UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 16 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Crew Escape System (CES) developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan mission, consider the following statements: The CES is a ‘pusher type’ system that uses liquid-fuel engines to propel the crew module away from the launch vehicle. The system is activated by the Integrated Vehicle Health Management (IVHM) system upon detection of an in-flight anomaly. Its primary function is to pull the crew module to a safe altitude and distance, followed by a controlled parachute-assisted sea splashdown. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan mission is a ‘puller type’ It is positioned at the forward end of the LVM3 rocket and utilizes a series of high-burn solid motors to rapidly pull the crew module away from the launch vehicle in case of an emergency. This design is similar to the escape systems used in the Russian Soyuz and the American Apollo (Saturn V) missions. The ‘pusher type’ system, which uses liquid-fuel engines integrated into the capsule to push it away, is notably employed by companies like SpaceX for their Falcon 9 rocket. Statement 2 is correct. The activation of the CES is a highly automated and rapid process. The Integrated Vehicle Health Management (IVHM) system continuously monitors the launch vehicle’s parameters. If it detects any critical anomaly that could lead to a catastrophic failure, it automatically triggers the CES to initiate the abort sequence, ensuring the crew’s safety without manual intervention. Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the CES is astronaut survival during the riskiest phases of flight, such as lift-off and ascent. Upon activation, it pulls the crew module away from the malfunctioning rocket at a high acceleration. Once at a safe distance and altitude, a sequence of multi-stage parachutes is deployed to slow down the module’s descent, ensuring a controlled and safe splashdown in the sea. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan mission is a ‘puller type’ It is positioned at the forward end of the LVM3 rocket and utilizes a series of high-burn solid motors to rapidly pull the crew module away from the launch vehicle in case of an emergency. This design is similar to the escape systems used in the Russian Soyuz and the American Apollo (Saturn V) missions. The ‘pusher type’ system, which uses liquid-fuel engines integrated into the capsule to push it away, is notably employed by companies like SpaceX for their Falcon 9 rocket. Statement 2 is correct. The activation of the CES is a highly automated and rapid process. The Integrated Vehicle Health Management (IVHM) system continuously monitors the launch vehicle’s parameters. If it detects any critical anomaly that could lead to a catastrophic failure, it automatically triggers the CES to initiate the abort sequence, ensuring the crew’s safety without manual intervention. Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the CES is astronaut survival during the riskiest phases of flight, such as lift-off and ascent. Upon activation, it pulls the crew module away from the malfunctioning rocket at a high acceleration. Once at a safe distance and altitude, a sequence of multi-stage parachutes is deployed to slow down the module’s descent, ensuring a controlled and safe splashdown in the sea.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Crew Escape System (CES) developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan mission, consider the following statements:

• The CES is a ‘pusher type’ system that uses liquid-fuel engines to propel the crew module away from the launch vehicle.

• The system is activated by the Integrated Vehicle Health Management (IVHM) system upon detection of an in-flight anomaly.

• Its primary function is to pull the crew module to a safe altitude and distance, followed by a controlled parachute-assisted sea splashdown.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan mission is a ‘puller type’ It is positioned at the forward end of the LVM3 rocket and utilizes a series of high-burn solid motors to rapidly pull the crew module away from the launch vehicle in case of an emergency. This design is similar to the escape systems used in the Russian Soyuz and the American Apollo (Saturn V) missions. The ‘pusher type’ system, which uses liquid-fuel engines integrated into the capsule to push it away, is notably employed by companies like SpaceX for their Falcon 9 rocket.

• Statement 2 is correct. The activation of the CES is a highly automated and rapid process. The Integrated Vehicle Health Management (IVHM) system continuously monitors the launch vehicle’s parameters. If it detects any critical anomaly that could lead to a catastrophic failure, it automatically triggers the CES to initiate the abort sequence, ensuring the crew’s safety without manual intervention.

• Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the CES is astronaut survival during the riskiest phases of flight, such as lift-off and ascent. Upon activation, it pulls the crew module away from the malfunctioning rocket at a high acceleration. Once at a safe distance and altitude, a sequence of multi-stage parachutes is deployed to slow down the module’s descent, ensuring a controlled and safe splashdown in the sea.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the EPF New Withdrawal Rules, 2025: The new framework merges multiple withdrawal purposes into three core categories: Essential Needs, Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances. A new provision mandates that members must retain a minimum of 50% of their total EPF corpus to ensure long-term retirement security. The minimum service period required for withdrawals related to housing purposes has been reduced to 12 months. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The EPF New Withdrawal Rules, 2025, aim to simplify the withdrawal process. A significant reform is the consolidation of 13 different withdrawal purposes into three broad, simplified categories: Essential Needs (covering illness, education, marriage), Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances. This streamlining is designed to reduce complexity and make it easier for subscribers to understand their eligibility and apply for withdrawals without navigating a maze of specific conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect. While a new minimum balance rule has been introduced to balance liquidity with long-term savings, it requires members to retain 25% of their EPF corpus, not 50%. The purpose of this rule is to preserve a portion of the savings to benefit from the power of compounding and to ensure that a foundational amount for retirement is protected, even as members access funds for immediate needs. Statement 3 is correct. To enhance accessibility and provide timely financial support, the reforms have relaxed the service tenure requirements. The minimum service period for making withdrawals for housing-related purposes has been significantly reduced to just 12 months. Similarly, the tenure for withdrawals for marriage or education has been lowered to 7 years, making funds more accessible to members earlier in their careers. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The EPF New Withdrawal Rules, 2025, aim to simplify the withdrawal process. A significant reform is the consolidation of 13 different withdrawal purposes into three broad, simplified categories: Essential Needs (covering illness, education, marriage), Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances. This streamlining is designed to reduce complexity and make it easier for subscribers to understand their eligibility and apply for withdrawals without navigating a maze of specific conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect. While a new minimum balance rule has been introduced to balance liquidity with long-term savings, it requires members to retain 25% of their EPF corpus, not 50%. The purpose of this rule is to preserve a portion of the savings to benefit from the power of compounding and to ensure that a foundational amount for retirement is protected, even as members access funds for immediate needs. Statement 3 is correct. To enhance accessibility and provide timely financial support, the reforms have relaxed the service tenure requirements. The minimum service period for making withdrawals for housing-related purposes has been significantly reduced to just 12 months. Similarly, the tenure for withdrawals for marriage or education has been lowered to 7 years, making funds more accessible to members earlier in their careers.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the EPF New Withdrawal Rules, 2025:

• The new framework merges multiple withdrawal purposes into three core categories: Essential Needs, Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances.

• A new provision mandates that members must retain a minimum of 50% of their total EPF corpus to ensure long-term retirement security.

• The minimum service period required for withdrawals related to housing purposes has been reduced to 12 months.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The EPF New Withdrawal Rules, 2025, aim to simplify the withdrawal process. A significant reform is the consolidation of 13 different withdrawal purposes into three broad, simplified categories: Essential Needs (covering illness, education, marriage), Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances. This streamlining is designed to reduce complexity and make it easier for subscribers to understand their eligibility and apply for withdrawals without navigating a maze of specific conditions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While a new minimum balance rule has been introduced to balance liquidity with long-term savings, it requires members to retain 25% of their EPF corpus, not 50%. The purpose of this rule is to preserve a portion of the savings to benefit from the power of compounding and to ensure that a foundational amount for retirement is protected, even as members access funds for immediate needs.

