UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 16 September 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Manki-Munda system: The system was a pre-colonial governance model with formal provisions for land tax and revenue collection. Captain Thomas Wilkinson codified the system, integrating it into the British colonial administration while preserving a degree of its autonomy. The roles of both Manki (head of a cluster of villages) and Munda (village head) are traditionally hereditary. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Manki-Munda system, in its original form before British intervention, was a community-driven socio-political governance structure. It did not have the concept of land tax or revenue collection for an external sovereign. Its primary function was internal dispute resolution and maintaining social order based on customary laws of the Ho tribe. Statement 2 is correct. After facing resistance through the Ho and Kol revolts, the British administration realized the unsustainability of direct control. Captain Thomas Wilkinson codified the customary laws into “Wilkinson’s Rules” in 1833. This move was a strategic integration of the traditional system into the colonial administrative framework, making Mankis and Mundas intermediaries. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Manki-Munda system is its hereditary leadership structure. The roles of the Munda (village head) and the Manki (head of a cluster of villages) are traditionally passed down from father to son, which has been a point of discussion in modern times regarding its compatibility with democratic principles. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Manki-Munda system, in its original form before British intervention, was a community-driven socio-political governance structure. It did not have the concept of land tax or revenue collection for an external sovereign. Its primary function was internal dispute resolution and maintaining social order based on customary laws of the Ho tribe. Statement 2 is correct. After facing resistance through the Ho and Kol revolts, the British administration realized the unsustainability of direct control. Captain Thomas Wilkinson codified the customary laws into “Wilkinson’s Rules” in 1833. This move was a strategic integration of the traditional system into the colonial administrative framework, making Mankis and Mundas intermediaries. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Manki-Munda system is its hereditary leadership structure. The roles of the Munda (village head) and the Manki (head of a cluster of villages) are traditionally passed down from father to son, which has been a point of discussion in modern times regarding its compatibility with democratic principles.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Manki-Munda system:

• The system was a pre-colonial governance model with formal provisions for land tax and revenue collection.

• Captain Thomas Wilkinson codified the system, integrating it into the British colonial administration while preserving a degree of its autonomy.

• The roles of both Manki (head of a cluster of villages) and Munda (village head) are traditionally hereditary.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Manki-Munda system, in its original form before British intervention, was a community-driven socio-political governance structure. It did not have the concept of land tax or revenue collection for an external sovereign. Its primary function was internal dispute resolution and maintaining social order based on customary laws of the Ho tribe.

• Statement 2 is correct. After facing resistance through the Ho and Kol revolts, the British administration realized the unsustainability of direct control. Captain Thomas Wilkinson codified the customary laws into “Wilkinson’s Rules” in 1833. This move was a strategic integration of the traditional system into the colonial administrative framework, making Mankis and Mundas intermediaries.

Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Manki-Munda system is its hereditary leadership structure. The roles of the Munda (village head) and the Manki (head of a cluster of villages) are traditionally passed down from father to son, which has been a point of discussion in modern times regarding its compatibility with democratic principles.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Supreme Court guidelines on DNA evidence handling, consider the following statements: The guidelines mandate the transportation of DNA samples to a Forensic Science Laboratory within 24 hours of collection. The chain of custody register must be maintained only until the submission of the report to the trial court. The guidelines were issued in response to a lack of uniformity in handling DNA evidence across different states. Opening or altering a sealed DNA sample package requires explicit permission from the investigating officer. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court’s guideline specifies a 48-hour rule for transporting DNA samples to the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL), not 24 hours. Any delay beyond this period must be justified in writing. Statement 2 is incorrect. The chain of custody register is a critical document that must track the sample from the moment of collection until the logical conclusion of the case, which includes conviction or acquittal and any subsequent appeals, not just until the report is submitted. Statement 3 is correct. The primary impetus for these guidelines was the significant inconsistency observed in the procedures for collecting, storing, and presenting DNA evidence across various states. Since policing is a State subject, this led to disparities that could compromise the integrity of evidence, necessitating a uniform standard set by the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. Once a DNA sample is sealed, the integrity of the package is paramount. The guidelines strictly state that the package cannot be opened, altered, or resealed without explicit permission from the trial court, not the investigating officer. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court’s guideline specifies a 48-hour rule for transporting DNA samples to the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL), not 24 hours. Any delay beyond this period must be justified in writing. Statement 2 is incorrect. The chain of custody register is a critical document that must track the sample from the moment of collection until the logical conclusion of the case, which includes conviction or acquittal and any subsequent appeals, not just until the report is submitted. Statement 3 is correct. The primary impetus for these guidelines was the significant inconsistency observed in the procedures for collecting, storing, and presenting DNA evidence across various states. Since policing is a State subject, this led to disparities that could compromise the integrity of evidence, necessitating a uniform standard set by the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. Once a DNA sample is sealed, the integrity of the package is paramount. The guidelines strictly state that the package cannot be opened, altered, or resealed without explicit permission from the trial court, not the investigating officer.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Supreme Court guidelines on DNA evidence handling, consider the following statements:

• The guidelines mandate the transportation of DNA samples to a Forensic Science Laboratory within 24 hours of collection.

