented in 50 selected Aspirational Districts and Blocks to address specific challenges in sectors like agriculture, health, education, and livelihoods. Statement-II provides the mechanism through which the goal stated in Statement-I is to be achieved Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. A key objective of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to bridge the digital and development divide in some of India’s most backward regions by 2047. By bringing the benefits of modern technology to these underserved areas, the initiative seeks to improve the quality of life of citizens and ensure inclusive growth. Statement-II is correct. The core strategy of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to deploy proven use cases of frontier technologies (like AI, IoT, drones, etc.) from the Frontier Tech Repository. These technologies will be implemented in 50 selected Aspirational Districts and Blocks to address specific challenges in sectors like agriculture, health, education, and livelihoods. Statement-II provides the mechanism through which the goal stated in Statement-I is to be achieved

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’.

Statement-I: The ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ aims to bridge the digital and development divide in underserved regions of India.

Statement-II: The initiative focuses on deploying proven frontier technology use cases in Aspirational Districts and Blocks.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. A key objective of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to bridge the digital and development divide in some of India’s most backward regions by 2047. By bringing the benefits of modern technology to these underserved areas, the initiative seeks to improve the quality of life of citizens and ensure inclusive growth.

• Statement-II is correct. The core strategy of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to deploy proven use cases of frontier technologies (like AI, IoT, drones, etc.) from the Frontier Tech Repository. These technologies will be implemented in 50 selected Aspirational Districts and Blocks to address specific challenges in sectors like agriculture, health, education, and livelihoods.

• Statement-II provides the mechanism through which the goal stated in Statement-I is to be achieved

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. A key objective of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to bridge the digital and development divide in some of India’s most backward regions by 2047. By bringing the benefits of modern technology to these underserved areas, the initiative seeks to improve the quality of life of citizens and ensure inclusive growth.

• Statement-II is correct. The core strategy of the ‘Frontier 50 Initiative’ is to deploy proven use cases of frontier technologies (like AI, IoT, drones, etc.) from the Frontier Tech Repository. These technologies will be implemented in 50 selected Aspirational Districts and Blocks to address specific challenges in sectors like agriculture, health, education, and livelihoods.

• Statement-II provides the mechanism through which the goal stated in Statement-I is to be achieved

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a function of the Indian Coast Guard? (a) Maritime environment protection and pollution control. (b) Enforcement of the Maritime Zones of India Act. (c) Conducting offensive naval warfare operations during wartime. (d) Safeguarding vital offshore installations. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is a function. The ICG is the primary agency responsible for maritime environment protection in India’s maritime zones. This includes responding to oil spills, monitoring pollution levels, and preserving the marine ecosystem. Option (b) is a function. The ICG is responsible for enforcing national laws in India’s maritime zones, including the Maritime Zones of India Act. This involves preventing illegal activities such as smuggling, poaching, and unauthorized exploration or exploitation of resources. Option (c) is NOT a function. Conducting offensive naval warfare operations is the primary responsibility of the Indian Navy. The ICG is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency. While it works in close coordination with the Navy and plays a crucial role in coastal defence, its mandate does not extend to large-scale offensive combat operations. Its vessels are typically armed for law enforcement and self-defence, not for engaging in naval warfare. Option (d) is a function. A key role of the ICG is to ensure the security of vital offshore installations, such as oil rigs (e.g., Mumbai High) and other economic assets located in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). This is crucial for the country’s economic and energy security. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is a function. The ICG is the primary agency responsible for maritime environment protection in India’s maritime zones. This includes responding to oil spills, monitoring pollution levels, and preserving the marine ecosystem. Option (b) is a function. The ICG is responsible for enforcing national laws in India’s maritime zones, including the Maritime Zones of India Act. This involves preventing illegal activities such as smuggling, poaching, and unauthorized exploration or exploitation of resources. Option (c) is NOT a function. Conducting offensive naval warfare operations is the primary responsibility of the Indian Navy. The ICG is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency. While it works in close coordination with the Navy and plays a crucial role in coastal defence, its mandate does not extend to large-scale offensive combat operations. Its vessels are typically armed for law enforcement and self-defence, not for engaging in naval warfare. Option (d) is a function. A key role of the ICG is to ensure the security of vital offshore installations, such as oil rigs (e.g., Mumbai High) and other economic assets located in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). This is crucial for the country’s economic and energy security.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Indian Coast Guard?

