UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 17 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: RNA editing uses adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) enzymes to make permanent changes to the genome. RNA editing effects are reversible and fade over time. RNA editing carries a higher risk of immune reaction compared to DNA editing. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Only Statement 2 is correct. About RNA Editing: Definition:RNA editing involves making precise changes to RNA molecules, which carry instructions from DNA to produce proteins. This process allows scientists to correct errors in RNA before they are translated into proteins. Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function. Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders. Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing: Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk. Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks. Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise. Incorrect Solution: b) Only Statement 2 is correct. About RNA Editing: Definition:RNA editing involves making precise changes to RNA molecules, which carry instructions from DNA to produce proteins. This process allows scientists to correct errors in RNA before they are translated into proteins. Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function. Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders. Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing: Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk. Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks. Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• RNA editing uses adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) enzymes to make permanent changes to the genome.

• RNA editing effects are reversible and fade over time.

• RNA editing carries a higher risk of immune reaction compared to DNA editing.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

About RNA Editing:

• Definition:RNA editing involves making precise changes to RNA molecules, which carry instructions from DNA to produce proteins. This process allows scientists to correct errors in RNA before they are translated into proteins.

• Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function.

• Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders.

Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing:

• Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk.

• Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks.

• Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise.

Solution: b)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

About RNA Editing:

• Mechanism:One method uses enzymes like adenosine deaminase acting on RNA (ADAR) to convert adenosine to inosine, which mimics guanosine, restoring normal protein function.

• Guide RNA (gRNA):gRNA directs ADAR enzymes to specific mRNA regions to correct mutations linked to genetic disorders.

Difference Between RNA and DNA Editing:

• Permanency:DNA editing makes permanent changes to the genome; RNA editing makes temporary changes, reducing long-term risk.

• Safety:DNA editing uses proteins from bacteria, which may cause immune reactions; RNA editing utilizes ADAR enzymes already present in the human body, lowering immune risks.

• Flexibility:RNA editing allows effects to fade over time, enabling doctors to stop treatment if side effects arise.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the benefits of peatlands: Peatlands store less carbon than the world’s forests due to their smaller area. Peatlands play a crucial role in regulating water supplies and purifying water. The waterlogged nature of peatlands makes them unsuitable for preserving archaeological sites. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area, making statement 1 incorrect. Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use, making statement 2 correct. Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well, contrary to statement 3, which is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: a) Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area, making statement 1 incorrect. Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use, making statement 2 correct. Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well, contrary to statement 3, which is incorrect.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the benefits of peatlands:

• Peatlands store less carbon than the world’s forests due to their smaller area.

• Peatlands play a crucial role in regulating water supplies and purifying water.

• The waterlogged nature of peatlands makes them unsuitable for preserving archaeological sites.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Peatlands are one of the most efficient natural carbon sinks, storing more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, even though they occupy a smaller area, making statement 1 incorrect.

• Peatlands are also crucial for water regulation and purification, as they help maintain groundwater levels and filter pollutants, ensuring cleaner water for ecosystems and human use, making statement 2 correct.

Additionally, the waterlogged conditions in peatlands create anaerobic environments, which significantly slow decomposition processes. This unique feature allows peatlands to preserve archaeological and cultural artifacts exceptionally well, contrary to statement 3, which is incorrect.

Solution: a)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the applications of microplastics: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology for cleaning surfaces. They are completely biodegradable. Synthetic textiles shed microplastic fibers during washing. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern. Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology, where tiny plastic particles are employed to clean surfaces, particularly in industrial and maintenance settings. However, this process can release microplastics into the environment if not carefully managed. Statement 2 is incorrect: Microplastics are not biodegradable; they are made of persistent synthetic polymers that resist natural degradation. While some cosmetic products claim to be biodegradable, microplastics in these products remain pollutants that accumulate in ecosystems. Statement 3 is correct: Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, shed microplastic fibers during washing. These fibers often end up in wastewater, ultimately polluting rivers, lakes, and oceans. Incorrect Solution: b) Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern. Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology, where tiny plastic particles are employed to clean surfaces, particularly in industrial and maintenance settings. However, this process can release microplastics into the environment if not carefully managed. Statement 2 is incorrect: Microplastics are not biodegradable; they are made of persistent synthetic polymers that resist natural degradation. While some cosmetic products claim to be biodegradable, microplastics in these products remain pollutants that accumulate in ecosystems. Statement 3 is correct: Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, shed microplastic fibers during washing. These fibers often end up in wastewater, ultimately polluting rivers, lakes, and oceans.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the applications of microplastics:

• Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology for cleaning surfaces.

• They are completely biodegradable.

• Synthetic textiles shed microplastic fibers during washing.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern.

• Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics are used in air-blasting technology, where tiny plastic particles are employed to clean surfaces, particularly in industrial and maintenance settings. However, this process can release microplastics into the environment if not carefully managed.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Microplastics are not biodegradable; they are made of persistent synthetic polymers that resist natural degradation. While some cosmetic products claim to be biodegradable, microplastics in these products remain pollutants that accumulate in ecosystems.

Statement 3 is correct: Synthetic textiles, such as polyester and nylon, shed microplastic fibers during washing. These fibers often end up in wastewater, ultimately polluting rivers, lakes, and oceans.

Solution: b)

• Microplastics have various applications and unintended consequences, making them a significant environmental concern.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following anthropogenic activities is the largest contributor to rising methane (CH₄) levels in the atmosphere? a) Deforestation b) Waste management c) Fossil fuel combustion d) Agricultural activities Correct Solution: d) Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture. Incorrect Solution: d) Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following anthropogenic activities is the largest contributor to rising methane (CH₄) levels in the atmosphere?

• a) Deforestation

• b) Waste management

• c) Fossil fuel combustion

• d) Agricultural activities

Solution: d)

Agriculture, particularly livestock farming, is the largest contributor to methane emissions. Ruminant animals produce methane through enteric fermentation, and rice paddies release significant amounts due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields. Waste management and fossil fuel extraction also contribute but are not as significant as agriculture.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about volcanic activity and its impact on climate: Volcanic eruptions release aerosols that can lead to temporary cooling of the Earth’s atmosphere. Ash and gas from eruptions may contribute to a short-term warming effect in the troposphere. The cooling effect of volcanic aerosols often lasts for decades. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Volcanic activity significantly influences the climate through the release of aerosols and gases. Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic eruptions emit aerosols, primarily sulfur dioxide, which forms sulfate particles in the atmosphere. These particles reflect solar radiation, leading to temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface. For example, the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in 1991 caused global temperatures to drop for a couple of years. Statement 2 is also correct: While aerosols cool the surface, volcanic eruptions can release gases like water vapor and carbon dioxide into the troposphere, which can trap heat, causing a short-term localized warming effect. Statement 3 is incorrect: The cooling effects of volcanic aerosols are temporary, typically lasting a few years, as the aerosols eventually settle out of the atmosphere. Incorrect Solution: b) Volcanic activity significantly influences the climate through the release of aerosols and gases. Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic eruptions emit aerosols, primarily sulfur dioxide, which forms sulfate particles in the atmosphere. These particles reflect solar radiation, leading to temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface. For example, the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in 1991 caused global temperatures to drop for a couple of years. Statement 2 is also correct: While aerosols cool the surface, volcanic eruptions can release gases like water vapor and carbon dioxide into the troposphere, which can trap heat, causing a short-term localized warming effect. Statement 3 is incorrect: The cooling effects of volcanic aerosols are temporary, typically lasting a few years, as the aerosols eventually settle out of the atmosphere.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about volcanic activity and its impact on climate:

• Volcanic eruptions release aerosols that can lead to temporary cooling of the Earth’s atmosphere.

• Ash and gas from eruptions may contribute to a short-term warming effect in the troposphere.

• The cooling effect of volcanic aerosols often lasts for decades.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Volcanic activity significantly influences the climate through the release of aerosols and gases.

• Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic eruptions emit aerosols, primarily sulfur dioxide, which forms sulfate particles in the atmosphere. These particles reflect solar radiation, leading to temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface. For example, the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in 1991 caused global temperatures to drop for a couple of years.

• Statement 2 is also correct: While aerosols cool the surface, volcanic eruptions can release gases like water vapor and carbon dioxide into the troposphere, which can trap heat, causing a short-term localized warming effect.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The cooling effects of volcanic aerosols are temporary, typically lasting a few years, as the aerosols eventually settle out of the atmosphere.

Solution: b)

• Volcanic activity significantly influences the climate through the release of aerosols and gases.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The cooling effects of volcanic aerosols are temporary, typically lasting a few years, as the aerosols eventually settle out of the atmosphere.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a feature of the federal structure of the Indian Constitution? a) The existence of an independent judiciary to resolve Union-state disputes. b) Provisions for amending the Constitution to adapt to changing federal dynamics. c) A strong Union with authority over subjects in the Union List. d) Equal division of powers between the Union and the states. Correct Solution: d) Option a is correct: An independent judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, plays a critical role in resolving disputes between the Union and states (e.g., Article 131). Option b is correct: The Constitution includes provisions for amendments (Article 368) to adapt to changing dynamics in federal relationships, reflecting its flexibility. Option c is correct: The Indian Constitution establishes a strong Union with significant authority over subjects listed in the Union List (e.g., defense, foreign affairs). This is a hallmark of India’s quasi-federal system. Option d is incorrect: Unlike systems with an equal division of powers (e.g., the United States), India’s federal structure is tilted in favor of the Union, particularly during emergencies or under specific circumstances, such as using Article 356. Incorrect Solution: d) Option a is correct: An independent judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, plays a critical role in resolving disputes between the Union and states (e.g., Article 131). Option b is correct: The Constitution includes provisions for amendments (Article 368) to adapt to changing dynamics in federal relationships, reflecting its flexibility. Option c is correct: The Indian Constitution establishes a strong Union with significant authority over subjects listed in the Union List (e.g., defense, foreign affairs). This is a hallmark of India’s quasi-federal system. Option d is incorrect: Unlike systems with an equal division of powers (e.g., the United States), India’s federal structure is tilted in favor of the Union, particularly during emergencies or under specific circumstances, such as using Article 356.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the federal structure of the Indian Constitution?

