UPSC Current Affairs Quiz :16 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Silicon-Perovskite Tandem Solar Cells: These cells improve efficiency by stacking two different semiconductor materials, each capturing a distinct portion of the solar spectrum. The technology’s primary application is limited to large-scale utility solar parks due to high manufacturing costs. The development of this technology in India is spearheaded by a government research laboratory under the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental principle of a tandem solar cell is to use multiple layers (in this case, silicon and perovskite) to absorb different wavelengths of light more effectively. The top cell (perovskite) absorbs high-energy light, and the bottom cell (silicon) absorbs lower-energy light that passes through, increasing overall photon capture. Statement 2 is incorrect. It has lower production cost and applications are quite diverse, including rooftop solar for homes, EV charging infrastructure, and utility-scale parks. The cost-effectiveness is a key advantage, not a limitation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The development was led by ART-PV India, a startup incubated at IIT Bombay, not a CSIR laboratory. This tests the aspirant’s precision regarding institutional involvement. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental principle of a tandem solar cell is to use multiple layers (in this case, silicon and perovskite) to absorb different wavelengths of light more effectively. The top cell (perovskite) absorbs high-energy light, and the bottom cell (silicon) absorbs lower-energy light that passes through, increasing overall photon capture. Statement 2 is incorrect. It has lower production cost and applications are quite diverse, including rooftop solar for homes, EV charging infrastructure, and utility-scale parks. The cost-effectiveness is a key advantage, not a limitation. Statement 3 is incorrect. The development was led by ART-PV India, a startup incubated at IIT Bombay, not a CSIR laboratory. This tests the aspirant’s precision regarding institutional involvement.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Silicon-Perovskite Tandem Solar Cells:

• These cells improve efficiency by stacking two different semiconductor materials, each capturing a distinct portion of the solar spectrum.

• The technology’s primary application is limited to large-scale utility solar parks due to high manufacturing costs.

• The development of this technology in India is spearheaded by a government research laboratory under the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The fundamental principle of a tandem solar cell is to use multiple layers (in this case, silicon and perovskite) to absorb different wavelengths of light more effectively. The top cell (perovskite) absorbs high-energy light, and the bottom cell (silicon) absorbs lower-energy light that passes through, increasing overall photon capture.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. It has lower production cost and applications are quite diverse, including rooftop solar for homes, EV charging infrastructure, and utility-scale parks. The cost-effectiveness is a key advantage, not a limitation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The development was led by ART-PV India, a startup incubated at IIT Bombay, not a CSIR laboratory. This tests the aspirant’s precision regarding institutional involvement.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The recent breakthrough in high-efficiency tandem solar cells in India is significant for the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ mission primarily because it: (a) guarantees a complete elimination of India's dependency on Chinese solar panel imports within the next two years. (b) focuses on using exclusively organic materials, reducing the environmental impact of solar cell production. (c) enables the development of indigenous, cutting-edge renewable energy technology with high export potential. (d) was developed as part of a bilateral technology transfer program with the United States. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The development of a record-efficiency solar cell by an Indian startup (ART-PV India at IIT Bombay) is a prime example of building indigenous technological capacity. It not only helps meet domestic demand but also positions India as a potential leader and exporter in the next generation of photovoltaic technology, which is the core idea of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’—self-reliance and global competitiveness. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The development of a record-efficiency solar cell by an Indian startup (ART-PV India at IIT Bombay) is a prime example of building indigenous technological capacity. It not only helps meet domestic demand but also positions India as a potential leader and exporter in the next generation of photovoltaic technology, which is the core idea of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’—self-reliance and global competitiveness.

#### 2. Question

The recent breakthrough in high-efficiency tandem solar cells in India is significant for the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ mission primarily because it:

• (a) guarantees a complete elimination of India's dependency on Chinese solar panel imports within the next two years.

• (b) focuses on using exclusively organic materials, reducing the environmental impact of solar cell production.

