UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 17 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is a key element of the proportionality test in constitutional law? a) The law must only be necessary, regardless of its impact on fundamental rights. b) The law's purpose must be in line with government policy, even if it infringes on rights. c) The law must impose the least restrictive means to achieve a legitimate objective. d) The law must not be challenged if it is passed by a majority in the legislature. Correct Solution: C The proportionality test is a crucial doctrine in constitutional law used to assess whether a restriction on a fundamental right is justified. It is most commonly applied by constitutional courts to determine the validity of laws that limit individual freedoms. The test involves several key steps: the measure must pursue a legitimate objective, it must be suitable to achieve that objective, it must be necessary—meaning there is no less restrictive but equally effective alternative, and it must strike a proper balance between the public interest and the rights being limited. Among the given options, only option c) correctly identifies a core component of the test—that the law must impose the least restrictive means to achieve its goal. This safeguards against excessive or arbitrary restrictions on rights. Incorrect Solution: C The proportionality test is a crucial doctrine in constitutional law used to assess whether a restriction on a fundamental right is justified. It is most commonly applied by constitutional courts to determine the validity of laws that limit individual freedoms. The test involves several key steps: the measure must pursue a legitimate objective, it must be suitable to achieve that objective, it must be necessary—meaning there is no less restrictive but equally effective alternative, and it must strike a proper balance between the public interest and the rights being limited. Among the given options, only option c) correctly identifies a core component of the test—that the law must impose the least restrictive means to achieve its goal. This safeguards against excessive or arbitrary restrictions on rights.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following is a key element of the proportionality test in constitutional law?

• a) The law must only be necessary, regardless of its impact on fundamental rights.

• b) The law's purpose must be in line with government policy, even if it infringes on rights.

• c) The law must impose the least restrictive means to achieve a legitimate objective.

• d) The law must not be challenged if it is passed by a majority in the legislature.

Solution: C

• The proportionality test is a crucial doctrine in constitutional law used to assess whether a restriction on a fundamental right is justified. It is most commonly applied by constitutional courts to determine the validity of laws that limit individual freedoms.

• The test involves several key steps: the measure must pursue a legitimate objective, it must be suitable to achieve that objective, it must be necessary—meaning there is no less restrictive but equally effective alternative, and it must strike a proper balance between the public interest and the rights being limited.

• the measure must pursue a legitimate objective,

• it must be suitable to achieve that objective,

• it must be necessary—meaning there is no less restrictive but equally effective alternative, and

• it must strike a proper balance between the public interest and the rights being limited.

• Among the given options, only option c) correctly identifies a core component of the test—that the law must impose the least restrictive means to achieve its goal. This safeguards against excessive or arbitrary restrictions on rights.

Solution: C

• the measure must pursue a legitimate objective,

• it must be suitable to achieve that objective,

• it must be necessary—meaning there is no less restrictive but equally effective alternative, and

• it must strike a proper balance between the public interest and the rights being limited.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the significance of secondary agriculture: Secondary agriculture increases farmer income through value-added products. It primarily focuses on large-scale industrial production. It helps boost rural cottage industries. Secondary agriculture promotes unsustainable farming practices. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Secondary agriculture refers to activities that add value to primary agricultural produce by processing, preserving, or converting it into other usable forms. This includes agro-processing, food preservation, bioenergy production, and crafting items from agricultural residues. Statement 1 is correct because such value addition significantly enhances farmer income by increasing the market value of produce and generating additional revenue streams. Statement 3 is also correct, as secondary agriculture fosters the growth of rural cottage industries such as handmade food products, fiber crafts, and organic manure production. These small-scale enterprises promote self-employment and localized economic development. Statement 2 is incorrect because secondary agriculture does not prioritize large-scale industrial operations; instead, it often encourages decentralized, small-to-medium enterprises suited to rural contexts. Statement 4 is also incorrect—secondary agriculture usually emphasizes sustainability by recycling agricultural by-products and reducing environmental waste. Incorrect Solution: B Secondary agriculture refers to activities that add value to primary agricultural produce by processing, preserving, or converting it into other usable forms. This includes agro-processing, food preservation, bioenergy production, and crafting items from agricultural residues. Statement 1 is correct because such value addition significantly enhances farmer income by increasing the market value of produce and generating additional revenue streams. Statement 3 is also correct, as secondary agriculture fosters the growth of rural cottage industries such as handmade food products, fiber crafts, and organic manure production. These small-scale enterprises promote self-employment and localized economic development. Statement 2 is incorrect because secondary agriculture does not prioritize large-scale industrial operations; instead, it often encourages decentralized, small-to-medium enterprises suited to rural contexts. Statement 4 is also incorrect—secondary agriculture usually emphasizes sustainability by recycling agricultural by-products and reducing environmental waste.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the significance of secondary agriculture:

• Secondary agriculture increases farmer income through value-added products.

• It primarily focuses on large-scale industrial production.

• It helps boost rural cottage industries.

• Secondary agriculture promotes unsustainable farming practices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Secondary agriculture refers to activities that add value to primary agricultural produce by processing, preserving, or converting it into other usable forms. This includes agro-processing, food preservation, bioenergy production, and crafting items from agricultural residues.

• Statement 1 is correct because such value addition significantly enhances farmer income by increasing the market value of produce and generating additional revenue streams.

• Statement 3 is also correct, as secondary agriculture fosters the growth of rural cottage industries such as handmade food products, fiber crafts, and organic manure production. These small-scale enterprises promote self-employment and localized economic development.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because secondary agriculture does not prioritize large-scale industrial operations; instead, it often encourages decentralized, small-to-medium enterprises suited to rural contexts.

• Statement 4 is also incorrect—secondary agriculture usually emphasizes sustainability by recycling agricultural by-products and reducing environmental waste.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct because such value addition significantly enhances farmer income by increasing the market value of produce and generating additional revenue streams.

• Statement 4 is also incorrect—secondary agriculture usually emphasizes sustainability by recycling agricultural by-products and reducing environmental waste.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following key functions of ASHA workers: Promoting institutional deliveries and maternal health under the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). Administering vaccinations as part of India’s Universal Immunization Programme. Spreading awareness about communicable and non-communicable diseases. Facilitating access to clean drinking water and sanitation in rural households. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C ASHAs (Accredited Social Health Activists) serve as a vital link between the health system and rural communities, primarily under the National Health Mission (NHM). Statement 1 is correct, as promoting institutional deliveries under the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a key mandate of ASHAs, who encourage pregnant women to access healthcare facilities for safe childbirth. Statement 2 is incorrect because ASHAs do not directly administer vaccines; that task is performed by trained healthcare professionals like ANMs. However, ASHAs do play a supportive role by mobilizing families and creating awareness about immunization schedules. Statement 3 is correct, as ASHAs are trained to educate communities on the prevention and control of both communicable and non-communicable diseases, thereby contributing to preventive healthcare. Statement 4 is also correct—ASHAs work to improve health determinants by advocating for hygiene, clean drinking water, and sanitation in rural households, although infrastructure delivery is beyond their direct control. Incorrect Solution: C ASHAs (Accredited Social Health Activists) serve as a vital link between the health system and rural communities, primarily under the National Health Mission (NHM). Statement 1 is correct, as promoting institutional deliveries under the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a key mandate of ASHAs, who encourage pregnant women to access healthcare facilities for safe childbirth. Statement 2 is incorrect because ASHAs do not directly administer vaccines; that task is performed by trained healthcare professionals like ANMs. However, ASHAs do play a supportive role by mobilizing families and creating awareness about immunization schedules. Statement 3 is correct, as ASHAs are trained to educate communities on the prevention and control of both communicable and non-communicable diseases, thereby contributing to preventive healthcare. Statement 4 is also correct—ASHAs work to improve health determinants by advocating for hygiene, clean drinking water, and sanitation in rural households, although infrastructure delivery is beyond their direct control.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following key functions of ASHA workers:

• Promoting institutional deliveries and maternal health under the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY).

• Administering vaccinations as part of India’s Universal Immunization Programme.

• Spreading awareness about communicable and non-communicable diseases.

• Facilitating access to clean drinking water and sanitation in rural households.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• ASHAs (Accredited Social Health Activists) serve as a vital link between the health system and rural communities, primarily under the National Health Mission (NHM).