• a) The existence of an independent judiciary to resolve Union-state disputes.

• b) Provisions for amending the Constitution to adapt to changing federal dynamics.

• c) A strong Union with authority over subjects in the Union List.

• d) Equal division of powers between the Union and the states.

Solution: d)

Option a is correct: An independent judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, plays a critical role in resolving disputes between the Union and states (e.g., Article 131).

Option b is correct: The Constitution includes provisions for amendments (Article 368) to adapt to changing dynamics in federal relationships, reflecting its flexibility.

Option c is correct: The Indian Constitution establishes a strong Union with significant authority over subjects listed in the Union List (e.g., defense, foreign affairs). This is a hallmark of India’s quasi-federal system.

Option d is incorrect: Unlike systems with an equal division of powers (e.g., the United States), India’s federal structure is tilted in favor of the Union, particularly during emergencies or under specific circumstances, such as using Article 356.

Solution: d)

Option a is correct: An independent judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, plays a critical role in resolving disputes between the Union and states (e.g., Article 131).

Option b is correct: The Constitution includes provisions for amendments (Article 368) to adapt to changing dynamics in federal relationships, reflecting its flexibility.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about diabetes: Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition that destroys insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Type 2 Diabetes is more common than Type 1 Diabetes. Both Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes can cause long-term complications like neuropathy and retinopathy. Insulin therapy is mandatory for managing Type 2 Diabetes. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to little or no insulin production. Statement 2 is correct: Type 2 Diabetes is far more common than Type 1 Diabetes. It accounts for approximately 90-95% of all diabetes cases worldwide, whereas Type 1 is less common. Statement 3 is correct: Both Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes can cause long-term complications, such as neuropathy (nerve damage), retinopathy (eye damage), nephropathy (kidney damage), and cardiovascular diseases, if not managed properly. Statement 4 is incorrect: Insulin therapy is not mandatory for Type 2 Diabetes. It is often managed with oral medications, lifestyle changes, and dietary modifications. Insulin may be prescribed in advanced cases or when oral therapies fail. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to little or no insulin production. Statement 2 is correct: Type 2 Diabetes is far more common than Type 1 Diabetes. It accounts for approximately 90-95% of all diabetes cases worldwide, whereas Type 1 is less common. Statement 3 is correct: Both Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes can cause long-term complications, such as neuropathy (nerve damage), retinopathy (eye damage), nephropathy (kidney damage), and cardiovascular diseases, if not managed properly. Statement 4 is incorrect: Insulin therapy is not mandatory for Type 2 Diabetes. It is often managed with oral medications, lifestyle changes, and dietary modifications. Insulin may be prescribed in advanced cases or when oral therapies fail.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about diabetes:

• Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition that destroys insulin-producing cells in the pancreas.

• Type 2 Diabetes is more common than Type 1 Diabetes.

• Both Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes can cause long-term complications like neuropathy and retinopathy.

• Insulin therapy is mandatory for managing Type 2 Diabetes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to little or no insulin production.

Statement 2 is correct: Type 2 Diabetes is far more common than Type 1 Diabetes. It accounts for approximately 90-95% of all diabetes cases worldwide, whereas Type 1 is less common.

Statement 3 is correct: Both Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes can cause long-term complications, such as neuropathy (nerve damage), retinopathy (eye damage), nephropathy (kidney damage), and cardiovascular diseases, if not managed properly.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Insulin therapy is not mandatory for Type 2 Diabetes. It is often managed with oral medications, lifestyle changes, and dietary modifications. Insulin may be prescribed in advanced cases or when oral therapies fail.