• Statement 3 is correct. To enhance accessibility and provide timely financial support, the reforms have relaxed the service tenure requirements. The minimum service period for making withdrawals for housing-related purposes has been significantly reduced to just 12 months. Similarly, the tenure for withdrawals for marriage or education has been lowered to 7 years, making funds more accessible to members earlier in their careers.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC): The UNHRC was established by the UN General Assembly, replacing the former UN Commission on Human Rights. The Member States are elected by the members of the UN Security Council through a secret ballot. A Member State is eligible to serve a maximum of two consecutive three-year terms on the Council. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a key mechanism of the Council used to assess the human rights records of all UN Member States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The UNHRC was created by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) via Resolution 60/251 in 2006. It was formed to replace the UN Commission on Human Rights, which had faced criticism for its politicisation and perceived ineffectiveness. The new council was designed to have a stronger institutional framework for promoting and protecting human rights globally. Statement 2 is incorrect. The UNHRC have 47 Member States, they are elected directly by the UN General Assembly, not the UN Security Council. The election is conducted via a secret ballot, and candidates need a majority of votes from the members of the General Assembly to secure a seat. Statement 3 is correct. The tenure for a member on the UNHRC is three years. To prevent indefinite dominance by certain states, a member can serve for a maximum of two consecutive terms. After serving two terms, a state must step down and is not immediately eligible for re-election. Statement 4 is correct. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a unique and vital process of the UNHRC. Under this mechanism, the human rights performance of every UN Member State is reviewed every four to five years. This process ensures that all countries are held to the same standard and encourages them to improve their human rights situations through a cooperative, state-driven process. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The UNHRC was created by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) via Resolution 60/251 in 2006. It was formed to replace the UN Commission on Human Rights, which had faced criticism for its politicisation and perceived ineffectiveness. The new council was designed to have a stronger institutional framework for promoting and protecting human rights globally. Statement 2 is incorrect. The UNHRC have 47 Member States, they are elected directly by the UN General Assembly, not the UN Security Council. The election is conducted via a secret ballot, and candidates need a majority of votes from the members of the General Assembly to secure a seat. Statement 3 is correct. The tenure for a member on the UNHRC is three years. To prevent indefinite dominance by certain states, a member can serve for a maximum of two consecutive terms. After serving two terms, a state must step down and is not immediately eligible for re-election. Statement 4 is correct. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a unique and vital process of the UNHRC. Under this mechanism, the human rights performance of every UN Member State is reviewed every four to five years. This process ensures that all countries are held to the same standard and encourages them to improve their human rights situations through a cooperative, state-driven process.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC):

• The UNHRC was established by the UN General Assembly, replacing the former UN Commission on Human Rights.

• The Member States are elected by the members of the UN Security Council through a secret ballot.

• A Member State is eligible to serve a maximum of two consecutive three-year terms on the Council.

• The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a key mechanism of the Council used to assess the human rights records of all UN Member States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The UNHRC was created by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) via Resolution 60/251 in 2006. It was formed to replace the UN Commission on Human Rights, which had faced criticism for its politicisation and perceived ineffectiveness. The new council was designed to have a stronger institutional framework for promoting and protecting human rights globally.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The UNHRC have 47 Member States, they are elected directly by the UN General Assembly, not the UN Security Council. The election is conducted via a secret ballot, and candidates need a majority of votes from the members of the General Assembly to secure a seat.