• Statement 1 is correct, as promoting institutional deliveries under the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a key mandate of ASHAs, who encourage pregnant women to access healthcare facilities for safe childbirth.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because ASHAs do not directly administer vaccines; that task is performed by trained healthcare professionals like ANMs. However, ASHAs do play a supportive role by mobilizing families and creating awareness about immunization schedules.

• Statement 3 is correct, as ASHAs are trained to educate communities on the prevention and control of both communicable and non-communicable diseases, thereby contributing to preventive healthcare.

• Statement 4 is also correct—ASHAs work to improve health determinants by advocating for hygiene, clean drinking water, and sanitation in rural households, although infrastructure delivery is beyond their direct control.

Solution: C

• ASHAs (Accredited Social Health Activists) serve as a vital link between the health system and rural communities, primarily under the National Health Mission (NHM).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about fungi: Fungi produce their food using sunlight through photosynthesis. Fungal cell walls are composed of cellulose like those of plants. contribute to eutrophication in freshwater ecosystems. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Fungi are a distinct kingdom of organisms that differ significantly from plants and animals in structure, nutrition, and ecological roles. Statement 1 is incorrect—unlike plants, fungi are heterotrophs; they do not have chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. Instead, they absorb nutrients from organic matter, often through decomposition. Statement 2 is also incorrect—while plant cell walls are made of cellulose, fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, the same substance found in arthropod exoskeletons. This is a defining feature that distinguishes fungi from plants. Statement 3 is incorrect because fungi are not typically responsible for eutrophication. Eutrophication is mainly driven by excess nutrients (especially nitrogen and phosphorus) entering water bodies due to agricultural runoff or sewage, leading to algal blooms. While fungi do play important roles in decomposition and nutrient cycling, they are not the culprits in eutrophication events. Incorrect Solution: C Fungi are a distinct kingdom of organisms that differ significantly from plants and animals in structure, nutrition, and ecological roles. Statement 1 is incorrect—unlike plants, fungi are heterotrophs; they do not have chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. Instead, they absorb nutrients from organic matter, often through decomposition. Statement 2 is also incorrect—while plant cell walls are made of cellulose, fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, the same substance found in arthropod exoskeletons. This is a defining feature that distinguishes fungi from plants. Statement 3 is incorrect because fungi are not typically responsible for eutrophication. Eutrophication is mainly driven by excess nutrients (especially nitrogen and phosphorus) entering water bodies due to agricultural runoff or sewage, leading to algal blooms. While fungi do play important roles in decomposition and nutrient cycling, they are not the culprits in eutrophication events.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about fungi:

• Fungi produce their food using sunlight through photosynthesis.

• Fungal cell walls are composed of cellulose like those of plants.

• contribute to eutrophication in freshwater ecosystems.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Fungi are a distinct kingdom of organisms that differ significantly from plants and animals in structure, nutrition, and ecological roles.

• Statement 1 is incorrect—unlike plants, fungi are heterotrophs; they do not have chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. Instead, they absorb nutrients from organic matter, often through decomposition.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect—while plant cell walls are made of cellulose, fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, the same substance found in arthropod exoskeletons. This is a defining feature that distinguishes fungi from plants.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because fungi are not typically responsible for eutrophication. Eutrophication is mainly driven by excess nutrients (especially nitrogen and phosphorus) entering water bodies due to agricultural runoff or sewage, leading to algal blooms.

• While fungi do play important roles in decomposition and nutrient cycling, they are not the culprits in eutrophication events.

Solution: C

• Fungi are a distinct kingdom of organisms that differ significantly from plants and animals in structure, nutrition, and ecological roles.

