UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 17 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and its related projects: The GEF provides funding for global environmental issues, including biodiversity, climate change, and desertification, through various funds such as the GEF Trust Fund and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). The CoHABITAT Project in India, supported by the GEF, aims to conserve wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway. The Sustainable Cities Integrated Program (SCIP) funded by the GEF is exclusively focused on African countries. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides funding for a wide range of environmental issues, including biodiversity conservation, climate change mitigation, and combatting desertification. The funding is provided through several funds, including the GEF Trust Fund and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Statement 2 is correct. The CoHABITAT Project in India, supported by the GEF and implemented by UNDP in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, focuses on conserving critical ecosystems such as wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sustainable Cities Integrated Program (SCIP) funded by the GEF is not exclusively focused on African countries but spans 20 countries globally to catalyze urban system transformation. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides funding for a wide range of environmental issues, including biodiversity conservation, climate change mitigation, and combatting desertification. The funding is provided through several funds, including the GEF Trust Fund and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Statement 2 is correct. The CoHABITAT Project in India, supported by the GEF and implemented by UNDP in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, focuses on conserving critical ecosystems such as wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sustainable Cities Integrated Program (SCIP) funded by the GEF is not exclusively focused on African countries but spans 20 countries globally to catalyze urban system transformation.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and its related projects:

• The GEF provides funding for global environmental issues, including biodiversity, climate change, and desertification, through various funds such as the GEF Trust Fund and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF).

• The CoHABITAT Project in India, supported by the GEF, aims to conserve wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway.

• The Sustainable Cities Integrated Program (SCIP) funded by the GEF is exclusively focused on African countries.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides funding for a wide range of environmental issues, including biodiversity conservation, climate change mitigation, and combatting desertification. The funding is provided through several funds, including the GEF Trust Fund and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF).

• Statement 2 is correct. The CoHABITAT Project in India, supported by the GEF and implemented by UNDP in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, focuses on conserving critical ecosystems such as wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sustainable Cities Integrated Program (SCIP) funded by the GEF is not exclusively focused on African countries but spans 20 countries globally to catalyze urban system transformation.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following nutrients is most deficient in Indian soils? a) Organic Carbon b) Potash c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen Correct Solution: d) Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels, making it the most deficient nutrient. In comparison, phosphate sufficiency is at 40%, potash at 32%, and organic carbon at 20%. Present Status of Soil in India: Aspect Details Topsoil Importance 95% of food production relies on topsoil, which takes 1,000 years to regenerate naturally. Nitrogen Deficiency Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels. Phosphate Sufficiency Only 40% of Indian soils have sufficient phosphate. Potash Sufficiency Only 32% of Indian soils have sufficient potash levels. Organic Carbon Sufficiency Just 20% of Indian soils are sufficient in organic carbon. Fertilizer Subsidy Urea accounts for two-thirds of the ₹1.88 lakh crore subsidy; globally cheapest at ~$70/tonne. Imbalanced Fertilizer Use Punjab uses 61% more nitrogen and 89% less potash than recommended. Incorrect Solution: d) Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels, making it the most deficient nutrient. In comparison, phosphate sufficiency is at 40%, potash at 32%, and organic carbon at 20%. Present Status of Soil in India: Aspect Details Topsoil Importance 95% of food production relies on topsoil, which takes 1,000 years to regenerate naturally. Nitrogen Deficiency Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels. Phosphate Sufficiency Only 40% of Indian soils have sufficient phosphate. Potash Sufficiency Only 32% of Indian soils have sufficient potash levels. Organic Carbon Sufficiency Just 20% of Indian soils are sufficient in organic carbon. Fertilizer Subsidy Urea accounts for two-thirds of the ₹1.88 lakh crore subsidy; globally cheapest at ~$70/tonne. Imbalanced Fertilizer Use Punjab uses 61% more nitrogen and 89% less potash than recommended.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following nutrients is most deficient in Indian soils?

• a) Organic Carbon

• c) Phosphate

• d) Nitrogen

Solution: d)

Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels, making it the most deficient nutrient. In comparison, phosphate sufficiency is at 40%, potash at 32%, and organic carbon at 20%.

Present Status of Soil in India:

Aspect | Details

Topsoil Importance | 95% of food production relies on topsoil, which takes 1,000 years to regenerate naturally.

Nitrogen Deficiency | Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels.

