UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 17 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan): The rebellion was specifically directed against the destruction of the Mundari Khuntkatti system of traditional land tenure. Birsa Munda successfully mobilized only the Munda and Oraon tribes, excluding the Kharia tribe, in his socio-political movement. The slogan “Abua Raj setar jana, Maharani Raj tundu jana” was coined by Birsa Munda to inspire the masses towards self-rule. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Munda Rebellion, known as Ulgulan (meaning “Great Tumult”), was a significant struggle against British oppression, but its central economic trigger was the fight against the destruction of the Mundari Khuntkatti This system represented the traditional communal land rights of the Munda tribe, which were being eroded by colonial laws and exploitative thikadars (intermediaries). Statement 2 is incorrect. Birsa Munda’s influence was much wider; he mobilised Oraon, Munda, and Kharia tribes to fight for their land rights and demand self-rule. His leadership transcended his own tribe, making him a charismatic leader revered as ‘Bhagwan’ and ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth). The rebellion, though suppressed, eventually led to the landmark Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908. Statement 3 is correct. The powerful call to action, “End the Queen’s rule, establish our own rule” (Abua Raj setar jana, Maharani Raj tundu jana), was the defining slogan of the movement, highlighting the objective of establishing indigenous self-rule. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Munda Rebellion, known as Ulgulan (meaning “Great Tumult”), was a significant struggle against British oppression, but its central economic trigger was the fight against the destruction of the Mundari Khuntkatti This system represented the traditional communal land rights of the Munda tribe, which were being eroded by colonial laws and exploitative thikadars (intermediaries). Statement 2 is incorrect. Birsa Munda’s influence was much wider; he mobilised Oraon, Munda, and Kharia tribes to fight for their land rights and demand self-rule. His leadership transcended his own tribe, making him a charismatic leader revered as ‘Bhagwan’ and ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth). The rebellion, though suppressed, eventually led to the landmark Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908. Statement 3 is correct. The powerful call to action, “End the Queen’s rule, establish our own rule” (Abua Raj setar jana, Maharani Raj tundu jana), was the defining slogan of the movement, highlighting the objective of establishing indigenous self-rule.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan):

• The rebellion was specifically directed against the destruction of the Mundari Khuntkatti system of traditional land tenure.

• Birsa Munda successfully mobilized only the Munda and Oraon tribes, excluding the Kharia tribe, in his socio-political movement.

• The slogan “Abua Raj setar jana, Maharani Raj tundu jana” was coined by Birsa Munda to inspire the masses towards self-rule.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Munda Rebellion, known as Ulgulan (meaning “Great Tumult”), was a significant struggle against British oppression, but its central economic trigger was the fight against the destruction of the Mundari Khuntkatti This system represented the traditional communal land rights of the Munda tribe, which were being eroded by colonial laws and exploitative thikadars (intermediaries).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Birsa Munda’s influence was much wider; he mobilised Oraon, Munda, and Kharia tribes to fight for their land rights and demand self-rule. His leadership transcended his own tribe, making him a charismatic leader revered as ‘Bhagwan’ and ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth). The rebellion, though suppressed, eventually led to the landmark Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908.