• While fungi do play important roles in decomposition and nutrient cycling, they are not the culprits in eutrophication events.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding gene banks: Field gene banks preserve live plants under controlled laboratory conditions. Cryopreservation banks store tissues and embryos at ultra-low temperatures for long-term conservation. Pollen banks are important for preserving male gametes for plant breeding programs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Gene banks play a vital role in conserving plant genetic resources for future food security, biodiversity, and breeding efforts. Statement 1 is incorrect—field gene banks do not rely on controlled laboratory environments. Instead, they maintain live plants in outdoor field conditions, which is particularly useful for species with recalcitrant seeds that cannot be dried or frozen easily, such as banana, coconut, or cacao. Statement 2 is correct—cryopreservation is a sophisticated method of long-term conservation where plant materials like embryos, shoot tips, or pollen are stored at ultra-low temperatures (usually in liquid nitrogen at -196°C). This halts metabolic activity, preserving viability for decades. Statement 3 is also correct—pollen banks are crucial for conserving the male reproductive material of plants. They serve as important resources for plant breeding programs, enabling cross-breeding and hybridization across seasons or geographies. Incorrect Solution: B Gene banks play a vital role in conserving plant genetic resources for future food security, biodiversity, and breeding efforts. Statement 1 is incorrect—field gene banks do not rely on controlled laboratory environments. Instead, they maintain live plants in outdoor field conditions, which is particularly useful for species with recalcitrant seeds that cannot be dried or frozen easily, such as banana, coconut, or cacao. Statement 2 is correct—cryopreservation is a sophisticated method of long-term conservation where plant materials like embryos, shoot tips, or pollen are stored at ultra-low temperatures (usually in liquid nitrogen at -196°C). This halts metabolic activity, preserving viability for decades. Statement 3 is also correct—pollen banks are crucial for conserving the male reproductive material of plants. They serve as important resources for plant breeding programs, enabling cross-breeding and hybridization across seasons or geographies.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding gene banks:

• Field gene banks preserve live plants under controlled laboratory conditions.

• Cryopreservation banks store tissues and embryos at ultra-low temperatures for long-term conservation.

• Pollen banks are important for preserving male gametes for plant breeding programs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Gene banks play a vital role in conserving plant genetic resources for future food security, biodiversity, and breeding efforts.

• Statement 1 is incorrect—field gene banks do not rely on controlled laboratory environments. Instead, they maintain live plants in outdoor field conditions, which is particularly useful for species with recalcitrant seeds that cannot be dried or frozen easily, such as banana, coconut, or cacao.

• Statement 2 is correct—cryopreservation is a sophisticated method of long-term conservation where plant materials like embryos, shoot tips, or pollen are stored at ultra-low temperatures (usually in liquid nitrogen at -196°C). This halts metabolic activity, preserving viability for decades.

• Statement 3 is also correct—pollen banks are crucial for conserving the male reproductive material of plants. They serve as important resources for plant breeding programs, enabling cross-breeding and hybridization across seasons or geographies.

Solution: B

• Gene banks play a vital role in conserving plant genetic resources for future food security, biodiversity, and breeding efforts.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Match the following geographical features with their locations along the India-Myanmar border: Geographical Feature Location Along the Border A. Mishmi Hills 1. Trijunction area between India, Myanmar, and China B. Chin Hills 2. Northern part of the India-Myanmar border C. Diphu Pass 3. Border between Mizoram and Myanmar D. Tiau River 4. Southern part of the India-Myanmar border Select the correct answer code: a) 3 A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D- Correct Solution: D A-2 (Mishmi Hills): Located in the northeastern corner of Arunachal Pradesh, the Mishmi Hills lie along the northern part of the India-Myanmar border. Though very close to the trijunction with China, they primarily mark India’s northern border with Myanmar. B-4 (Chin Hills): Situated in the Chin State of Myanmar, these hills are contiguous with Mizoram and form part of the southern section of the India-Myanmar border. C-1 (Diphu Pass): This high-altitude pass in Arunachal Pradesh lies at the trijunction of India, China, and Myanmar. It has strategic importance for military movement and border access. D-3 (Tiau River): This river flows along the Mizoram-Myanmar border, serving as a natural boundary in several sections. Incorrect Solution: D A-2 (Mishmi Hills): Located in the northeastern corner of Arunachal Pradesh, the Mishmi Hills lie along the northern part of the India-Myanmar border. Though very close to the trijunction with China, they primarily mark India’s northern border with Myanmar. B-4 (Chin Hills): Situated in the Chin State of Myanmar, these hills are contiguous with Mizoram and form part of the southern section of the India-Myanmar border. C-1 (Diphu Pass): This high-altitude pass in Arunachal Pradesh lies at the trijunction of India, China, and Myanmar. It has strategic importance for military movement and border access. D-3 (Tiau River): This river flows along the Mizoram-Myanmar border, serving as a natural boundary in several sections.