• (a) Maritime environment protection and pollution control.

• (b) Enforcement of the Maritime Zones of India Act.

• (c) Conducting offensive naval warfare operations during wartime.

• (d) Safeguarding vital offshore installations.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is a function. The ICG is the primary agency responsible for maritime environment protection in India’s maritime zones. This includes responding to oil spills, monitoring pollution levels, and preserving the marine ecosystem.

• Option (b) is a function. The ICG is responsible for enforcing national laws in India’s maritime zones, including the Maritime Zones of India Act. This involves preventing illegal activities such as smuggling, poaching, and unauthorized exploration or exploitation of resources.

• Option (c) is NOT a function. Conducting offensive naval warfare operations is the primary responsibility of the Indian Navy. The ICG is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency. While it works in close coordination with the Navy and plays a crucial role in coastal defence, its mandate does not extend to large-scale offensive combat operations. Its vessels are typically armed for law enforcement and self-defence, not for engaging in naval warfare.

Option (d) is a function. A key role of the ICG is to ensure the security of vital offshore installations, such as oil rigs (e.g., Mumbai High) and other economic assets located in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). This is crucial for the country’s economic and energy security.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is a function. The ICG is the primary agency responsible for maritime environment protection in India’s maritime zones. This includes responding to oil spills, monitoring pollution levels, and preserving the marine ecosystem.

• Option (b) is a function. The ICG is responsible for enforcing national laws in India’s maritime zones, including the Maritime Zones of India Act. This involves preventing illegal activities such as smuggling, poaching, and unauthorized exploration or exploitation of resources.

• Option (c) is NOT a function. Conducting offensive naval warfare operations is the primary responsibility of the Indian Navy. The ICG is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency. While it works in close coordination with the Navy and plays a crucial role in coastal defence, its mandate does not extend to large-scale offensive combat operations. Its vessels are typically armed for law enforcement and self-defence, not for engaging in naval warfare.

Option (d) is a function. A key role of the ICG is to ensure the security of vital offshore installations, such as oil rigs (e.g., Mumbai High) and other economic assets located in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). This is crucial for the country’s economic and energy security.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary: It is also a designated Tiger Reserve. The sanctuary is home to the Rusty Spotted Cat, one of the world’s smallest feline species. The popular Hindi film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of a tigress from this sanctuary. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is not only a sanctuary but is also considered a tiger reserve. It has gained significant attention for its high tiger density and successful conservation efforts, which have seen its tiger population grow from just 3 to over 20 since 2010. Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary’s diverse fauna includes rare mammals, one of which is the Rusty Spotted Cat. This elusive and tiny wild cat is one of the smallest feline species in the world, and its presence indicates a healthy and diverse ecosystem within the sanctuary. The sanctuary is also home to other rare species like the False Vampire Bat. Statement 3 is incorrect. The statement says the film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of Tigress Avni from the sanctuary. However, it was loosely based on the events surrounding Tigress Avni (T1). The film drew inspiration from the controversial killing of the tigress, but it was a fictionalized cinematic adaptation, not a direct biographical account. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is not only a sanctuary but is also considered a tiger reserve. It has gained significant attention for its high tiger density and successful conservation efforts, which have seen its tiger population grow from just 3 to over 20 since 2010. Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary’s diverse fauna includes rare mammals, one of which is the Rusty Spotted Cat. This elusive and tiny wild cat is one of the smallest feline species in the world, and its presence indicates a healthy and diverse ecosystem within the sanctuary. The sanctuary is also home to other rare species like the False Vampire Bat. Statement 3 is incorrect. The statement says the film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of Tigress Avni from the sanctuary. However, it was loosely based on the events surrounding Tigress Avni (T1). The film drew inspiration from the controversial killing of the tigress, but it was a fictionalized cinematic adaptation, not a direct biographical account.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is also a designated Tiger Reserve.

• The sanctuary is home to the Rusty Spotted Cat, one of the world’s smallest feline species.