• Statement 3 is correct. The powerful call to action, “End the Queen’s rule, establish our own rule” (Abua Raj setar jana, Maharani Raj tundu jana), was the defining slogan of the movement, highlighting the objective of establishing indigenous self-rule.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to Operation Southern Spear, consider the following statements: The operation is an initiative led by the United Nations to secure global maritime trade chokepoints in the Eastern Pacific. The deployed forces consist entirely of robotic and autonomous surface vessels for surveillance, minimizing human risk. The primary stated goal is to combat piracy and protect commercial shipping lanes in the Gulf of Aden. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because Operation Southern Spear is a large-scale U.S. military and intelligence campaign led by the United States (Department of Defence), not the United Nations. Its area of focus is the Caribbean and eastern Pacific, targeting Latin American drug-trafficking cartels, not global chokepoints generally. Statement 2 is incorrect because the operation utilizes a Hybrid Fleet Integration, combining Robotic & Autonomous Systems (RAS) with traditional warships, including an aircraft carrier (USS Gerald R. Ford) and a nuclear submarine. This is part of the U.S. Navy’s Project 33 modernization efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect as the explicit aim is to neutralize narco-terrorist networks operating in the Western Hemisphere and secure U.S. borders against drug smuggling routes, not to combat piracy in the distant Gulf of Aden. The operation signifies a major military escalation and naval buildup in the Caribbean region. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because Operation Southern Spear is a large-scale U.S. military and intelligence campaign led by the United States (Department of Defence), not the United Nations. Its area of focus is the Caribbean and eastern Pacific, targeting Latin American drug-trafficking cartels, not global chokepoints generally. Statement 2 is incorrect because the operation utilizes a Hybrid Fleet Integration, combining Robotic & Autonomous Systems (RAS) with traditional warships, including an aircraft carrier (USS Gerald R. Ford) and a nuclear submarine. This is part of the U.S. Navy’s Project 33 modernization efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect as the explicit aim is to neutralize narco-terrorist networks operating in the Western Hemisphere and secure U.S. borders against drug smuggling routes, not to combat piracy in the distant Gulf of Aden. The operation signifies a major military escalation and naval buildup in the Caribbean region.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Operation Southern Spear, consider the following statements:

• The operation is an initiative led by the United Nations to secure global maritime trade chokepoints in the Eastern Pacific.

• The deployed forces consist entirely of robotic and autonomous surface vessels for surveillance, minimizing human risk.

• The primary stated goal is to combat piracy and protect commercial shipping lanes in the Gulf of Aden.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because Operation Southern Spear is a large-scale U.S. military and intelligence campaign led by the United States (Department of Defence), not the United Nations. Its area of focus is the Caribbean and eastern Pacific, targeting Latin American drug-trafficking cartels, not global chokepoints generally.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the operation utilizes a Hybrid Fleet Integration, combining Robotic & Autonomous Systems (RAS) with traditional warships, including an aircraft carrier (USS Gerald R. Ford) and a nuclear submarine. This is part of the U.S. Navy’s Project 33 modernization efforts.

• Statement 3 is incorrect as the explicit aim is to neutralize narco-terrorist networks operating in the Western Hemisphere and secure U.S. borders against drug smuggling routes, not to combat piracy in the distant Gulf of Aden. The operation signifies a major military escalation and naval buildup in the Caribbean region.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With regard to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025, consider the following statements: The Data Protection Board of India is mandated to be a fully offline, paper-based adjudicatory body to ensure procedural integrity. Consent Managers, enabling individuals to manage permissions across platforms, must be entities incorporated under Indian law. Data Fiduciaries are granted a period of 90 days to respond to the Data Principal’s requests for correction, access, or erasure of their personal data. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Data Protection Board of India is designated as a Digital-First adjudicatory body, with fully online grievance redressal and app-based complaint filing, aligning with the SARAL (Simple, Accessible, Rational, Actionable) design principle. Statement 2 is correct. The DPDP Rules mandate that Consent Managers, which act as unified interfaces for individuals (Data Principals) to manage and revoke permissions, must be Indian entities. This is a crucial step to ensure regulatory oversight and protect national data interests. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rules provide for a phased implementation period of 18 months for organizations to transition to compliance, but the specific mandate is that Data Fiduciaries must respond to Data Principal requests (Access, Correction, Withdrawal of Consent, etc.) within 90 days, not that the compliance transition itself is 90 days. The 90-day period refers to the response time for exercising Data Principal Rights. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Data Protection Board of India is designated as a Digital-First adjudicatory body, with fully online grievance redressal and app-based complaint filing, aligning with the SARAL (Simple, Accessible, Rational, Actionable) design principle. Statement 2 is correct. The DPDP Rules mandate that Consent Managers, which act as unified interfaces for individuals (Data Principals) to manage and revoke permissions, must be Indian entities. This is a crucial step to ensure regulatory oversight and protect national data interests. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rules provide for a phased implementation period of 18 months for organizations to transition to compliance, but the specific mandate is that Data Fiduciaries must respond to Data Principal requests (Access, Correction, Withdrawal of Consent, etc.) within 90 days, not that the compliance transition itself is 90 days. The 90-day period refers to the response time for exercising Data Principal Rights.