• Statement 3 is correct. The tenure for a member on the UNHRC is three years. To prevent indefinite dominance by certain states, a member can serve for a maximum of two consecutive terms. After serving two terms, a state must step down and is not immediately eligible for re-election.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a unique and vital process of the UNHRC. Under this mechanism, the human rights performance of every UN Member State is reviewed every four to five years. This process ensures that all countries are held to the same standard and encourages them to improve their human rights situations through a cooperative, state-driven process.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to Visva-Bharati University, consider the following statements: It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore and was granted the status of a Central University by an Act of Parliament in the same year of its establishment. The institution’s philosophy is rooted in providing holistic education, with a strong emphasis on rural reconstruction. The university campus is located in Kolkata, the capital of West Bengal. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While Visva-Bharati was established by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921, it did not become a Central University in that year. It operated as an independent institution embodying Tagore’s educational ideals. It was only in 1951, through an Act of Parliament, that Visva-Bharati was declared a Central University and an “Institution of National Importance,” formalising its status within the Indian higher education system. Statement 2 is correct. The core philosophy of Visva-Bharati, as envisioned by Tagore, was to create a place of learning that was holistic, breaking the rigid barriers between disciplines and integrating arts, humanities, and sciences. A significant and practical dimension of this philosophy was rural reconstruction and development. This was manifested through Sriniketan, an institute dedicated to improving rural life through education, crafts, and agricultural innovation, making it a key component of the university’s identity. Statement 3 is incorrect. Visva-Bharati University is not located in Kolkata. It is situated at Santiniketan in the Birbhum district of West Bengal, about 160 kilometres from Kolkata. The location was intentionally chosen by Tagore for its serene, rural environment, which he believed was conducive to learning in harmony with nature, away from the confines of a bustling city. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While Visva-Bharati was established by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921, it did not become a Central University in that year. It operated as an independent institution embodying Tagore’s educational ideals. It was only in 1951, through an Act of Parliament, that Visva-Bharati was declared a Central University and an “Institution of National Importance,” formalising its status within the Indian higher education system. Statement 2 is correct. The core philosophy of Visva-Bharati, as envisioned by Tagore, was to create a place of learning that was holistic, breaking the rigid barriers between disciplines and integrating arts, humanities, and sciences. A significant and practical dimension of this philosophy was rural reconstruction and development. This was manifested through Sriniketan, an institute dedicated to improving rural life through education, crafts, and agricultural innovation, making it a key component of the university’s identity. Statement 3 is incorrect. Visva-Bharati University is not located in Kolkata. It is situated at Santiniketan in the Birbhum district of West Bengal, about 160 kilometres from Kolkata. The location was intentionally chosen by Tagore for its serene, rural environment, which he believed was conducive to learning in harmony with nature, away from the confines of a bustling city.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Visva-Bharati University, consider the following statements:

• It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore and was granted the status of a Central University by an Act of Parliament in the same year of its establishment.

• The institution’s philosophy is rooted in providing holistic education, with a strong emphasis on rural reconstruction.

• The university campus is located in Kolkata, the capital of West Bengal.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Visva-Bharati was established by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921, it did not become a Central University in that year. It operated as an independent institution embodying Tagore’s educational ideals. It was only in 1951, through an Act of Parliament, that Visva-Bharati was declared a Central University and an “Institution of National Importance,” formalising its status within the Indian higher education system.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core philosophy of Visva-Bharati, as envisioned by Tagore, was to create a place of learning that was holistic, breaking the rigid barriers between disciplines and integrating arts, humanities, and sciences. A significant and practical dimension of this philosophy was rural reconstruction and development. This was manifested through Sriniketan, an institute dedicated to improving rural life through education, crafts, and agricultural innovation, making it a key component of the university’s identity.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Visva-Bharati University is not located in Kolkata. It is situated at Santiniketan in the Birbhum district of West Bengal, about 160 kilometres from Kolkata. The location was intentionally chosen by Tagore for its serene, rural environment, which he believed was conducive to learning in harmony with nature, away from the confines of a bustling city.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following geographical statements about Madagascar is correct? (a) It is separated from the African mainland by the Strait of Gibraltar. (b) Its capital, Antananarivo, is situated on the low-lying eastern coastal plain. (c) The island's topography is characterized by three parallel longitudinal zones: a central high plateau, eastern coastal plains, and western low plateaus. (d) The Ankaratra and Andringitra mountain ranges are prominent examples of fold mountains formed by tectonic plate collision. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. Madagascar is separated from the southeastern coast of the African mainland, specifically Mozambique, by the Mozambique Channel. The Strait of Gibraltar is located much farther north, connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea between Spain and Morocco. Option (b) is incorrect. The capital city of Madagascar, Antananarivo, is located in the central high plateau region of the island, not on the coastal plains. This highland region is the backbone of the country and hosts its largest urban centres. Option (c) is correct. The physical geography of Madagascar can be distinctly divided into three parallel longitudinal zones. Running along the north-south axis, these are: the central high plateau which forms the spine of the island; the narrow eastern coastal plains that face the Indian Ocean; and the broader western low plateaus and plains that descend towards the Mozambique Channel. This tripartite division is a fundamental characteristic of its topography. Option (d) is incorrect. The prominent mountain massifs on the island, such as Ankaratra and Andringitra, are of volcanic origin, not fold mountains. They are part of the central highlands and represent significant volcanic formations that have shaped the island’s landscape and river systems. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. Madagascar is separated from the southeastern coast of the African mainland, specifically Mozambique, by the Mozambique Channel. The Strait of Gibraltar is located much farther north, connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea between Spain and Morocco. Option (b) is incorrect. The capital city of Madagascar, Antananarivo, is located in the central high plateau region of the island, not on the coastal plains. This highland region is the backbone of the country and hosts its largest urban centres. Option (c) is correct. The physical geography of Madagascar can be distinctly divided into three parallel longitudinal zones. Running along the north-south axis, these are: the central high plateau which forms the spine of the island; the narrow eastern coastal plains that face the Indian Ocean; and the broader western low plateaus and plains that descend towards the Mozambique Channel. This tripartite division is a fundamental characteristic of its topography. Option (d) is incorrect. The prominent mountain massifs on the island, such as Ankaratra and Andringitra, are of volcanic origin, not fold mountains. They are part of the central highlands and represent significant volcanic formations that have shaped the island’s landscape and river systems.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following geographical statements about Madagascar is correct?