• The popular Hindi film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of a tigress from this sanctuary.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is not only a sanctuary but is also considered a tiger reserve. It has gained significant attention for its high tiger density and successful conservation efforts, which have seen its tiger population grow from just 3 to over 20 since 2010.

• Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary’s diverse fauna includes rare mammals, one of which is the Rusty Spotted Cat. This elusive and tiny wild cat is one of the smallest feline species in the world, and its presence indicates a healthy and diverse ecosystem within the sanctuary. The sanctuary is also home to other rare species like the False Vampire Bat.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The statement says the film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of Tigress Avni from the sanctuary. However, it was loosely based on the events surrounding Tigress Avni (T1). The film drew inspiration from the controversial killing of the tigress, but it was a fictionalized cinematic adaptation, not a direct biographical account.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is not only a sanctuary but is also considered a tiger reserve. It has gained significant attention for its high tiger density and successful conservation efforts, which have seen its tiger population grow from just 3 to over 20 since 2010.

• Statement 2 is correct. The sanctuary’s diverse fauna includes rare mammals, one of which is the Rusty Spotted Cat. This elusive and tiny wild cat is one of the smallest feline species in the world, and its presence indicates a healthy and diverse ecosystem within the sanctuary. The sanctuary is also home to other rare species like the False Vampire Bat.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The statement says the film ‘Sherni’ was directly based on the life of Tigress Avni from the sanctuary. However, it was loosely based on the events surrounding Tigress Avni (T1). The film drew inspiration from the controversial killing of the tigress, but it was a fictionalized cinematic adaptation, not a direct biographical account.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Red Sea and its strategic importance: It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Arabian Sea via the Suez Canal and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait respectively. The geological activity in the region makes its water have lower salinity compared to other major seas. The sea is a chokepoint for maritime trade as well as for global digital communication via undersea cables. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea is a critical maritime corridor. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea in the north via the Suez Canal and to the Arabian Sea (and the wider Indian Ocean) in the south via the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Red Sea is one of the hottest and saltiest seas in the world. High evaporation rates, low precipitation, and limited inflow from rivers contribute to its high salinity, which is contrary to the claim made in the statement. Statement 3 is correct. The narrowness of the Red Sea, particularly at the Suez Canal and Bab el-Mandeb, makes it a strategic chokepoint for global shipping. Additionally, as demonstrated by recent events, numerous vital undersea fiber-optic cables connecting Europe, Asia, and Africa are routed through the Red Sea, making it a chokepoint for international data traffic as well. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea is a critical maritime corridor. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea in the north via the Suez Canal and to the Arabian Sea (and the wider Indian Ocean) in the south via the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Red Sea is one of the hottest and saltiest seas in the world. High evaporation rates, low precipitation, and limited inflow from rivers contribute to its high salinity, which is contrary to the claim made in the statement. Statement 3 is correct. The narrowness of the Red Sea, particularly at the Suez Canal and Bab el-Mandeb, makes it a strategic chokepoint for global shipping. Additionally, as demonstrated by recent events, numerous vital undersea fiber-optic cables connecting Europe, Asia, and Africa are routed through the Red Sea, making it a chokepoint for international data traffic as well.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Red Sea and its strategic importance:

• It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Arabian Sea via the Suez Canal and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait respectively.

• The geological activity in the region makes its water have lower salinity compared to other major seas.

• The sea is a chokepoint for maritime trade as well as for global digital communication via undersea cables.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea is a critical maritime corridor. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea in the north via the Suez Canal and to the Arabian Sea (and the wider Indian Ocean) in the south via the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Red Sea is one of the hottest and saltiest seas in the world. High evaporation rates, low precipitation, and limited inflow from rivers contribute to its high salinity, which is contrary to the claim made in the statement.

• Statement 3 is correct. The narrowness of the Red Sea, particularly at the Suez Canal and Bab el-Mandeb, makes it a strategic chokepoint for global shipping. Additionally, as demonstrated by recent events, numerous vital undersea fiber-optic cables connecting Europe, Asia, and Africa are routed through the Red Sea, making it a chokepoint for international data traffic as well.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea is a critical maritime corridor. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea in the north via the Suez Canal and to the Arabian Sea (and the wider Indian Ocean) in the south via the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Red Sea is one of the hottest and saltiest seas in the world. High evaporation rates, low precipitation, and limited inflow from rivers contribute to its high salinity, which is contrary to the claim made in the statement.