#### 3. Question

With regard to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025, consider the following statements:

• The Data Protection Board of India is mandated to be a fully offline, paper-based adjudicatory body to ensure procedural integrity.

• Consent Managers, enabling individuals to manage permissions across platforms, must be entities incorporated under Indian law.

• Data Fiduciaries are granted a period of 90 days to respond to the Data Principal’s requests for correction, access, or erasure of their personal data.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Data Protection Board of India is designated as a Digital-First adjudicatory body, with fully online grievance redressal and app-based complaint filing, aligning with the SARAL (Simple, Accessible, Rational, Actionable) design principle.

• Statement 2 is correct. The DPDP Rules mandate that Consent Managers, which act as unified interfaces for individuals (Data Principals) to manage and revoke permissions, must be Indian entities. This is a crucial step to ensure regulatory oversight and protect national data interests.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rules provide for a phased implementation period of 18 months for organizations to transition to compliance, but the specific mandate is that Data Fiduciaries must respond to Data Principal requests (Access, Correction, Withdrawal of Consent, etc.) within 90 days, not that the compliance transition itself is 90 days. The 90-day period refers to the response time for exercising Data Principal Rights.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements correctly describes the properties and regulation of Ammonium Nitrate in India? It is a highly oxidising compound that accelerates the combustion of other materials but does not burn by itself. Under the relevant rules, any mixture containing over 35% Ammonium Nitrate by weight is treated as an explosive. The compound is highly hygroscopic, meaning it readily absorbs moisture, which can complicate its storage and handling. It is widely used in commercial explosives like ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil) for mining and quarrying, making its supply chain critical to monitor. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct as Ammonium Nitrate is categorized as a Strong Oxidiser. It does not sustain a fire on its own but significantly accelerates the burning of surrounding fuel sources. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012 (governing handling, storage, transport, etc.) stipulate that any mixture containing over 45% ammonium nitrate is treated as an explosive and requires appropriate licensing. The compound is also thermally unstable, leading to violent explosions under confinement at high temperatures. Statement 3 is correct because it is a Highly Soluble & Hygroscopic compound, meaning it easily absorbs moisture from the air. This property is key to its handling and storage regulations, as moisture can impact its stability and explosive potential. Statement 4 is correct as it is the major ingredient in commercial explosives such as ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil), which dominates the mining and quarrying industry explosive use. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct as Ammonium Nitrate is categorized as a Strong Oxidiser. It does not sustain a fire on its own but significantly accelerates the burning of surrounding fuel sources. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012 (governing handling, storage, transport, etc.) stipulate that any mixture containing over 45% ammonium nitrate is treated as an explosive and requires appropriate licensing. The compound is also thermally unstable, leading to violent explosions under confinement at high temperatures. Statement 3 is correct because it is a Highly Soluble & Hygroscopic compound, meaning it easily absorbs moisture from the air. This property is key to its handling and storage regulations, as moisture can impact its stability and explosive potential. Statement 4 is correct as it is the major ingredient in commercial explosives such as ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil), which dominates the mining and quarrying industry explosive use.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements correctly describes the properties and regulation of Ammonium Nitrate in India?

• It is a highly oxidising compound that accelerates the combustion of other materials but does not burn by itself.

• Under the relevant rules, any mixture containing over 35% Ammonium Nitrate by weight is treated as an explosive.