Phosphate Sufficiency | Only 40% of Indian soils have sufficient phosphate.

Potash Sufficiency | Only 32% of Indian soils have sufficient potash levels.

Organic Carbon Sufficiency | Just 20% of Indian soils are sufficient in organic carbon.

Fertilizer Subsidy | Urea accounts for two-thirds of the ₹1.88 lakh crore subsidy; globally cheapest at ~$70/tonne.

Imbalanced Fertilizer Use | Punjab uses 61% more nitrogen and 89% less potash than recommended.

Solution: d)

Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels, making it the most deficient nutrient. In comparison, phosphate sufficiency is at 40%, potash at 32%, and organic carbon at 20%.

Present Status of Soil in India:

Aspect | Details

Topsoil Importance | 95% of food production relies on topsoil, which takes 1,000 years to regenerate naturally.

Nitrogen Deficiency | Less than 5% of Indian soils have high nitrogen levels.

Phosphate Sufficiency | Only 40% of Indian soils have sufficient phosphate.

Potash Sufficiency | Only 32% of Indian soils have sufficient potash levels.

Organic Carbon Sufficiency | Just 20% of Indian soils are sufficient in organic carbon.

Fertilizer Subsidy | Urea accounts for two-thirds of the ₹1.88 lakh crore subsidy; globally cheapest at ~$70/tonne.

Imbalanced Fertilizer Use | Punjab uses 61% more nitrogen and 89% less potash than recommended.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary approval for the removal of judges: The motion requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in each house of Parliament. The motion must also secure a majority of the total membership of each house. Both houses must pass the motion independently before it is sent to the President. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct, as a two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both houses. Statement 2 is correct, as a majority of the total membership is also mandatory for the motion to pass. Statement 3 is correct, as both houses must approve the motion independently before it is sent to the President for final action. Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps: Initiation of Motion: A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament. Requires: At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman. Admission of Motion: The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion Investigation Committee Formation: If admitted, a three-member committee is constituted: A Supreme Court judge. The Chief Justice of a High Court. A distinguished jurist. The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly Report Submission: After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman. If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament. Parliamentary Approval: The motion must be adopted by both houses: Requires a majority of total membership and a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house Presidential Order: Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal History: No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct, as a two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both houses. Statement 2 is correct, as a majority of the total membership is also mandatory for the motion to pass. Statement 3 is correct, as both houses must approve the motion independently before it is sent to the President for final action. Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps: Initiation of Motion: A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament. Requires: At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman. Admission of Motion: The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion Investigation Committee Formation: If admitted, a three-member committee is constituted: A Supreme Court judge. The Chief Justice of a High Court. A distinguished jurist. The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly Report Submission: After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman. If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament. Parliamentary Approval: The motion must be adopted by both houses: Requires a majority of total membership and a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house Presidential Order: Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal History: No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary approval for the removal of judges:

• The motion requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in each house of Parliament.

• The motion must also secure a majority of the total membership of each house.

• Both houses must pass the motion independently before it is sent to the President.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct, as a two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both houses.

Statement 2 is correct, as a majority of the total membership is also mandatory for the motion to pass.

Statement 3 is correct, as both houses must approve the motion independently before it is sent to the President for final action.

Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:

• The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps:

Initiation of Motion:

• A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament.

• Requires: At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

• At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker.

• At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

Admission of Motion:

• The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion

Investigation Committee Formation:

• If admitted, a three-member committee is constituted:

• A Supreme Court judge.

• The Chief Justice of a High Court.

• A distinguished jurist.

The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly

Report Submission:

• After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman.

• If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament.

Parliamentary Approval:

• The motion must be adopted by both houses:

• Requires a majority of total membership and a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house

Presidential Order:

• Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal

• No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct, as a two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both houses.

Statement 2 is correct, as a majority of the total membership is also mandatory for the motion to pass.

Statement 3 is correct, as both houses must approve the motion independently before it is sent to the President for final action.

Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:

• The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps:

Initiation of Motion:

• A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament.

• Requires: At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

• At least 100 members from the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker.

• At least 50 members from the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

Admission of Motion:

• The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion

Investigation Committee Formation:

• If admitted, a three-member committee is constituted:

• A Supreme Court judge.

• The Chief Justice of a High Court.

• A distinguished jurist.