Solution: c)

Statement 2 is correct: Type 2 Diabetes is far more common than Type 1 Diabetes. It accounts for approximately 90-95% of all diabetes cases worldwide, whereas Type 1 is less common.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement-I: Gestational diabetes occurs in pregnant women and usually resolves after childbirth. Statement-II: Gestational diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to hormonal changes during pregnancy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Gestational diabetes arises during pregnancy when hormonal changes cause insulin resistance, impairing the body’s ability to regulate blood glucose levels. It typically resolves after childbirth as hormone levels normalize. Statement-I correctly identifies the condition, and Statement-II provides an accurate explanation, linking the hormonal changes during pregnancy to the onset of insulin resistance. Incorrect Solution: a) Gestational diabetes arises during pregnancy when hormonal changes cause insulin resistance, impairing the body’s ability to regulate blood glucose levels. It typically resolves after childbirth as hormone levels normalize. Statement-I correctly identifies the condition, and Statement-II provides an accurate explanation, linking the hormonal changes during pregnancy to the onset of insulin resistance.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

Statement-I: Gestational diabetes occurs in pregnant women and usually resolves after childbirth. Statement-II: Gestational diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to hormonal changes during pregnancy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Gestational diabetes arises during pregnancy when hormonal changes cause insulin resistance, impairing the body’s ability to regulate blood glucose levels. It typically resolves after childbirth as hormone levels normalize. Statement-I correctly identifies the condition, and Statement-II provides an accurate explanation, linking the hormonal changes during pregnancy to the onset of insulin resistance.

Solution: a)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the International Maritime Organization (IMO): The IMO is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. India was one of the founding members of the IMO. The IMO creates a regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues such as liability and international maritime traffic facilitation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 2 is incorrect. About International Maritime Organization (IMO): The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948 and operational since 1958, the IMO has 175 member states and three associate members, with headquarters in London. India joined in 1959. The IMO creates a fair, effective regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues like liability and international maritime traffic facilitation. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 2 is incorrect. About International Maritime Organization (IMO): The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948 and operational since 1958, the IMO has 175 member states and three associate members, with headquarters in London. India joined in 1959. The IMO creates a fair, effective regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues like liability and international maritime traffic facilitation.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the International Maritime Organization (IMO):

• The IMO is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships.

• India was one of the founding members of the IMO.

• The IMO creates a regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues such as liability and international maritime traffic facilitation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

About International Maritime Organization (IMO):

• The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships.

• Established in 1948 and operational since 1958, the IMO has 175 member states and three associate members, with headquarters in London.

• India joined in 1959.

• The IMO creates a fair, effective regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues like liability and international maritime traffic facilitation.

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

About International Maritime Organization (IMO):

• The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialized UN agency focused on regulating shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships.

• Established in 1948 and operational since 1958, the IMO has 175 member states and three associate members, with headquarters in London.

• India joined in 1959.

• The IMO creates a fair, effective regulatory framework for the shipping industry and addresses legal issues like liability and international maritime traffic facilitation.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding sea groynes: Sea groynes are always built parallel to the shoreline to facilitate sediment accumulation along the coast. The construction of sea groynes can lead to sediment buildup on the updrift side, while potentially causing erosion on the downdrift side. Sea groynes are primarily constructed to increase the salinity of coastal waters, benefiting marine biodiversity. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea groynes are built perpendicular, not parallel, to the shoreline to effectively trap sand and sediment carried by littoral currents. Statement 2 is correct: The construction of sea groynes typically results in sediment accumulation on the updrift side, which can stabilize the beach, but it may also cause increased erosion on the downdrift side due to a reduced supply of sediment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary purpose of sea groynes is not related to increasing salinity but to reduce coastal erosion by managing sediment transport. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea groynes are built perpendicular, not parallel, to the shoreline to effectively trap sand and sediment carried by littoral currents. Statement 2 is correct: The construction of sea groynes typically results in sediment accumulation on the updrift side, which can stabilize the beach, but it may also cause increased erosion on the downdrift side due to a reduced supply of sediment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary purpose of sea groynes is not related to increasing salinity but to reduce coastal erosion by managing sediment transport.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding sea groynes:

• Sea groynes are always built parallel to the shoreline to facilitate sediment accumulation along the coast.

• The construction of sea groynes can lead to sediment buildup on the updrift side, while potentially causing erosion on the downdrift side.

• Sea groynes are primarily constructed to increase the salinity of coastal waters, benefiting marine biodiversity.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea groynes are built perpendicular, not parallel, to the shoreline to effectively trap sand and sediment carried by littoral currents.

• Statement 2 is correct: The construction of sea groynes typically results in sediment accumulation on the updrift side, which can stabilize the beach, but it may also cause increased erosion on the downdrift side due to a reduced supply of sediment.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary purpose of sea groynes is not related to increasing salinity but to reduce coastal erosion by managing sediment transport.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea groynes are built perpendicular, not parallel, to the shoreline to effectively trap sand and sediment carried by littoral currents.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary purpose of sea groynes is not related to increasing salinity but to reduce coastal erosion by managing sediment transport.

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