• The compound is highly hygroscopic, meaning it readily absorbs moisture, which can complicate its storage and handling.

• It is widely used in commercial explosives like ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil) for mining and quarrying, making its supply chain critical to monitor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct as Ammonium Nitrate is categorized as a Strong Oxidiser. It does not sustain a fire on its own but significantly accelerates the burning of surrounding fuel sources.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012 (governing handling, storage, transport, etc.) stipulate that any mixture containing over 45% ammonium nitrate is treated as an explosive and requires appropriate licensing. The compound is also thermally unstable, leading to violent explosions under confinement at high temperatures.

• Statement 3 is correct because it is a Highly Soluble & Hygroscopic compound, meaning it easily absorbs moisture from the air. This property is key to its handling and storage regulations, as moisture can impact its stability and explosive potential.

• Statement 4 is correct as it is the major ingredient in commercial explosives such as ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil), which dominates the mining and quarrying industry explosive use.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct as Ammonium Nitrate is categorized as a Strong Oxidiser. It does not sustain a fire on its own but significantly accelerates the burning of surrounding fuel sources.

• Statement 4 is correct as it is the major ingredient in commercial explosives such as ANFO (Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil), which dominates the mining and quarrying industry explosive use.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the DRDO-developed New Generation Man-Portable Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (MP-AUVs): Their core function is to strengthen the indigenous mine countermeasure (MCM) capability of the Indian Navy. The vehicles rely solely on Underwater Acoustic Communication for all real-time data exchange with the surface control unit. The system is designed to use a Multi-AUV approach, where multiple units operate collaboratively for enhanced mission efficiency. How many of the above options are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the primary aim of the MP-AUVs is to boost India’s self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) in critical underwater warfare by enhancing Naval Mine Warfare capabilities and Mine Countermeasure (MCM) Statement 2 is incorrect. While Underwater Acoustic Communication is a feature that allows AUVs to exchange data with each other (coordination), they also use other sensors like Side Scan Sonar and cameras, and the overall communication system would involve various protocols, not solely acoustic communication for all data. The focus on sonar and cameras implies data transfer beyond just acoustic signalling. Statement 3 is correct as the system is specifically mentioned to use a Multi-AUV System where multiple portable vehicles work in a networked, collaborative manner to speed up missions and improve situational awareness. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the primary aim of the MP-AUVs is to boost India’s self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) in critical underwater warfare by enhancing Naval Mine Warfare capabilities and Mine Countermeasure (MCM) Statement 2 is incorrect. While Underwater Acoustic Communication is a feature that allows AUVs to exchange data with each other (coordination), they also use other sensors like Side Scan Sonar and cameras, and the overall communication system would involve various protocols, not solely acoustic communication for all data. The focus on sonar and cameras implies data transfer beyond just acoustic signalling. Statement 3 is correct as the system is specifically mentioned to use a Multi-AUV System where multiple portable vehicles work in a networked, collaborative manner to speed up missions and improve situational awareness.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the DRDO-developed New Generation Man-Portable Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (MP-AUVs):

• Their core function is to strengthen the indigenous mine countermeasure (MCM) capability of the Indian Navy.

• The vehicles rely solely on Underwater Acoustic Communication for all real-time data exchange with the surface control unit.

• The system is designed to use a Multi-AUV approach, where multiple units operate collaboratively for enhanced mission efficiency.

How many of the above options are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct as the primary aim of the MP-AUVs is to boost India’s self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) in critical underwater warfare by enhancing Naval Mine Warfare capabilities and Mine Countermeasure (MCM)

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Underwater Acoustic Communication is a feature that allows AUVs to exchange data with each other (coordination), they also use other sensors like Side Scan Sonar and cameras, and the overall communication system would involve various protocols, not solely acoustic communication for all data. The focus on sonar and cameras implies data transfer beyond just acoustic signalling.