The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly

Report Submission:

• After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman.

• If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament.

Parliamentary Approval:

• The motion must be adopted by both houses:

• Requires a majority of total membership and a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house

Presidential Order:

• Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal

• No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is a unique characteristic of salt flats after rainfall? a) They expand significantly due to water absorption. b) They form reflective surfaces that act as natural mirrors. c) The mineral layers become compressed to form salt domes. d) The ground becomes highly fertile for agriculture. Correct Solution: b) After rainfall, salt flats transform into highly reflective surfaces due to the formation of a thin, even layer of water on top of the salt crust. This water layer acts as a mirror, reflecting the sky, clouds, and surrounding landscapes, creating a striking visual effect often referred to as a “natural mirror.” This phenomenon is most famously observed in places like the Salar de Uyuni in Bolivia. Salt flats do not become fertile for agriculture, as the high salinity is detrimental to most plant growth. Similarly, they do not significantly expand since the salt crust is rigid and impermeable. Lastly, salt domes form through geological processes involving the upward movement of salt under pressure, not through the layering or compression caused by rainfall. Incorrect Solution: b) After rainfall, salt flats transform into highly reflective surfaces due to the formation of a thin, even layer of water on top of the salt crust. This water layer acts as a mirror, reflecting the sky, clouds, and surrounding landscapes, creating a striking visual effect often referred to as a “natural mirror.” This phenomenon is most famously observed in places like the Salar de Uyuni in Bolivia. Salt flats do not become fertile for agriculture, as the high salinity is detrimental to most plant growth. Similarly, they do not significantly expand since the salt crust is rigid and impermeable. Lastly, salt domes form through geological processes involving the upward movement of salt under pressure, not through the layering or compression caused by rainfall.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of salt flats after rainfall?

• a) They expand significantly due to water absorption.

• b) They form reflective surfaces that act as natural mirrors.

• c) The mineral layers become compressed to form salt domes.

• d) The ground becomes highly fertile for agriculture.

Solution: b)

After rainfall, salt flats transform into highly reflective surfaces due to the formation of a thin, even layer of water on top of the salt crust. This water layer acts as a mirror, reflecting the sky, clouds, and surrounding landscapes, creating a striking visual effect often referred to as a “natural mirror.” This phenomenon is most famously observed in places like the Salar de Uyuni in Bolivia.

Salt flats do not become fertile for agriculture, as the high salinity is detrimental to most plant growth. Similarly, they do not significantly expand since the salt crust is rigid and impermeable. Lastly, salt domes form through geological processes involving the upward movement of salt under pressure, not through the layering or compression caused by rainfall.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding soil degradation in hilly areas like Uttarakhand: Soil degradation is caused mainly by landslides and deforestation. Flood-induced salinity ingress is a prominent issue in these areas. Overgrazing is a significant factor in soil erosion in Uttarakhand. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together. Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand. Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together. Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand. Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding soil degradation in hilly areas like Uttarakhand:

• Soil degradation is caused mainly by landslides and deforestation.

• Flood-induced salinity ingress is a prominent issue in these areas.

• Overgrazing is a significant factor in soil erosion in Uttarakhand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct because soil degradation in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand is predominantly caused by landslides, which result from heavy rainfall, unstable slopes, and deforestation. Deforestation exacerbates soil erosion by reducing vegetation cover that helps bind the soil together.

Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because overgrazing is a more significant issue in semi-arid and arid regions, where limited vegetation is heavily exploited by livestock. In contrast, Uttarakhand’s soil erosion is more directly tied to deforestation and natural disasters rather than overgrazing.

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect as salinity ingress typically affects coastal regions where seawater intrusion occurs. This phenomenon is not relevant to the hilly terrain of Uttarakhand.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the removal of Most Favored Nation (MFN) status: There is no formal procedure under the WTO to revoke MFN status. Revoking MFN status allows countries to impose discriminatory tariffs or restrictions. Special treatment agreements for developing nations are exceptions to MFN rules. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons. Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces. Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons. Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces. Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the removal of Most Favored Nation (MFN) status:

• There is no formal procedure under the WTO to revoke MFN status.

• Revoking MFN status allows countries to impose discriminatory tariffs or restrictions.