• (c) enables the development of indigenous, cutting-edge renewable energy technology with high export potential.

• (d) was developed as part of a bilateral technology transfer program with the United States.

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct. The development of a record-efficiency solar cell by an Indian startup (ART-PV India at IIT Bombay) is a prime example of building indigenous technological capacity. It not only helps meet domestic demand but also positions India as a potential leader and exporter in the next generation of photovoltaic technology, which is the core idea of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’—self-reliance and global competitiveness.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ADEETIE scheme: It is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aimed at promoting energy efficiency. The scheme provides a higher interest subvention for micro and small enterprises compared to medium enterprises. A key component of the scheme is providing technical handholding, including the preparation of Investment-grade energy audits (IGEA). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The ADEETIE scheme (Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments). was launched by the Union Ministry of Power and is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). While it deals with energy, attributing it to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a common point of confusion that a well-prepared aspirant should be able to distinguish. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is designed with a tiered financial support structure to specifically encourage smaller businesses. It offers a 5% interest subvention for Micro and Small Enterprises and a lower rate of 3% for Medium Enterprises, clearly favouring the former. Statement 3 is correct. Beyond just financial incentives, the scheme provides crucial technical support. This includes conducting detailed Investment-grade energy audits (IGEA) to identify potential savings, helping prepare Detailed Project Reports (DPRs), and offering monitoring and verification post-implementation. This “handholding” is vital for MSMEs that may lack in-house expertise. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The ADEETIE scheme (Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments). was launched by the Union Ministry of Power and is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). While it deals with energy, attributing it to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a common point of confusion that a well-prepared aspirant should be able to distinguish. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is designed with a tiered financial support structure to specifically encourage smaller businesses. It offers a 5% interest subvention for Micro and Small Enterprises and a lower rate of 3% for Medium Enterprises, clearly favouring the former. Statement 3 is correct. Beyond just financial incentives, the scheme provides crucial technical support. This includes conducting detailed Investment-grade energy audits (IGEA) to identify potential savings, helping prepare Detailed Project Reports (DPRs), and offering monitoring and verification post-implementation. This “handholding” is vital for MSMEs that may lack in-house expertise.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the ADEETIE scheme:

• It is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aimed at promoting energy efficiency.

• The scheme provides a higher interest subvention for micro and small enterprises compared to medium enterprises.

• A key component of the scheme is providing technical handholding, including the preparation of Investment-grade energy audits (IGEA).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ADEETIE scheme (Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments). was launched by the Union Ministry of Power and is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). While it deals with energy, attributing it to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a common point of confusion that a well-prepared aspirant should be able to distinguish.

• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is designed with a tiered financial support structure to specifically encourage smaller businesses. It offers a 5% interest subvention for Micro and Small Enterprises and a lower rate of 3% for Medium Enterprises, clearly favouring the former.

Statement 3 is correct. Beyond just financial incentives, the scheme provides crucial technical support. This includes conducting detailed Investment-grade energy audits (IGEA) to identify potential savings, helping prepare Detailed Project Reports (DPRs), and offering monitoring and verification post-implementation. This “handholding” is vital for MSMEs that may lack in-house expertise.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component exclusively targets workers in the formal manufacturing sector. PMKVY 4.0 has introduced a focus on skills for emerging technologies like AI and drones, discontinuing support for traditional crafts. A significant achievement of the scheme is that nearly half of its beneficiaries have been women. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component is specifically designed to certify the skills of workers in the informal sector, such as artisans, weavers, and construction workers, who possess skills but lack formal certification. It does not target the formal sector exclusively. Statement 2 is incorrect. PMKVY 4.0 has expanded to include training in emerging and future-facing skills like AI, IoT, and drones. However, it has done so along with continuing support for traditional crafts. The scheme aims to create a balance between modern industry needs and preserving traditional heritage skills, not discontinue the latter. Statement 3 is correct. Nearly 45% of the trained beneficiaries are women is a key achievement, demonstrating a strong commitment to gender inclusion in skill development. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component is specifically designed to certify the skills of workers in the informal sector, such as artisans, weavers, and construction workers, who possess skills but lack formal certification. It does not target the formal sector exclusively. Statement 2 is incorrect. PMKVY 4.0 has expanded to include training in emerging and future-facing skills like AI, IoT, and drones. However, it has done so along with continuing support for traditional crafts. The scheme aims to create a balance between modern industry needs and preserving traditional heritage skills, not discontinue the latter. Statement 3 is correct. Nearly 45% of the trained beneficiaries are women is a key achievement, demonstrating a strong commitment to gender inclusion in skill development.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):