• Statement 3 is correct as the system is specifically mentioned to use a Multi-AUV System where multiple portable vehicles work in a networked, collaborative manner to speed up missions and improve situational awareness.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Apart from his role as a tribal freedom fighter and leader of the Ulgulan, Birsa Munda made significant contributions as a socio-religious reformer. Which one of the following was a central tenet of the sect he founded? (a) Advocacy for the return to the original Christian faith of the Mundas. (b) Exclusive focus on preserving the traditional Mundari Khuntkatti land system. (c) Emphasis on anti-alcoholism, hygiene, and the rejection of local superstitions. (d) Practising only traditional Munda ritual dances while banning all modern music. Correct Solution: C Birsa Munda established his own socio-religious sect called Birsait, through which he sought to purify and reform tribal society alongside the political movement. A major focus of the Birsait sect was social reform, specifically promoting anti-alcoholism, enhancing hygiene, and urging the rejection of superstition. He aimed for a cultural and moral revival of the Munda and associated tribes. Option (a) is incorrect as he founded his own sect after his family’s temporary conversion to Christianity, moving away from it. Option (b) is incorrect as this was the core political goal of Ulgulan, not the sole focus of his socio-religious reforms. Option (d) is incorrect as he himself was a gifted musician who played the flute and tuila and was active in village akhra dances, promoting cultural revival rather than a ban. The sect’s ethical code was crucial in mobilizing people against both internal social ills and external exploitation. Incorrect Solution: C Birsa Munda established his own socio-religious sect called Birsait, through which he sought to purify and reform tribal society alongside the political movement. A major focus of the Birsait sect was social reform, specifically promoting anti-alcoholism, enhancing hygiene, and urging the rejection of superstition. He aimed for a cultural and moral revival of the Munda and associated tribes. Option (a) is incorrect as he founded his own sect after his family’s temporary conversion to Christianity, moving away from it. Option (b) is incorrect as this was the core political goal of Ulgulan, not the sole focus of his socio-religious reforms. Option (d) is incorrect as he himself was a gifted musician who played the flute and tuila and was active in village akhra dances, promoting cultural revival rather than a ban. The sect’s ethical code was crucial in mobilizing people against both internal social ills and external exploitation.

#### 6. Question

Apart from his role as a tribal freedom fighter and leader of the Ulgulan, Birsa Munda made significant contributions as a socio-religious reformer. Which one of the following was a central tenet of the sect he founded?

• (a) Advocacy for the return to the original Christian faith of the Mundas.

• (b) Exclusive focus on preserving the traditional Mundari Khuntkatti land system.

• (c) Emphasis on anti-alcoholism, hygiene, and the rejection of local superstitions.

• (d) Practising only traditional Munda ritual dances while banning all modern music.

Solution: C

• Birsa Munda established his own socio-religious sect called Birsait, through which he sought to purify and reform tribal society alongside the political movement. A major focus of the Birsait sect was social reform, specifically promoting anti-alcoholism, enhancing hygiene, and urging the rejection of superstition. He aimed for a cultural and moral revival of the Munda and associated tribes.

• Option (a) is incorrect as he founded his own sect after his family’s temporary conversion to Christianity, moving away from it.

• Option (b) is incorrect as this was the core political goal of Ulgulan, not the sole focus of his socio-religious reforms.

• Option (d) is incorrect as he himself was a gifted musician who played the flute and tuila and was active in village akhra dances, promoting cultural revival rather than a ban. The sect’s ethical code was crucial in mobilizing people against both internal social ills and external exploitation.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect as he founded his own sect after his family’s temporary conversion to Christianity, moving away from it.