• Special treatment agreements for developing nations are exceptions to MFN rules.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct because there is no formal mechanism or procedure outlined by the World Trade Organization (WTO) for a member country to revoke the Most Favored Nation (MFN) status of another member. However, countries may unilaterally decide to withdraw MFN benefits in exceptional circumstances, often citing national security or political reasons.

Statement 2 is correct as revoking MFN status permits the imposing country to apply discriminatory tariffs, trade restrictions, or other barriers against the targeted country. This action deviates from the standard WTO principle of non-discrimination that MFN enforces.

Statement 3 is correct because exceptions to the MFN rule are allowed under the WTO framework to provide special treatment to developing nations. These exceptions, such as Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), aim to promote economic growth and development in less developed countries.

Solution: d)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes Replacement Therapy? a) A treatment that stimulates the body to produce its own clotting factors. b) A therapy that replaces deficient clotting factors via injections into veins. c) A surgical procedure to replace defective blood components. d) A treatment where clotting factors are administered orally to compensate for deficiencies. Correct Solution: b) Replacement Therapy is a standard treatment primarily used for conditions like hemophilia, where clotting factors, such as Factor VIII, are injected directly into the bloodstream. This replaces the deficient or missing factors necessary for blood clotting. What is Replacement Therapy? Definition:A standard treatment where clotting factors are injected into the veins to replace the deficient Factor VIII. Mechanism:Derived from human plasma or produced synthetically (recombinant clotting factors). Challenges: Short lifespan of clotting factors in the body. Antibodies may neutralize the clotting factors, reducing effectiveness. What is Roctavian? Definition:The first FDA-approved gene therapy for severe haemophilia A. How It Works: Uses an adeno-associated virus (AAV)vector to deliver a corrected gene encoding Factor VIII. The gene integrates into liver cells to produce clotting Factor VIII. Efficacy:Reduces annual bleeding rates but requires corticosteroids to suppress immune reactions. Limitations:Treatment response may wane over time, and pre-existing antibodies to AAV may limit its use. Lentivirus Vector in Gene Therapy: Advantages: Rarely triggers pre-existing Integrates into host cells, ensuring long-term production of clotting factors. Indian Approach: Gene transfer into adult stem cells for lifelong efficacy. Incorrect Solution: b) Replacement Therapy is a standard treatment primarily used for conditions like hemophilia, where clotting factors, such as Factor VIII, are injected directly into the bloodstream. This replaces the deficient or missing factors necessary for blood clotting. What is Replacement Therapy? Definition:A standard treatment where clotting factors are injected into the veins to replace the deficient Factor VIII. Mechanism:Derived from human plasma or produced synthetically (recombinant clotting factors). Challenges: Short lifespan of clotting factors in the body. Antibodies may neutralize the clotting factors, reducing effectiveness. What is Roctavian? Definition:The first FDA-approved gene therapy for severe haemophilia A. How It Works: Uses an adeno-associated virus (AAV)vector to deliver a corrected gene encoding Factor VIII. The gene integrates into liver cells to produce clotting Factor VIII. Efficacy:Reduces annual bleeding rates but requires corticosteroids to suppress immune reactions. Limitations:Treatment response may wane over time, and pre-existing antibodies to AAV may limit its use. Lentivirus Vector in Gene Therapy: Advantages: Rarely triggers pre-existing Integrates into host cells, ensuring long-term production of clotting factors. Indian Approach: Gene transfer into adult stem cells for lifelong efficacy.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following best describes Replacement Therapy?

• a) A treatment that stimulates the body to produce its own clotting factors.

• b) A therapy that replaces deficient clotting factors via injections into veins.

• c) A surgical procedure to replace defective blood components.

• d) A treatment where clotting factors are administered orally to compensate for deficiencies.

Solution: b)

Replacement Therapy is a standard treatment primarily used for conditions like hemophilia, where clotting factors, such as Factor VIII, are injected directly into the bloodstream. This replaces the deficient or missing factors necessary for blood clotting.

What is Replacement Therapy?

• Definition:A standard treatment where clotting factors are injected into the veins to replace the deficient Factor VIII.

• Mechanism:Derived from human plasma or produced synthetically (recombinant clotting factors).

Challenges:

• Short lifespan of clotting factors in the body.

• Antibodies may neutralize the clotting factors, reducing effectiveness.

What is Roctavian?

• Definition:The first FDA-approved gene therapy for severe haemophilia A.