• The chain of custody register must be maintained only until the submission of the report to the trial court.

• The guidelines were issued in response to a lack of uniformity in handling DNA evidence across different states.

• Opening or altering a sealed DNA sample package requires explicit permission from the investigating officer.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court’s guideline specifies a 48-hour rule for transporting DNA samples to the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL), not 24 hours. Any delay beyond this period must be justified in writing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The chain of custody register is a critical document that must track the sample from the moment of collection until the logical conclusion of the case, which includes conviction or acquittal and any subsequent appeals, not just until the report is submitted.

• Statement 3 is correct. The primary impetus for these guidelines was the significant inconsistency observed in the procedures for collecting, storing, and presenting DNA evidence across various states. Since policing is a State subject, this led to disparities that could compromise the integrity of evidence, necessitating a uniform standard set by the Supreme Court.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Once a DNA sample is sealed, the integrity of the package is paramount. The guidelines strictly state that the package cannot be opened, altered, or resealed without explicit permission from the trial court, not the investigating officer.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Eustoma flower: It is a tropical flower native to the grasslands of Southeast Asia. The successful cultivation in Sambalpur, Odisha was achieved in an open-field environment without protective structures. Its economic potential stems from a short vase life, requiring rapid local consumption. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Eustoma, also known as Lisianthus, is native to the warm regions of the Americas, including Mexico, the southern USA, the Caribbean, and northern South America, not Southeast Asia. It typically grows in grasslands and disturbed areas in its native habitat. Statement 2 is incorrect. The successful cultivation of Eustoma for the first time in Odisha was achieved in a controlled environment, specifically a polyhouse, at Sanatanpali in the Sambalpur district. This structure helps manage temperature, humidity, and other climatic factors, which is crucial for growing an exotic flower. Statement 3 is incorrect. The economic viability and high demand for Eustoma are largely due to its long vase life, often lasting for more than two weeks. This characteristic makes it highly prized in the cut flower industry for bouquets, events, and luxury decor, and also suitable for export, contrary to the suggestion of a short shelf life. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Eustoma, also known as Lisianthus, is native to the warm regions of the Americas, including Mexico, the southern USA, the Caribbean, and northern South America, not Southeast Asia. It typically grows in grasslands and disturbed areas in its native habitat. Statement 2 is incorrect. The successful cultivation of Eustoma for the first time in Odisha was achieved in a controlled environment, specifically a polyhouse, at Sanatanpali in the Sambalpur district. This structure helps manage temperature, humidity, and other climatic factors, which is crucial for growing an exotic flower. Statement 3 is incorrect. The economic viability and high demand for Eustoma are largely due to its long vase life, often lasting for more than two weeks. This characteristic makes it highly prized in the cut flower industry for bouquets, events, and luxury decor, and also suitable for export, contrary to the suggestion of a short shelf life.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Eustoma flower:

• It is a tropical flower native to the grasslands of Southeast Asia.

• The successful cultivation in Sambalpur, Odisha was achieved in an open-field environment without protective structures.