#### 6. Question

Match the following geographical features with their locations along the India-Myanmar border:

Geographical Feature | Location Along the Border

A. Mishmi Hills | 1. Trijunction area between India, Myanmar, and China

B. Chin Hills | 2. Northern part of the India-Myanmar border

C. Diphu Pass | 3. Border between Mizoram and Myanmar

D. Tiau River | 4. Southern part of the India-Myanmar border

Select the correct answer code:

• a) 3 A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

• c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

• d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-

Solution: D

• A-2 (Mishmi Hills): Located in the northeastern corner of Arunachal Pradesh, the Mishmi Hills lie along the northern part of the India-Myanmar border. Though very close to the trijunction with China, they primarily mark India’s northern border with Myanmar.

• B-4 (Chin Hills): Situated in the Chin State of Myanmar, these hills are contiguous with Mizoram and form part of the southern section of the India-Myanmar border.

• C-1 (Diphu Pass): This high-altitude pass in Arunachal Pradesh lies at the trijunction of India, China, and Myanmar. It has strategic importance for military movement and border access.

• D-3 (Tiau River): This river flows along the Mizoram-Myanmar border, serving as a natural boundary in several sections.

Solution: D

• B-4 (Chin Hills): Situated in the Chin State of Myanmar, these hills are contiguous with Mizoram and form part of the southern section of the India-Myanmar border.

• C-1 (Diphu Pass): This high-altitude pass in Arunachal Pradesh lies at the trijunction of India, China, and Myanmar. It has strategic importance for military movement and border access.

• D-3 (Tiau River): This river flows along the Mizoram-Myanmar border, serving as a natural boundary in several sections.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the FATF: The FATF is an inter-governmental body created during the G7 Summit. FATF was created mainly to combat the financing of terrorism. India has been a member of the FATF since its establishment. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris. Its original purpose was to develop policies to combat money laundering, a growing concern due to the rising volume of illicit financial flows globally. It is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards aimed at preventing illegal activities within financial systems. Statement 2 is incorrect. Although today the FATF is well known for its role in countering the financing of terrorism (CFT), this was not its original mandate. The CFT focus was added after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, in response to growing global concerns over how terror networks were funded. Thus, FATF’s initial mandate was strictly related to anti-money laundering (AML). Statement 3 is also incorrect. India did not join FATF at its inception. India became a full member only in 2010, after undergoing a detailed mutual evaluation process. Since then, India has been actively involved in shaping global AML/CFT norms. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris. Its original purpose was to develop policies to combat money laundering, a growing concern due to the rising volume of illicit financial flows globally. It is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards aimed at preventing illegal activities within financial systems. Statement 2 is incorrect. Although today the FATF is well known for its role in countering the financing of terrorism (CFT), this was not its original mandate. The CFT focus was added after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, in response to growing global concerns over how terror networks were funded. Thus, FATF’s initial mandate was strictly related to anti-money laundering (AML). Statement 3 is also incorrect. India did not join FATF at its inception. India became a full member only in 2010, after undergoing a detailed mutual evaluation process. Since then, India has been actively involved in shaping global AML/CFT norms.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the FATF:

• The FATF is an inter-governmental body created during the G7 Summit.

• FATF was created mainly to combat the financing of terrorism.

• India has been a member of the FATF since its establishment.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris. Its original purpose was to develop policies to combat money laundering, a growing concern due to the rising volume of illicit financial flows globally. It is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards aimed at preventing illegal activities within financial systems.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Although today the FATF is well known for its role in countering the financing of terrorism (CFT), this was not its original mandate. The CFT focus was added after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, in response to growing global concerns over how terror networks were funded. Thus, FATF’s initial mandate was strictly related to anti-money laundering (AML).