• (a) It is separated from the African mainland by the Strait of Gibraltar.

• (b) Its capital, Antananarivo, is situated on the low-lying eastern coastal plain.

• (c) The island's topography is characterized by three parallel longitudinal zones: a central high plateau, eastern coastal plains, and western low plateaus.

• (d) The Ankaratra and Andringitra mountain ranges are prominent examples of fold mountains formed by tectonic plate collision.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. Madagascar is separated from the southeastern coast of the African mainland, specifically Mozambique, by the Mozambique Channel. The Strait of Gibraltar is located much farther north, connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea between Spain and Morocco.

• Option (b) is incorrect. The capital city of Madagascar, Antananarivo, is located in the central high plateau region of the island, not on the coastal plains. This highland region is the backbone of the country and hosts its largest urban centres.

• Option (c) is correct. The physical geography of Madagascar can be distinctly divided into three parallel longitudinal zones. Running along the north-south axis, these are: the central high plateau which forms the spine of the island; the narrow eastern coastal plains that face the Indian Ocean; and the broader western low plateaus and plains that descend towards the Mozambique Channel. This tripartite division is a fundamental characteristic of its topography.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The prominent mountain massifs on the island, such as Ankaratra and Andringitra, are of volcanic origin, not fold mountains. They are part of the central highlands and represent significant volcanic formations that have shaped the island’s landscape and river systems.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s engagement with the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC): India has been elected to the UNHRC for the 2026-2028 term, marking its first-ever tenure on the council. India’s membership is part of the Asia-Pacific regional group, which holds the largest number of seats on the council. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2026-2028 term marks India’s seventh tenure on the UNHRC, not its first. India has been a frequent member of the council since its inception in 2006, serving multiple terms (e.g., 2011-2014, 2014-2017, 2022-2024, etc.). This consistent election reflects India’s significant standing and engagement within the global human rights framework. Statement 2 is correct. Membership in the UNHRC is distributed based on equitable geographical representation. The Asia-Pacific group and the African group hold the largest number of seats, with 13 seats each. This ensures significant representation for these populous and diverse regions in the global human rights body. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2026-2028 term marks India’s seventh tenure on the UNHRC, not its first. India has been a frequent member of the council since its inception in 2006, serving multiple terms (e.g., 2011-2014, 2014-2017, 2022-2024, etc.). This consistent election reflects India’s significant standing and engagement within the global human rights framework. Statement 2 is correct. Membership in the UNHRC is distributed based on equitable geographical representation. The Asia-Pacific group and the African group hold the largest number of seats, with 13 seats each. This ensures significant representation for these populous and diverse regions in the global human rights body.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s engagement with the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC):

• India has been elected to the UNHRC for the 2026-2028 term, marking its first-ever tenure on the council.