• Option (b) is incorrect as this was the core political goal of Ulgulan, not the sole focus of his socio-religious reforms.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Botswana, a country that recently donated cheetahs to India, is geographically characterized by which of the following features? (a) It is located in the Great Rift Valley, with a long coastline along the Atlantic Ocean. (b) The Okavango River forms its longest border with Namibia before flowing into the Indian Ocean. (c) It borders four countries including Mozambique and the Democratic Republic of Congo. (d) It is a landlocked country situated on a high inland plateau, mostly dominated by the Kalahari Desert sands. Correct Solution: D Statement (a) is incorrect; Botswana is landlocked and is not associated with the Great Rift Valley. Statement (b) is incorrect; while the Okavango River is a major feature, it flows into the Okavango Delta, which is an ancient lakebed, and does not flow into the Indian Ocean. Statement (c) is incorrect; Botswana borders Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe, and South Africa, not Mozambique or DRC. Statement (d) is correct. Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa situated on a high inland plateau (~1,000 m elevation). The country is renowned for its democracy and is largely covered by the deep sands of the Kalahari Desert, especially in the region known as the Sandveld. Incorrect Solution: D Statement (a) is incorrect; Botswana is landlocked and is not associated with the Great Rift Valley. Statement (b) is incorrect; while the Okavango River is a major feature, it flows into the Okavango Delta, which is an ancient lakebed, and does not flow into the Indian Ocean. Statement (c) is incorrect; Botswana borders Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe, and South Africa, not Mozambique or DRC. Statement (d) is correct. Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa situated on a high inland plateau (~1,000 m elevation). The country is renowned for its democracy and is largely covered by the deep sands of the Kalahari Desert, especially in the region known as the Sandveld.

#### 7. Question

Botswana, a country that recently donated cheetahs to India, is geographically characterized by which of the following features?

• (a) It is located in the Great Rift Valley, with a long coastline along the Atlantic Ocean.

• (b) The Okavango River forms its longest border with Namibia before flowing into the Indian Ocean.

• (c) It borders four countries including Mozambique and the Democratic Republic of Congo.

• (d) It is a landlocked country situated on a high inland plateau, mostly dominated by the Kalahari Desert sands.

Solution: D

• Statement (a) is incorrect; Botswana is landlocked and is not associated with the Great Rift Valley.

• Statement (b) is incorrect; while the Okavango River is a major feature, it flows into the Okavango Delta, which is an ancient lakebed, and does not flow into the Indian Ocean.

• Statement (c) is incorrect; Botswana borders Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe, and South Africa, not Mozambique or DRC.

• Statement (d) is correct. Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa situated on a high inland plateau (~1,000 m elevation). The country is renowned for its democracy and is largely covered by the deep sands of the Kalahari Desert, especially in the region known as the Sandveld.

Solution: D

• Statement (a) is incorrect; Botswana is landlocked and is not associated with the Great Rift Valley.

• Statement (b) is incorrect; while the Okavango River is a major feature, it flows into the Okavango Delta, which is an ancient lakebed, and does not flow into the Indian Ocean.

• Statement (c) is incorrect; Botswana borders Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe, and South Africa, not Mozambique or DRC.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Export Promotion Mission (EPM): Statement I: The primary goal of the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to enhance India’s competitiveness in global markets. Statement II: The Niryat Protsahan sub-scheme provides financial support through interest subvention and credit guarantees, specifically targeting MSMEs to enhance their access to affordable trade finance. Statement III: The EPM integrates existing schemes like the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and Market Access Initiative (MAI) into a coordinated mechanism. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The EPM is a flagship initiative whose primary aim is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to boost exports and enhance global competitiveness. Statement II is correct. Niryat Protsahan provides the crucial financial interventions (interest subvention, credit guarantees) to improve trade finance access, which is a direct mechanism for boosting exports (explaining Statement I). Statement III is correct. The integration of existing schemes like IES and MAI under a single, coordinated mechanism (DGFT digital platform) is a structural step that creates the unified framework mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II (financial support) and Statement III (structural integration) are specific features and interventions that collectively explain how the EPM achieves its goal of enhancing competitiveness and creating a unified framework (Statement I). Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The EPM is a flagship initiative whose primary aim is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to boost exports and enhance global competitiveness. Statement II is correct. Niryat Protsahan provides the crucial financial interventions (interest subvention, credit guarantees) to improve trade finance access, which is a direct mechanism for boosting exports (explaining Statement I). Statement III is correct. The integration of existing schemes like IES and MAI under a single, coordinated mechanism (DGFT digital platform) is a structural step that creates the unified framework mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II (financial support) and Statement III (structural integration) are specific features and interventions that collectively explain how the EPM achieves its goal of enhancing competitiveness and creating a unified framework (Statement I).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Export Promotion Mission (EPM):