• The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component exclusively targets workers in the formal manufacturing sector.

• PMKVY 4.0 has introduced a focus on skills for emerging technologies like AI and drones, discontinuing support for traditional crafts.

• A significant achievement of the scheme is that nearly half of its beneficiaries have been women.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component is specifically designed to certify the skills of workers in the informal sector, such as artisans, weavers, and construction workers, who possess skills but lack formal certification. It does not target the formal sector exclusively.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. PMKVY 4.0 has expanded to include training in emerging and future-facing skills like AI, IoT, and drones. However, it has done so along with continuing support for traditional crafts. The scheme aims to create a balance between modern industry needs and preserving traditional heritage skills, not discontinue the latter.

• Statement 3 is correct. Nearly 45% of the trained beneficiaries are women is a key achievement, demonstrating a strong commitment to gender inclusion in skill development.

Solution: A

• Statement 3 is correct. Nearly 45% of the trained beneficiaries are women is a key achievement, demonstrating a strong commitment to gender inclusion in skill development.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The ‘Recognition of Prior Learning’ (RPL) component under PMKVY is strategically important for the Indian economy because it: (a) provides fresh vocational training to unemployed youth in urban areas. (b) mandates a minimum of six months of training for all participants before certification. (c) offers financial grants to set up new businesses in the services sector. (d) helps in formally assessing and certifying the existing skills of the unorganized workforce. Correct Solution: D Option (d) is correct. India has a vast informal or unorganized workforce where individuals possess valuable skills acquired through experience rather than formal education (e.g., carpenters, plumbers, artisans). The RPL component addresses this by assessing these pre-existing skills against a standardized framework and providing a formal certification. This validation enhances their employability, mobility, and potential for higher wages, thereby integrating them more effectively into the formal economy. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is correct. India has a vast informal or unorganized workforce where individuals possess valuable skills acquired through experience rather than formal education (e.g., carpenters, plumbers, artisans). The RPL component addresses this by assessing these pre-existing skills against a standardized framework and providing a formal certification. This validation enhances their employability, mobility, and potential for higher wages, thereby integrating them more effectively into the formal economy.

#### 5. Question

The ‘Recognition of Prior Learning’ (RPL) component under PMKVY is strategically important for the Indian economy because it:

• (a) provides fresh vocational training to unemployed youth in urban areas.

• (b) mandates a minimum of six months of training for all participants before certification.

• (c) offers financial grants to set up new businesses in the services sector.

• (d) helps in formally assessing and certifying the existing skills of the unorganized workforce.