• Its economic potential stems from a short vase life, requiring rapid local consumption.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Eustoma, also known as Lisianthus, is native to the warm regions of the Americas, including Mexico, the southern USA, the Caribbean, and northern South America, not Southeast Asia. It typically grows in grasslands and disturbed areas in its native habitat.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The successful cultivation of Eustoma for the first time in Odisha was achieved in a controlled environment, specifically a polyhouse, at Sanatanpali in the Sambalpur district. This structure helps manage temperature, humidity, and other climatic factors, which is crucial for growing an exotic flower.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The economic viability and high demand for Eustoma are largely due to its long vase life, often lasting for more than two weeks. This characteristic makes it highly prized in the cut flower industry for bouquets, events, and luxury decor, and also suitable for export, contrary to the suggestion of a short shelf life.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the bamboo-based ethanol plant in Assam: The plant utilizes 1G (first-generation) bio-refinery technology, primarily using bamboo sap. It is a joint venture between the Assam government and a private international corporation. The project’s primary goal is to achieve 50% ethanol blending in petrol by 2030. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The plant uses advanced 2G (second-generation) bio-refinery technology. This technology is crucial as it allows the conversion of lignocellulosic biomass (like bamboo fibre) into ethanol through processes like enzymatic hydrolysis, which is more complex than 1G technology that uses sugars or starches. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plant is developed by Assam Bio-Ethanol Private Limited (ABEL), which is a collaboration involving Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is not a venture with a private international corporation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The plant is a part of India’s Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP), but the national target is to achieve 20% ethanol blending in petrol by the year 2025, not 50% by 2030. The plant’s output will contribute to this more immediate and specific national goal. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The plant uses advanced 2G (second-generation) bio-refinery technology. This technology is crucial as it allows the conversion of lignocellulosic biomass (like bamboo fibre) into ethanol through processes like enzymatic hydrolysis, which is more complex than 1G technology that uses sugars or starches. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plant is developed by Assam Bio-Ethanol Private Limited (ABEL), which is a collaboration involving Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is not a venture with a private international corporation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The plant is a part of India’s Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP), but the national target is to achieve 20% ethanol blending in petrol by the year 2025, not 50% by 2030. The plant’s output will contribute to this more immediate and specific national goal.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the bamboo-based ethanol plant in Assam:

• The plant utilizes 1G (first-generation) bio-refinery technology, primarily using bamboo sap.

• It is a joint venture between the Assam government and a private international corporation.

• The project’s primary goal is to achieve 50% ethanol blending in petrol by 2030.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The plant uses advanced 2G (second-generation) bio-refinery technology. This technology is crucial as it allows the conversion of lignocellulosic biomass (like bamboo fibre) into ethanol through processes like enzymatic hydrolysis, which is more complex than 1G technology that uses sugars or starches.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The plant is developed by Assam Bio-Ethanol Private Limited (ABEL), which is a collaboration involving Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is not a venture with a private international corporation.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The plant is a part of India’s Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP), but the national target is to achieve 20% ethanol blending in petrol by the year 2025, not 50% by 2030. The plant’s output will contribute to this more immediate and specific national goal.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The concept of a “grey rhino event” is most useful in the context of public policy for: a) Responding to rare and completely unpredictable catastrophic events. b) Allocating resources for events that have a very low probability of occurrence but would have a massive impact. c) Prioritizing and acting on known, high-impact threats that are often ignored due to complacency or other interests. d) Managing financial market volatility caused by unknown variables. Correct Solution: C The core idea behind the “grey rhino” concept, as developed by Michele Wucker, is to draw attention to obvious dangers that we fail to address. Unlike “black swan events” which are unpredictable (a) and (b), grey rhinos are foreseeable. The term is a metaphor for a large, visible threat charging towards us that we inexplicably ignore. In public policy, this framework is crucial for risk governance and disaster preparedness. It urges policymakers to move beyond crisis response and proactively tackle well-documented, high-probability threats—such as climate change impacts, ecological fragility in sensitive zones, or public health vulnerabilities—before they escalate into full-blown crises. It is about overcoming the inertia and complacency that often prevent action on predictable problems. Incorrect Solution: C The core idea behind the “grey rhino” concept, as developed by Michele Wucker, is to draw attention to obvious dangers that we fail to address. Unlike “black swan events” which are unpredictable (a) and (b), grey rhinos are foreseeable. The term is a metaphor for a large, visible threat charging towards us that we inexplicably ignore. In public policy, this framework is crucial for risk governance and disaster preparedness. It urges policymakers to move beyond crisis response and proactively tackle well-documented, high-probability threats—such as climate change impacts, ecological fragility in sensitive zones, or public health vulnerabilities—before they escalate into full-blown crises. It is about overcoming the inertia and complacency that often prevent action on predictable problems.

#### 5. Question

The concept of a “grey rhino event” is most useful in the context of public policy for:

• a) Responding to rare and completely unpredictable catastrophic events.

• b) Allocating resources for events that have a very low probability of occurrence but would have a massive impact.

• c) Prioritizing and acting on known, high-impact threats that are often ignored due to complacency or other interests.

• d) Managing financial market volatility caused by unknown variables.

Solution: C

• The core idea behind the “grey rhino” concept, as developed by Michele Wucker, is to draw attention to obvious dangers that we fail to address. Unlike “black swan events” which are unpredictable (a) and (b), grey rhinos are foreseeable.