Statement I: The primary goal of the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to enhance India’s competitiveness in global markets.

Statement II: The Niryat Protsahan sub-scheme provides financial support through interest subvention and credit guarantees, specifically targeting MSMEs to enhance their access to affordable trade finance.

Statement III: The EPM integrates existing schemes like the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and Market Access Initiative (MAI) into a coordinated mechanism.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The EPM is a flagship initiative whose primary aim is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to boost exports and enhance global competitiveness.

• Statement II is correct. Niryat Protsahan provides the crucial financial interventions (interest subvention, credit guarantees) to improve trade finance access, which is a direct mechanism for boosting exports (explaining Statement I).

• Statement III is correct. The integration of existing schemes like IES and MAI under a single, coordinated mechanism (DGFT digital platform) is a structural step that creates the unified framework mentioned in Statement I.

• Therefore, both Statement II (financial support) and Statement III (structural integration) are specific features and interventions that collectively explain how the EPM achieves its goal of enhancing competitiveness and creating a unified framework (Statement I).

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The EPM is a flagship initiative whose primary aim is to create a unified, technology-driven framework to boost exports and enhance global competitiveness.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has recently mandated the inclusion of analysis using ISRO’s National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM) in all highway Detailed Project Reports (DPRs). What is the most significant benefit of this mandate? (a) It ensures the road DPRs comply with the mandatory environment impact assessment clearance from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. (b) It enables data-driven DPRs by identifying multi-hazard zones like flood or landslide-prone areas before the road alignment is finalised. (c) It links highway construction exclusively to the Digital Elevation Models (DEMs) provided by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). (d) It provides a mechanism for the real-time allocation of NDRF teams to highway construction sites in high-risk zones. Correct Solution: B The most significant benefit of mandating NDEM analysis in DPRs (Detailed Project Reports) is to ensure Accurate Route Planning and Feasibility Enhancement. Statement (b) captures this perfectly, as NDEM, being a geo-spatial platform with multi-hazard coverage, helps in identifying vulnerable zones like flood or landslide-prone areas. This allows for safer and more resilient road design, reducing field-level uncertainties and cost overruns. Statement (a) is related to environmental law, not directly the NDEM mandate. Statement (c) is incorrect; DEM is just one feature, and the NDMA is a guiding body, not the sole data provider. Statement (d) describes a rescue/response function, whereas the mandate is for preparedness and planning in the design phase. Incorrect Solution: B The most significant benefit of mandating NDEM analysis in DPRs (Detailed Project Reports) is to ensure Accurate Route Planning and Feasibility Enhancement. Statement (b) captures this perfectly, as NDEM, being a geo-spatial platform with multi-hazard coverage, helps in identifying vulnerable zones like flood or landslide-prone areas. This allows for safer and more resilient road design, reducing field-level uncertainties and cost overruns. Statement (a) is related to environmental law, not directly the NDEM mandate. Statement (c) is incorrect; DEM is just one feature, and the NDMA is a guiding body, not the sole data provider. Statement (d) describes a rescue/response function, whereas the mandate is for preparedness and planning in the design phase.

#### 9. Question

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has recently mandated the inclusion of analysis using ISRO’s National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM) in all highway Detailed Project Reports (DPRs). What is the most significant benefit of this mandate?