• India’s membership is part of the Asia-Pacific regional group, which holds the largest number of seats on the council.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2026-2028 term marks India’s seventh tenure on the UNHRC, not its first. India has been a frequent member of the council since its inception in 2006, serving multiple terms (e.g., 2011-2014, 2014-2017, 2022-2024, etc.). This consistent election reflects India’s significant standing and engagement within the global human rights framework.

• Statement 2 is correct. Membership in the UNHRC is distributed based on equitable geographical representation. The Asia-Pacific group and the African group hold the largest number of seats, with 13 seats each. This ensures significant representation for these populous and diverse regions in the global human rights body.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the physical characteristics of a blizzard: A key defining feature is visibility being reduced to less than 5 kilometers for at least one hour. The wind chill effect is often minimal due to the insulating properties of heavy snowfall. Orographic uplift is one of the mechanisms that can contribute to the formation of a blizzard. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The standard meteorological definition of a blizzard requires visibility to be reduced to below 0.4 kilometers (or a quarter mile) due to blowing snow for a duration of at least three hours. The 5-kilometer threshold is far too high. Statement 2 is incorrect. The combination of strong winds and very low temperatures during a blizzard produces a significant wind chill effect. This means the perceived temperature on exposed skin is much lower than the actual air temperature, greatly increasing the risk of frostbite and hypothermia. Heavy snow does not provide insulation against this effect. Statement 3 is correct. An uplift mechanism is essential for a blizzard’s development as it forces moist air to rise and form snow. Orographic uplift, where air is forced upward as it passes over mountain ranges, is one such mechanism. Another common one is frontal uplift, where warm air is forced to rise over a colder air mass. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The standard meteorological definition of a blizzard requires visibility to be reduced to below 0.4 kilometers (or a quarter mile) due to blowing snow for a duration of at least three hours. The 5-kilometer threshold is far too high. Statement 2 is incorrect. The combination of strong winds and very low temperatures during a blizzard produces a significant wind chill effect. This means the perceived temperature on exposed skin is much lower than the actual air temperature, greatly increasing the risk of frostbite and hypothermia. Heavy snow does not provide insulation against this effect. Statement 3 is correct. An uplift mechanism is essential for a blizzard’s development as it forces moist air to rise and form snow. Orographic uplift, where air is forced upward as it passes over mountain ranges, is one such mechanism. Another common one is frontal uplift, where warm air is forced to rise over a colder air mass.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the physical characteristics of a blizzard:

• A key defining feature is visibility being reduced to less than 5 kilometers for at least one hour.

• The wind chill effect is often minimal due to the insulating properties of heavy snowfall.

• Orographic uplift is one of the mechanisms that can contribute to the formation of a blizzard.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The standard meteorological definition of a blizzard requires visibility to be reduced to below 0.4 kilometers (or a quarter mile) due to blowing snow for a duration of at least three hours. The 5-kilometer threshold is far too high.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The combination of strong winds and very low temperatures during a blizzard produces a significant wind chill effect. This means the perceived temperature on exposed skin is much lower than the actual air temperature, greatly increasing the risk of frostbite and hypothermia. Heavy snow does not provide insulation against this effect.