• Statement 3 is correct. The narrowness of the Red Sea, particularly at the Suez Canal and Bab el-Mandeb, makes it a strategic chokepoint for global shipping. Additionally, as demonstrated by recent events, numerous vital undersea fiber-optic cables connecting Europe, Asia, and Africa are routed through the Red Sea, making it a chokepoint for international data traffic as well.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements concerning Mpox are correct? The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus is definitively identified as various species of monkeys in Central and West Africa. The characteristic rash in Mpox typically begins on the torso and then spreads to the face and limbs. Transmission can occur through direct contact with contaminated objects such as bedding or clothing. The WHO’s declaration that Mpox is no longer a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) implies that the virus has been eradicated globally. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus remains unknown. While monkeys are susceptible, small mammals like rodents and squirrels are also considered potential reservoirs. It is not definitively identified. Statement 2 is incorrect. The rash typically starts on the face or genitals and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It does not typically begin on the torso. Statement 3 is correct. Human-to-human transmission includes close contact with an infected person’s rash, bodily fluids, or respiratory droplets. It can also occur through indirect contact by sharing contaminated objects (fomites) like clothing, bedding, or needles. Statement 4 is incorrect. A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is a formal declaration by the WHO for an extraordinary event that constitutes a public health risk through international spread. Lifting this declaration signifies a sustained decline in cases and a reduced international threat, not eradication. The virus continues to circulate, especially in its endemic regions. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus remains unknown. While monkeys are susceptible, small mammals like rodents and squirrels are also considered potential reservoirs. It is not definitively identified. Statement 2 is incorrect. The rash typically starts on the face or genitals and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It does not typically begin on the torso. Statement 3 is correct. Human-to-human transmission includes close contact with an infected person’s rash, bodily fluids, or respiratory droplets. It can also occur through indirect contact by sharing contaminated objects (fomites) like clothing, bedding, or needles. Statement 4 is incorrect. A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is a formal declaration by the WHO for an extraordinary event that constitutes a public health risk through international spread. Lifting this declaration signifies a sustained decline in cases and a reduced international threat, not eradication. The virus continues to circulate, especially in its endemic regions.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following statements concerning Mpox are correct?

• The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus is definitively identified as various species of monkeys in Central and West Africa.

• The characteristic rash in Mpox typically begins on the torso and then spreads to the face and limbs.

• Transmission can occur through direct contact with contaminated objects such as bedding or clothing.

• The WHO’s declaration that Mpox is no longer a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) implies that the virus has been eradicated globally.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus remains unknown. While monkeys are susceptible, small mammals like rodents and squirrels are also considered potential reservoirs. It is not definitively identified.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The rash typically starts on the face or genitals and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It does not typically begin on the torso.

• Statement 3 is correct. Human-to-human transmission includes close contact with an infected person’s rash, bodily fluids, or respiratory droplets. It can also occur through indirect contact by sharing contaminated objects (fomites) like clothing, bedding, or needles.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is a formal declaration by the WHO for an extraordinary event that constitutes a public health risk through international spread. Lifting this declaration signifies a sustained decline in cases and a reduced international threat, not eradication. The virus continues to circulate, especially in its endemic regions.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The natural reservoir of the monkeypox virus remains unknown. While monkeys are susceptible, small mammals like rodents and squirrels are also considered potential reservoirs. It is not definitively identified.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The rash typically starts on the face or genitals and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It does not typically begin on the torso.

• Statement 3 is correct. Human-to-human transmission includes close contact with an infected person’s rash, bodily fluids, or respiratory droplets. It can also occur through indirect contact by sharing contaminated objects (fomites) like clothing, bedding, or needles.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is a formal declaration by the WHO for an extraordinary event that constitutes a public health risk through international spread. Lifting this declaration signifies a sustained decline in cases and a reduced international threat, not eradication. The virus continues to circulate, especially in its endemic regions.

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