• (a) It ensures the road DPRs comply with the mandatory environment impact assessment clearance from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

• (b) It enables data-driven DPRs by identifying multi-hazard zones like flood or landslide-prone areas before the road alignment is finalised.

• (c) It links highway construction exclusively to the Digital Elevation Models (DEMs) provided by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).

• (d) It provides a mechanism for the real-time allocation of NDRF teams to highway construction sites in high-risk zones.

Solution: B

• The most significant benefit of mandating NDEM analysis in DPRs (Detailed Project Reports) is to ensure Accurate Route Planning and Feasibility Enhancement.

• Statement (b) captures this perfectly, as NDEM, being a geo-spatial platform with multi-hazard coverage, helps in identifying vulnerable zones like flood or landslide-prone areas. This allows for safer and more resilient road design, reducing field-level uncertainties and cost overruns.

• Statement (a) is related to environmental law, not directly the NDEM mandate.

• Statement (c) is incorrect; DEM is just one feature, and the NDMA is a guiding body, not the sole data provider.

• Statement (d) describes a rescue/response function, whereas the mandate is for preparedness and planning in the design phase.

Solution: B

• The most significant benefit of mandating NDEM analysis in DPRs (Detailed Project Reports) is to ensure Accurate Route Planning and Feasibility Enhancement.

• Statement (a) is related to environmental law, not directly the NDEM mandate.

• Statement (c) is incorrect; DEM is just one feature, and the NDMA is a guiding body, not the sole data provider.

• Statement (d) describes a rescue/response function, whereas the mandate is for preparedness and planning in the design phase.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Regarding the Plant Genome Saviour Awards, consider the following statements: The award is a national recognition scheme instituted by the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority (PPV&FRA) to promote commercial farming of genetically modified crops. It is awarded primarily to institutions and large corporations demonstrating exemplary work in developing new, high-yielding hybrid crop varieties. The scheme specifically honours individual farmers and community seed groups engaged in conserving indigenous landraces and wild relatives of crops. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The award’s purpose is to honour farmers and communities preserving traditional and endangered plant varieties, not to promote the commercial farming of GM crops. Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is given to individual farmers and community seed groups who are grassroots conservationists, not primarily to large institutions or corporations focused on commercial hybrid development. Statement 3 is correct. It is a scheme of national recognition for conservationists of indigenous landraces and wild relatives of crops, instituted under Section 39(1)(iii) of the PPV&FRA Act to reward the custodians of genetic resources. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The award’s purpose is to honour farmers and communities preserving traditional and endangered plant varieties, not to promote the commercial farming of GM crops. Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is given to individual farmers and community seed groups who are grassroots conservationists, not primarily to large institutions or corporations focused on commercial hybrid development. Statement 3 is correct. It is a scheme of national recognition for conservationists of indigenous landraces and wild relatives of crops, instituted under Section 39(1)(iii) of the PPV&FRA Act to reward the custodians of genetic resources.

#### 10. Question

Regarding the Plant Genome Saviour Awards, consider the following statements:

• The award is a national recognition scheme instituted by the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority (PPV&FRA) to promote commercial farming of genetically modified crops.

• It is awarded primarily to institutions and large corporations demonstrating exemplary work in developing new, high-yielding hybrid crop varieties.

• The scheme specifically honours individual farmers and community seed groups engaged in conserving indigenous landraces and wild relatives of crops.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The award’s purpose is to honour farmers and communities preserving traditional and endangered plant varieties, not to promote the commercial farming of GM crops.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is given to individual farmers and community seed groups who are grassroots conservationists, not primarily to large institutions or corporations focused on commercial hybrid development.

• Statement 3 is correct. It is a scheme of national recognition for conservationists of indigenous landraces and wild relatives of crops, instituted under Section 39(1)(iii) of the PPV&FRA Act to reward the custodians of genetic resources.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The award’s purpose is to honour farmers and communities preserving traditional and endangered plant varieties, not to promote the commercial farming of GM crops.

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