• How It Works:

• Uses an adeno-associated virus (AAV)vector to deliver a corrected gene encoding Factor VIII.

• The gene integrates into liver cells to produce clotting Factor VIII.

• Efficacy:Reduces annual bleeding rates but requires corticosteroids to suppress immune reactions.

• Limitations:Treatment response may wane over time, and pre-existing antibodies to AAV may limit its use.

Lentivirus Vector in Gene Therapy:

• Advantages:

• Rarely triggers pre-existing

• Integrates into host cells, ensuring long-term production of clotting factors.

• Indian Approach: Gene transfer into adult stem cells for lifelong efficacy.

Solution: b)

What is Replacement Therapy?

• Definition:A standard treatment where clotting factors are injected into the veins to replace the deficient Factor VIII.

• Mechanism:Derived from human plasma or produced synthetically (recombinant clotting factors).

Challenges:

• Short lifespan of clotting factors in the body.

• Antibodies may neutralize the clotting factors, reducing effectiveness.

What is Roctavian?

• Definition:The first FDA-approved gene therapy for severe haemophilia A.

• How It Works:

• Uses an adeno-associated virus (AAV)vector to deliver a corrected gene encoding Factor VIII.

• The gene integrates into liver cells to produce clotting Factor VIII.

• Efficacy:Reduces annual bleeding rates but requires corticosteroids to suppress immune reactions.

• Limitations:Treatment response may wane over time, and pre-existing antibodies to AAV may limit its use.

Lentivirus Vector in Gene Therapy:

• Advantages:

• Rarely triggers pre-existing

• Integrates into host cells, ensuring long-term production of clotting factors.

• Indian Approach: Gene transfer into adult stem cells for lifelong efficacy.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about El Niño and its impacts on marine ecosystems: Warmer ocean temperatures during El Niño lead to coral bleaching. Disruption of upwelling reduces nutrient availability, affecting marine food chains. El Niño intensifies cold currents in the eastern Pacific, benefiting marine life. Fish stocks in the eastern Pacific decline significantly during El Niño years. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct because El Niño-induced warmer ocean temperatures stress corals, leading to bleaching and affecting marine biodiversity. Corals lose their symbiotic algae, essential for their survival, resulting in widespread damage to coral reefs. Statement 2 is correct as El Niño disrupts the upwelling of nutrient-rich waters in the eastern Pacific. This reduction in nutrients directly impacts primary producers like phytoplankton, cascading through the food chain and affecting fish populations and other marine species. Statement 3 is incorrect because El Niño weakens, rather than intensifies, the cold currents in the eastern Pacific. This weakening results in warmer surface waters, which harm marine ecosystems by reducing the nutrient supply critical for sustaining marine life. Statement 4 is correct since the disruption in nutrient cycles and warmer ocean conditions during El Niño significantly reduce fish stocks in the eastern Pacific, particularly species like anchovies and sardines. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct because El Niño-induced warmer ocean temperatures stress corals, leading to bleaching and affecting marine biodiversity. Corals lose their symbiotic algae, essential for their survival, resulting in widespread damage to coral reefs. Statement 2 is correct as El Niño disrupts the upwelling of nutrient-rich waters in the eastern Pacific. This reduction in nutrients directly impacts primary producers like phytoplankton, cascading through the food chain and affecting fish populations and other marine species. Statement 3 is incorrect because El Niño weakens, rather than intensifies, the cold currents in the eastern Pacific. This weakening results in warmer surface waters, which harm marine ecosystems by reducing the nutrient supply critical for sustaining marine life. Statement 4 is correct since the disruption in nutrient cycles and warmer ocean conditions during El Niño significantly reduce fish stocks in the eastern Pacific, particularly species like anchovies and sardines.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about El Niño and its impacts on marine ecosystems:

• Warmer ocean temperatures during El Niño lead to coral bleaching.

• Disruption of upwelling reduces nutrient availability, affecting marine food chains.

• El Niño intensifies cold currents in the eastern Pacific, benefiting marine life.

• Fish stocks in the eastern Pacific decline significantly during El Niño years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct because El Niño-induced warmer ocean temperatures stress corals, leading to bleaching and affecting marine biodiversity. Corals lose their symbiotic algae, essential for their survival, resulting in widespread damage to coral reefs.