• Statement 3 is also incorrect. India did not join FATF at its inception. India became a full member only in 2010, after undergoing a detailed mutual evaluation process. Since then, India has been actively involved in shaping global AML/CFT norms.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization: It was a Bronze Age civilization that thrived in the northwestern regions of South Asia. The Indus script used by the civilization has been fully deciphered. Sites of the Indus Valley Civilization have been found in India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization, and its sites are spread across India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. However, the script of the Indus Valley has not been fully deciphered, making statement 2 incorrect. Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC): It was a Bronze Age civilisation in the northwestern regions of South Asia, lasting from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. It is also known as the Harappan Civilisation, after Harappa (now in Pakistan) – the first of its sites to be excavated early in the 20th century. It stretches over an area spanning northeast Afghanistan, much of Pakistan and western and northwestern India. It thrived in the Indus River basins and along a network of rivers that originally flowed near the ephemeral Ghaggar-Hakra river in northwest India and eastern Pakistan. The civilisation is noted for its urban planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage and water supply systems, handicraft techniques (carnelian products, seal carving) and metallurgy (copper, bronze, lead and tin). Incorrect Solution: B The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization, and its sites are spread across India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. However, the script of the Indus Valley has not been fully deciphered, making statement 2 incorrect. Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC): It was a Bronze Age civilisation in the northwestern regions of South Asia, lasting from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. It is also known as the Harappan Civilisation, after Harappa (now in Pakistan) – the first of its sites to be excavated early in the 20th century. It stretches over an area spanning northeast Afghanistan, much of Pakistan and western and northwestern India. It thrived in the Indus River basins and along a network of rivers that originally flowed near the ephemeral Ghaggar-Hakra river in northwest India and eastern Pakistan. The civilisation is noted for its urban planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage and water supply systems, handicraft techniques (carnelian products, seal carving) and metallurgy (copper, bronze, lead and tin).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization:

• It was a Bronze Age civilization that thrived in the northwestern regions of South Asia.

• The Indus script used by the civilization has been fully deciphered.

• Sites of the Indus Valley Civilization have been found in India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization, and its sites are spread across India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. However, the script of the Indus Valley has not been fully deciphered, making statement 2 incorrect.

Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC):

• It was a Bronze Age civilisation in the northwestern regions of South Asia, lasting from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.

• It is also known as the Harappan Civilisation, after Harappa (now in Pakistan) – the first of its sites to be excavated early in the 20th century.

• It stretches over an area spanning northeast Afghanistan, much of Pakistan and western and northwestern India.

• It thrived in the Indus River basins and along a network of rivers that originally flowed near the ephemeral Ghaggar-Hakra river in northwest India and eastern Pakistan.

• The civilisation is noted for its urban planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage and water supply systems, handicraft techniques (carnelian products, seal carving) and metallurgy (copper, bronze, lead and tin).

Solution: B

Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC):

• It was a Bronze Age civilisation in the northwestern regions of South Asia, lasting from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.

• It is also known as the Harappan Civilisation, after Harappa (now in Pakistan) – the first of its sites to be excavated early in the 20th century.

• It stretches over an area spanning northeast Afghanistan, much of Pakistan and western and northwestern India.

• It thrived in the Indus River basins and along a network of rivers that originally flowed near the ephemeral Ghaggar-Hakra river in northwest India and eastern Pakistan.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs): SAFs are made from renewable sources like algae and waste oils. SAFs are currently used only in experimental aircraft. SAFs reduce aviation’s carbon emissions when compared to traditional jet fuels. SAFs can be blended with conventional jet fuels for commercial flights. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs) are a key innovation in reducing the aviation sector’s carbon footprint. These fuels are derived from renewable biological sources such as algae, waste cooking oils, agricultural residues, municipal solid waste, and non-food crops. Thus, statement 1 is correct. SAFs have been proven to significantly lower lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions—up to 80% in some cases—compared to conventional fossil-based jet fuels, making statement 3 correct as well. Moreover, SAFs are designed to be “drop-in” fuels, meaning they can be blended with existing jet fuels and used in current aircraft engines and airport fueling infrastructure without any modifications. Hence, statement 4 is also correct. However, statement 2 is incorrect. SAFs are not limited to experimental aircraft; they have been used in thousands of commercial flights worldwide. Major airlines and airports have already incorporated SAFs into their operations, indicating their growing commercial viability. Incorrect Solution: B Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs) are a key innovation in reducing the aviation sector’s carbon footprint. These fuels are derived from renewable biological sources such as algae, waste cooking oils, agricultural residues, municipal solid waste, and non-food crops. Thus, statement 1 is correct. SAFs have been proven to significantly lower lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions—up to 80% in some cases—compared to conventional fossil-based jet fuels, making statement 3 correct as well. Moreover, SAFs are designed to be “drop-in” fuels, meaning they can be blended with existing jet fuels and used in current aircraft engines and airport fueling infrastructure without any modifications. Hence, statement 4 is also correct. However, statement 2 is incorrect. SAFs are not limited to experimental aircraft; they have been used in thousands of commercial flights worldwide. Major airlines and airports have already incorporated SAFs into their operations, indicating their growing commercial viability.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs):