• Statement 3 is correct. An uplift mechanism is essential for a blizzard’s development as it forces moist air to rise and form snow. Orographic uplift, where air is forced upward as it passes over mountain ranges, is one such mechanism. Another common one is frontal uplift, where warm air is forced to rise over a colder air mass.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Snow Leopard is often referred to as the “ghost of the mountains”. Statement II: Its thick, white-grey coat with dark rosettes provides effective camouflage against snowy, rocky slopes. Statement III: The species is primarily solitary and nocturnal, with a very low population density, making human sightings exceptionally rare. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I makes an assertion, and both Statements II and III provide distinct, valid reasons that collectively explain why this assertion is true. Statement I is a well-known fact about the Snow Leopard. Statement II is correct and provides the first part of the explanation. The cat’s unique pelage is a perfect physical adaptation for blending into its high-altitude habitat, making it visually elusive. This camouflage is a primary reason for its “ghost-like” reputation. Statement III is also correct and provides the second part of the explanation. The animal’s behavioral traits—being solitary, often active at dawn and dusk (crepuscular) or night, and its naturally shy nature—combined with its extremely low density across vast territories, contribute significantly to its elusiveness. Since both the physical camouflage (Statement II) and the secretive behavior (Statement III) are key reasons why the Snow Leopard is so difficult to spot and is called the “ghost of the mountains,” both statements are correct and both explain Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I makes an assertion, and both Statements II and III provide distinct, valid reasons that collectively explain why this assertion is true. Statement I is a well-known fact about the Snow Leopard. Statement II is correct and provides the first part of the explanation. The cat’s unique pelage is a perfect physical adaptation for blending into its high-altitude habitat, making it visually elusive. This camouflage is a primary reason for its “ghost-like” reputation. Statement III is also correct and provides the second part of the explanation. The animal’s behavioral traits—being solitary, often active at dawn and dusk (crepuscular) or night, and its naturally shy nature—combined with its extremely low density across vast territories, contribute significantly to its elusiveness. Since both the physical camouflage (Statement II) and the secretive behavior (Statement III) are key reasons why the Snow Leopard is so difficult to spot and is called the “ghost of the mountains,” both statements are correct and both explain Statement I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Snow Leopard is often referred to as the “ghost of the mountains”.

Statement II: Its thick, white-grey coat with dark rosettes provides effective camouflage against snowy, rocky slopes.

Statement III: The species is primarily solitary and nocturnal, with a very low population density, making human sightings exceptionally rare.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I makes an assertion, and both Statements II and III provide distinct, valid reasons that collectively explain why this assertion is true.

• Statement I is a well-known fact about the Snow Leopard.

• Statement II is correct and provides the first part of the explanation. The cat’s unique pelage is a perfect physical adaptation for blending into its high-altitude habitat, making it visually elusive. This camouflage is a primary reason for its “ghost-like” reputation.

• Statement III is also correct and provides the second part of the explanation. The animal’s behavioral traits—being solitary, often active at dawn and dusk (crepuscular) or night, and its naturally shy nature—combined with its extremely low density across vast territories, contribute significantly to its elusiveness.

Since both the physical camouflage (Statement II) and the secretive behavior (Statement III) are key reasons why the Snow Leopard is so difficult to spot and is called the “ghost of the mountains,” both statements are correct and both explain Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement I makes an assertion, and both Statements II and III provide distinct, valid reasons that collectively explain why this assertion is true.