The term is a metaphor for a large, visible threat charging towards us that we inexplicably ignore. In public policy, this framework is crucial for risk governance and disaster preparedness. It urges policymakers to move beyond crisis response and proactively tackle well-documented, high-probability threats—such as climate change impacts, ecological fragility in sensitive zones, or public health vulnerabilities—before they escalate into full-blown crises. It is about overcoming the inertia and complacency that often prevent action on predictable problems.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Eustoma Flower: Statement-I: The successful cultivation of Eustoma in India by CSIR-NBRI can reduce the country’s reliance on imported ornamental flowers. Statement-II: Eustoma has a high economic potential for Indian farmers due to its adaptability to warm climates and the possibility of multiple harvests per year. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I correctly identifies a major implication of the local cultivation of Eustoma. Before this breakthrough, high-end demand for this flower was met through imports from countries like the Netherlands and Kenya. Domestic production provides a direct substitute, thereby reducing import dependency and saving foreign exchange. Statement-II explains why this shift to domestic production is feasible and beneficial, thus providing the reason for the outcome in Statement-I. The flower’s adaptability to warm Indian conditions (as demonstrated in Sambalpur) and its high yield (harvestable twice a year) make it an economically attractive crop for farmers. This high economic potential incentivizes local cultivation, which in turn leads to import substitution. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I correctly identifies a major implication of the local cultivation of Eustoma. Before this breakthrough, high-end demand for this flower was met through imports from countries like the Netherlands and Kenya. Domestic production provides a direct substitute, thereby reducing import dependency and saving foreign exchange. Statement-II explains why this shift to domestic production is feasible and beneficial, thus providing the reason for the outcome in Statement-I. The flower’s adaptability to warm Indian conditions (as demonstrated in Sambalpur) and its high yield (harvestable twice a year) make it an economically attractive crop for farmers. This high economic potential incentivizes local cultivation, which in turn leads to import substitution.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Eustoma Flower:

Statement-I: The successful cultivation of Eustoma in India by CSIR-NBRI can reduce the country’s reliance on imported ornamental flowers.

Statement-II: Eustoma has a high economic potential for Indian farmers due to its adaptability to warm climates and the possibility of multiple harvests per year.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I correctly identifies a major implication of the local cultivation of Eustoma. Before this breakthrough, high-end demand for this flower was met through imports from countries like the Netherlands and Kenya. Domestic production provides a direct substitute, thereby reducing import dependency and saving foreign exchange.

Statement-II explains why this shift to domestic production is feasible and beneficial, thus providing the reason for the outcome in Statement-I. The flower’s adaptability to warm Indian conditions (as demonstrated in Sambalpur) and its high yield (harvestable twice a year) make it an economically attractive crop for farmers. This high economic potential incentivizes local cultivation, which in turn leads to import substitution.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025: Statement-I: The DPM 2025 aims to enhance the operational readiness of the Armed Forces by decentralizing financial powers. Statement-II: The manual empowers Competent Financial Authorities (CFAs) at the field level to make decisions on extending delivery periods and approving cases without routing files to higher headquarters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I states the overall objective of DPM 2025, which is to improve military preparedness. A key factor in readiness is the timely availability of equipment, spares, and services. Delays in procurement directly impact this. Statement-II provides the specific mechanism through which this objective is achieved. By decentralizing decision-making and empowering CFAs at lower formations to handle routine matters like delivery period extensions, the manual cuts down on bureaucratic delays (“red tape”) and avoids the slow movement of files. This empowerment leads to faster decision-making and quicker procurement, which directly contributes to the enhanced operational readiness mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I states the overall objective of DPM 2025, which is to improve military preparedness. A key factor in readiness is the timely availability of equipment, spares, and services. Delays in procurement directly impact this. Statement-II provides the specific mechanism through which this objective is achieved. By decentralizing decision-making and empowering CFAs at lower formations to handle routine matters like delivery period extensions, the manual cuts down on bureaucratic delays (“red tape”) and avoids the slow movement of files. This empowerment leads to faster decision-making and quicker procurement, which directly contributes to the enhanced operational readiness mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025:

Statement-I: The DPM 2025 aims to enhance the operational readiness of the Armed Forces by decentralizing financial powers.

Statement-II: The manual empowers Competent Financial Authorities (CFAs) at the field level to make decisions on extending delivery periods and approving cases without routing files to higher headquarters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I states the overall objective of DPM 2025, which is to improve military preparedness. A key factor in readiness is the timely availability of equipment, spares, and services. Delays in procurement directly impact this.