• SAFs are made from renewable sources like algae and waste oils.

• SAFs are currently used only in experimental aircraft.

• SAFs reduce aviation’s carbon emissions when compared to traditional jet fuels.

• SAFs can be blended with conventional jet fuels for commercial flights.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs) are a key innovation in reducing the aviation sector’s carbon footprint. These fuels are derived from renewable biological sources such as algae, waste cooking oils, agricultural residues, municipal solid waste, and non-food crops. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

• SAFs have been proven to significantly lower lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions—up to 80% in some cases—compared to conventional fossil-based jet fuels, making statement 3 correct as well.

• Moreover, SAFs are designed to be “drop-in” fuels, meaning they can be blended with existing jet fuels and used in current aircraft engines and airport fueling infrastructure without any modifications. Hence, statement 4 is also correct.

• However, statement 2 is incorrect. SAFs are not limited to experimental aircraft; they have been used in thousands of commercial flights worldwide. Major airlines and airports have already incorporated SAFs into their operations, indicating their growing commercial viability.

Solution: B

• SAFs have been proven to significantly lower lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions—up to 80% in some cases—compared to conventional fossil-based jet fuels, making statement 3 correct as well.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of the Lokayukta? It has Suo Motu powers to initiate investigations based on media reports. The Lokayukta can investigate officials in the central government. It can recommend prosecutions, though the final decision lies with the government. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 2 is incorrect. The Lokayukta possesses Suo Motu powers, which means it can initiate investigations without waiting for a formal complaint. This includes acting on media reports or personal information, allowing it to address allegations of corruption against state officials proactively. Additionally, while the Lokayukta can investigate and recommend actions against state-level officials, its powers do not extend to the central government officials. This limitation is because the Lokayukta operates at the state level, while corruption cases at the national level are handled by the Lokpal, which was established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013). The Lokayukta can recommend prosecutions and corrective measures, but the final decision to act on these recommendations lies with the government. This limits its enforceability, as the Lokayukta’s recommendations are not legally binding. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 2 is incorrect. The Lokayukta possesses Suo Motu powers, which means it can initiate investigations without waiting for a formal complaint. This includes acting on media reports or personal information, allowing it to address allegations of corruption against state officials proactively. Additionally, while the Lokayukta can investigate and recommend actions against state-level officials, its powers do not extend to the central government officials. This limitation is because the Lokayukta operates at the state level, while corruption cases at the national level are handled by the Lokpal, which was established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013). The Lokayukta can recommend prosecutions and corrective measures, but the final decision to act on these recommendations lies with the government. This limits its enforceability, as the Lokayukta’s recommendations are not legally binding.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of the Lokayukta?

• It has Suo Motu powers to initiate investigations based on media reports.

• The Lokayukta can investigate officials in the central government.

• It can recommend prosecutions, though the final decision lies with the government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Lokayukta possesses Suo Motu powers, which means it can initiate investigations without waiting for a formal complaint. This includes acting on media reports or personal information, allowing it to address allegations of corruption against state officials proactively.

Additionally, while the Lokayukta can investigate and recommend actions against state-level officials, its powers do not extend to the central government officials. This limitation is because the Lokayukta operates at the state level, while corruption cases at the national level are handled by the Lokpal, which was established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013).

The Lokayukta can recommend prosecutions and corrective measures, but the final decision to act on these recommendations lies with the government. This limits its enforceability, as the Lokayukta’s recommendations are not legally binding.

Solution: B

Statement 2 is incorrect.

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