Statement 2 is correct as El Niño disrupts the upwelling of nutrient-rich waters in the eastern Pacific. This reduction in nutrients directly impacts primary producers like phytoplankton, cascading through the food chain and affecting fish populations and other marine species.

Statement 3 is incorrect because El Niño weakens, rather than intensifies, the cold currents in the eastern Pacific. This weakening results in warmer surface waters, which harm marine ecosystems by reducing the nutrient supply critical for sustaining marine life.

Statement 4 is correct since the disruption in nutrient cycles and warmer ocean conditions during El Niño significantly reduce fish stocks in the eastern Pacific, particularly species like anchovies and sardines.

Solution: c)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following Neolithic sites is known for polished stone tools and evidence of early agriculture? a) Hunsgi b) Koldihwa c) Bhimbetka d) Brahmagiri Correct Solution: b) Koldihwa, located in Uttar Pradesh, is a Neolithic site known for its evidence of early agriculture, including rice cultivation, and polished stone tools. Incorrect Solution: b) Koldihwa, located in Uttar Pradesh, is a Neolithic site known for its evidence of early agriculture, including rice cultivation, and polished stone tools.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following Neolithic sites is known for polished stone tools and evidence of early agriculture?

• b) Koldihwa

• c) Bhimbetka

• d) Brahmagiri

Solution: b)

Koldihwa, located in Uttar Pradesh, is a Neolithic site known for its evidence of early agriculture, including rice cultivation, and polished stone tools.

Solution: b)

Koldihwa, located in Uttar Pradesh, is a Neolithic site known for its evidence of early agriculture, including rice cultivation, and polished stone tools.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Increased surface air temperatures in the Arctic region are accelerating the global greenhouse effect. Statement-II: Higher temperatures in the Arctic have created a feedback loop where released greenhouse gases from permafrost further increase warming. Which one of the following is correct with respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Arctic warming has significant global implications due to the feedback loop it initiates. As temperatures in the Arctic increase, permafrost—frozen ground that stores vast amounts of carbon—begins to thaw. When permafrost thaws, it releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) into the atmosphere, which are potent contributors to the global greenhouse effect. These emissions enhance the warming process, creating a self-reinforcing cycle: higher temperatures lead to more permafrost thaw, which, in turn, releases more greenhouse gases. Statement-I correctly highlights the role of increased Arctic surface air temperatures in amplifying the global greenhouse effect. Statement-II accurately describes the feedback loop caused by the thawing of permafrost. Moreover, Statement-II provides a detailed mechanism that explains Statement-I, establishing it as the correct explanation. Incorrect Solution: a) Arctic warming has significant global implications due to the feedback loop it initiates. As temperatures in the Arctic increase, permafrost—frozen ground that stores vast amounts of carbon—begins to thaw. When permafrost thaws, it releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) into the atmosphere, which are potent contributors to the global greenhouse effect. These emissions enhance the warming process, creating a self-reinforcing cycle: higher temperatures lead to more permafrost thaw, which, in turn, releases more greenhouse gases. Statement-I correctly highlights the role of increased Arctic surface air temperatures in amplifying the global greenhouse effect. Statement-II accurately describes the feedback loop caused by the thawing of permafrost. Moreover, Statement-II provides a detailed mechanism that explains Statement-I, establishing it as the correct explanation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Increased surface air temperatures in the Arctic region are accelerating the global greenhouse effect. Statement-II: Higher temperatures in the Arctic have created a feedback loop where released greenhouse gases from permafrost further increase warming.

Which one of the following is correct with respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Arctic warming has significant global implications due to the feedback loop it initiates. As temperatures in the Arctic increase, permafrost—frozen ground that stores vast amounts of carbon—begins to thaw. When permafrost thaws, it releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) into the atmosphere, which are potent contributors to the global greenhouse effect. These emissions enhance the warming process, creating a self-reinforcing cycle: higher temperatures lead to more permafrost thaw, which, in turn, releases more greenhouse gases.

Statement-I correctly highlights the role of increased Arctic surface air temperatures in amplifying the global greenhouse effect.

Statement-II accurately describes the feedback loop caused by the thawing of permafrost. Moreover, Statement-II provides a detailed mechanism that explains Statement-I, establishing it as the correct explanation.

Solution: a)

Statement-I correctly highlights the role of increased Arctic surface air temperatures in amplifying the global greenhouse effect.

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