Statement-II provides the specific mechanism through which this objective is achieved. By decentralizing decision-making and empowering CFAs at lower formations to handle routine matters like delivery period extensions, the manual cuts down on bureaucratic delays (“red tape”) and avoids the slow movement of files. This empowerment leads to faster decision-making and quicker procurement, which directly contributes to the enhanced operational readiness mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Greece: It shares a land border with Italy. It possesses the longest coastline on the Mediterranean Sea among all Mediterranean countries. The capital city, Athens, is located on the Peloponnese peninsula. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Greece shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, Bulgaria, and Turkey. Its western border is with the Ionian Sea; it does not share a land border with Italy. Statement 2 is correct. Due to its thousands of islands and deeply indented mainland, Greece has a remarkably long coastline. At approximately 13,676 kilometers, it is the longest in the Mediterranean Basin and one of the longest in the world. Statement 3 is incorrect. Athens is located on the Attica peninsula, not the Peloponnese peninsula. The Peloponnese is the large peninsula to the south of the Gulf of Corinth. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Greece shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, Bulgaria, and Turkey. Its western border is with the Ionian Sea; it does not share a land border with Italy. Statement 2 is correct. Due to its thousands of islands and deeply indented mainland, Greece has a remarkably long coastline. At approximately 13,676 kilometers, it is the longest in the Mediterranean Basin and one of the longest in the world. Statement 3 is incorrect. Athens is located on the Attica peninsula, not the Peloponnese peninsula. The Peloponnese is the large peninsula to the south of the Gulf of Corinth.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Greece:

• It shares a land border with Italy.

• It possesses the longest coastline on the Mediterranean Sea among all Mediterranean countries.

• The capital city, Athens, is located on the Peloponnese peninsula.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Greece shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, Bulgaria, and Turkey. Its western border is with the Ionian Sea; it does not share a land border with Italy.

• Statement 2 is correct. Due to its thousands of islands and deeply indented mainland, Greece has a remarkably long coastline. At approximately 13,676 kilometers, it is the longest in the Mediterranean Basin and one of the longest in the world.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Athens is located on the Attica peninsula, not the Peloponnese peninsula. The Peloponnese is the large peninsula to the south of the Gulf of Corinth.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect. Athens is located on the Attica peninsula, not the Peloponnese peninsula. The Peloponnese is the large peninsula to the south of the Gulf of Corinth.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following countries does NOT share a border with Sudan? (a) Chad (b) Ethiopia (c) Somalia (d) Libya Correct Solution: C Sudan shares borders with seven countries: Egypt, Libya, Chad, the Central African Republic, South Sudan, Ethiopia, and Eritrea. Somalia does not share a border with Sudan. Incorrect Solution: C Sudan shares borders with seven countries: Egypt, Libya, Chad, the Central African Republic, South Sudan, Ethiopia, and Eritrea. Somalia does not share a border with Sudan.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following countries does NOT share a border with Sudan?

• (b) Ethiopia

• (c) Somalia

Solution: C

Sudan shares borders with seven countries: Egypt, Libya, Chad, the Central African Republic, South Sudan, Ethiopia, and Eritrea. Somalia does not share a border with Sudan.

Solution: C

Sudan shares borders with seven countries: Egypt, Libya, Chad, the Central African Republic, South Sudan, Ethiopia, and Eritrea. Somalia does not share a border with Sudan.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With regard to the voting procedure in the GST Council, consider the following statements: The Union Government has one-third of the total voting power. All the State Governments combined have two-thirds of the total voting power. A decision is passed if it is supported by at least 50% of the weighted votes. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The voting structure of the GST Council is a unique feature of Indian federalism, designed to foster consensus between the Centre and the States. Statement 1 is correct. The Union Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in the GST Council. Statement 2 is correct. All the State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast. Statement 3 is incorrect. A decision in the GST Council requires the support of at least three-fourths (75%) of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, not a simple majority of 50%. Incorrect Solution: B The voting structure of the GST Council is a unique feature of Indian federalism, designed to foster consensus between the Centre and the States. Statement 1 is correct. The Union Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in the GST Council. Statement 2 is correct. All the State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast. Statement 3 is incorrect. A decision in the GST Council requires the support of at least three-fourths (75%) of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, not a simple majority of 50%.

#### 10. Question

With regard to the voting procedure in the GST Council, consider the following statements:

• The Union Government has one-third of the total voting power.

• All the State Governments combined have two-thirds of the total voting power.

• A decision is passed if it is supported by at least 50% of the weighted votes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The voting structure of the GST Council is a unique feature of Indian federalism, designed to foster consensus between the Centre and the States.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Union Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in the GST Council.

• Statement 2 is correct. All the State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. A decision in the GST Council requires the support of at least three-fourths (75%) of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, not a simple majority of 50%.

Solution: B

The voting structure of the GST Council is a unique feature of Indian federalism, designed to foster consensus between the Centre and the States.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Union Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in the GST Council.

• Statement 2 is correct. All the State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast.

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