• Statement I is a well-known fact about the Snow Leopard.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the formation of tropical cyclones, consider the following statements: The development of cyclones in the Arabian Sea is often inhibited by dry winds from the deserts of Oman and Yemen. The Bay of Bengal remains cooler than the Arabian Sea throughout the year, which is why it experiences weaker cyclones. The Coriolis force required for cyclonic rotation is strongest at the equator, making the equatorial region a primary cyclogenesis zone. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A key factor limiting the intensity of cyclones in the Arabian Sea is the presence of dry air intrusion. Prevailing winds often bring dry, subsiding air from the nearby arid regions of the Arabian Peninsula, which disrupts the moist, convective environment necessary for a cyclone to strengthen. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bay of Bengal is significantly warmer than the Arabian Sea on average. Its semi-enclosed nature allows it to retain heat, providing more of the thermal energy that fuels cyclones, which is a reason why it experiences more intense storms. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases with latitude towards the poles. This force is essential to impart the spinning motion to a developing cyclone. Because it is weakest near the equator, tropical cyclones cannot form within about 5 degrees of latitude of the equator. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A key factor limiting the intensity of cyclones in the Arabian Sea is the presence of dry air intrusion. Prevailing winds often bring dry, subsiding air from the nearby arid regions of the Arabian Peninsula, which disrupts the moist, convective environment necessary for a cyclone to strengthen. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bay of Bengal is significantly warmer than the Arabian Sea on average. Its semi-enclosed nature allows it to retain heat, providing more of the thermal energy that fuels cyclones, which is a reason why it experiences more intense storms. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases with latitude towards the poles. This force is essential to impart the spinning motion to a developing cyclone. Because it is weakest near the equator, tropical cyclones cannot form within about 5 degrees of latitude of the equator.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the formation of tropical cyclones, consider the following statements:

• The development of cyclones in the Arabian Sea is often inhibited by dry winds from the deserts of Oman and Yemen.

• The Bay of Bengal remains cooler than the Arabian Sea throughout the year, which is why it experiences weaker cyclones.

• The Coriolis force required for cyclonic rotation is strongest at the equator, making the equatorial region a primary cyclogenesis zone.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A key factor limiting the intensity of cyclones in the Arabian Sea is the presence of dry air intrusion. Prevailing winds often bring dry, subsiding air from the nearby arid regions of the Arabian Peninsula, which disrupts the moist, convective environment necessary for a cyclone to strengthen.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bay of Bengal is significantly warmer than the Arabian Sea on average. Its semi-enclosed nature allows it to retain heat, providing more of the thermal energy that fuels cyclones, which is a reason why it experiences more intense storms.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases with latitude towards the poles. This force is essential to impart the spinning motion to a developing cyclone. Because it is weakest near the equator, tropical cyclones cannot form within about 5 degrees of latitude of the equator.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Initiative/Scheme Nodal Ministry/Agency 1. Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) Ministry of Education 2. PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) NITI Aayog 3. National Camel Sustainability Initiative (NCSI) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. While it is implemented in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the nodal agency is the Panchayati Raj Ministry. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is a comprehensive agricultural scheme implemented through the convergence of schemes from 11 Union Ministries, with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare playing a central role. NITI Aayog’s role is to guide and review the district plans, drawing inspiration from its Aspirational Districts Programme, but it is not the nodal implementing agency. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The National Camel Sustainability Initiative (NCSI) is being planned and launched by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) within this ministry is the nodal body for this mission. Incorrect Solution: A Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. While it is implemented in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the nodal agency is the Panchayati Raj Ministry. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is a comprehensive agricultural scheme implemented through the convergence of schemes from 11 Union Ministries, with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare playing a central role. NITI Aayog’s role is to guide and review the district plans, drawing inspiration from its Aspirational Districts Programme, but it is not the nodal implementing agency. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The National Camel Sustainability Initiative (NCSI) is being planned and launched by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) within this ministry is the nodal body for this mission.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Initiative/Scheme | Nodal Ministry/Agency

1.Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) | Ministry of Education
2.PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) | NITI Aayog
3.National Camel Sustainability Initiative (NCSI) | Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. While it is implemented in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the nodal agency is the Panchayati Raj Ministry.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is a comprehensive agricultural scheme implemented through the convergence of schemes from 11 Union Ministries, with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare playing a central role. NITI Aayog’s role is to guide and review the district plans, drawing inspiration from its Aspirational Districts Programme, but it is not the nodal implementing agency.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. The National Camel Sustainability Initiative (NCSI) is being planned and launched by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) within this ministry is the nodal body for this mission.

Solution: A

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