Solution: D

Option (d) is correct. India has a vast informal or unorganized workforce where individuals possess valuable skills acquired through experience rather than formal education (e.g., carpenters, plumbers, artisans). The RPL component addresses this by assessing these pre-existing skills against a standardized framework and providing a formal certification. This validation enhances their employability, mobility, and potential for higher wages, thereby integrating them more effectively into the formal economy.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Genetically Modified (GM) maize trials being conducted by Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), consider the following statements: The trials are for the commercial cultivation and sale of GM maize seeds to farmers across Punjab. The genetic modification in this maize variant introduces traits for drought resistance and enhanced nutritional value. The trials have been initiated solely by Bayer, with PAU providing the land and the Department of Biotechnology offering post-trial subsidies. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The trials are explicitly described as non-commercial and confined biosafety research trials (BRL-I and BRL-II). Their purpose is to gather scientific data on agronomic performance and environmental safety under controlled conditions, not for immediate commercial release or sale to farmers. The objective is to inform policy, not to market a product. Statement 2 is incorrect. The specific genetic traits being tested in this GM maize variant are herbicide tolerance (HT) and insect resistance (BT). There is no mention of traits for drought resistance or enhanced nutritional value in this particular trial. This tests the precision of the aspirant’s knowledge. Statement 3 is incorrect. The trials are a collaborative effort where PAU is conducting the research implementation, Bayer is the technology developer, and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) is the regulatory authority that approves and oversees such trials. The DBT does not offer post-trial subsidies; its role is regulatory oversight. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The trials are explicitly described as non-commercial and confined biosafety research trials (BRL-I and BRL-II). Their purpose is to gather scientific data on agronomic performance and environmental safety under controlled conditions, not for immediate commercial release or sale to farmers. The objective is to inform policy, not to market a product. Statement 2 is incorrect. The specific genetic traits being tested in this GM maize variant are herbicide tolerance (HT) and insect resistance (BT). There is no mention of traits for drought resistance or enhanced nutritional value in this particular trial. This tests the precision of the aspirant’s knowledge. Statement 3 is incorrect. The trials are a collaborative effort where PAU is conducting the research implementation, Bayer is the technology developer, and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) is the regulatory authority that approves and oversees such trials. The DBT does not offer post-trial subsidies; its role is regulatory oversight.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Genetically Modified (GM) maize trials being conducted by Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), consider the following statements:

• The trials are for the commercial cultivation and sale of GM maize seeds to farmers across Punjab.

• The genetic modification in this maize variant introduces traits for drought resistance and enhanced nutritional value.

• The trials have been initiated solely by Bayer, with PAU providing the land and the Department of Biotechnology offering post-trial subsidies.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The trials are explicitly described as non-commercial and confined biosafety research trials (BRL-I and BRL-II). Their purpose is to gather scientific data on agronomic performance and environmental safety under controlled conditions, not for immediate commercial release or sale to farmers. The objective is to inform policy, not to market a product.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The specific genetic traits being tested in this GM maize variant are herbicide tolerance (HT) and insect resistance (BT). There is no mention of traits for drought resistance or enhanced nutritional value in this particular trial. This tests the precision of the aspirant’s knowledge.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The trials are a collaborative effort where PAU is conducting the research implementation, Bayer is the technology developer, and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) is the regulatory authority that approves and oversees such trials. The DBT does not offer post-trial subsidies; its role is regulatory oversight.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Aspergillosis: It is a contagious fungal infection transmitted directly from pigeons to humans. The causative agent, the Aspergillus mold, is commonly found in environments such as soil, decaying vegetation, and damp areas. The disease primarily manifests as a respiratory infection because its transmission occurs through the inhalation of airborne spores. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is not contagious and that pigeons are being wrongly blamed as a direct source. The disease is not transmitted from person to person or directly from animals. Pigeons may contribute indirectly by their droppings creating a nutrient-rich environment for the mold to grow, but they are not the direct vector of transmission. Statement 2 is correct. The Aspergillus fungus is described as ubiquitous, meaning it is present almost everywhere in the environment. It thrives in soil, compost, rotting vegetation, dust, and damp indoor spaces. This widespread presence is why exposure is common. Statement 3 is correct. The infection route is respiratory. The mold releases microscopic spores into the air, which are then inhaled. In individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying lung conditions, these inhaled spores can germinate and cause infection in the lungs, leading to the characteristic respiratory symptoms. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is not contagious and that pigeons are being wrongly blamed as a direct source. The disease is not transmitted from person to person or directly from animals. Pigeons may contribute indirectly by their droppings creating a nutrient-rich environment for the mold to grow, but they are not the direct vector of transmission. Statement 2 is correct. The Aspergillus fungus is described as ubiquitous, meaning it is present almost everywhere in the environment. It thrives in soil, compost, rotting vegetation, dust, and damp indoor spaces. This widespread presence is why exposure is common. Statement 3 is correct. The infection route is respiratory. The mold releases microscopic spores into the air, which are then inhaled. In individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying lung conditions, these inhaled spores can germinate and cause infection in the lungs, leading to the characteristic respiratory symptoms.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about Aspergillosis:

• It is a contagious fungal infection transmitted directly from pigeons to humans.

• The causative agent, the Aspergillus mold, is commonly found in environments such as soil, decaying vegetation, and damp areas.

• The disease primarily manifests as a respiratory infection because its transmission occurs through the inhalation of airborne spores.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The disease is not contagious and that pigeons are being wrongly blamed as a direct source. The disease is not transmitted from person to person or directly from animals. Pigeons may contribute indirectly by their droppings creating a nutrient-rich environment for the mold to grow, but they are not the direct vector of transmission.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Aspergillus fungus is described as ubiquitous, meaning it is present almost everywhere in the environment. It thrives in soil, compost, rotting vegetation, dust, and damp indoor spaces. This widespread presence is why exposure is common.

• Statement 3 is correct. The infection route is respiratory. The mold releases microscopic spores into the air, which are then inhaled. In individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying lung conditions, these inhaled spores can germinate and cause infection in the lungs, leading to the characteristic respiratory symptoms.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The introduction of the E10 Shinkansen on the Mumbai–Ahmedabad corridor represents a significant step in India-Japan relations primarily through: (a) a simple procurement of rolling stock with no transfer of underlying technology. (b) Japan providing financial and technological expertise for a major Indian infrastructure project. (c) the establishment of a joint venture for manufacturing E10 trains in India under the Make in India initiative. (d) India agreeing to adopt Japanese as an official language for the train's operational crew. Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. Japan is providing a substantial portion of the funding for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail project through a soft loan. Critically, it is also sharing its world-renowned technological expertise in high-speed rail construction, safety, and operations, along with the rolling stock (the trains themselves). This deep engagement on a flagship infrastructure project is a hallmark of the strong bilateral ties. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. Japan is providing a substantial portion of the funding for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail project through a soft loan. Critically, it is also sharing its world-renowned technological expertise in high-speed rail construction, safety, and operations, along with the rolling stock (the trains themselves). This deep engagement on a flagship infrastructure project is a hallmark of the strong bilateral ties.

#### 8. Question

The introduction of the E10 Shinkansen on the Mumbai–Ahmedabad corridor represents a significant step in India-Japan relations primarily through:

• (a) a simple procurement of rolling stock with no transfer of underlying technology.

• (b) Japan providing financial and technological expertise for a major Indian infrastructure project.

• (c) the establishment of a joint venture for manufacturing E10 trains in India under the Make in India initiative.

• (d) India agreeing to adopt Japanese as an official language for the train's operational crew.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct. Japan is providing a substantial portion of the funding for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail project through a soft loan. Critically, it is also sharing its world-renowned technological expertise in high-speed rail construction, safety, and operations, along with the rolling stock (the trains themselves). This deep engagement on a flagship infrastructure project is a hallmark of the strong bilateral ties.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following accurately describes the geographical course and confluence of the Pavana River? (a) It originates in the Satpura Range, flows westward, and merges directly into the Arabian Sea near Mumbai. (b) It arises in the Western Ghats near Lonavala, flows eastward, and is a direct tributary of the Krishna River. (c) It originates south of Lonavala in the Western Ghats, flows east, and eventually joins the Mula River within the Pune district. (d) It is a major left-bank tributary of the Godavari river, originating in the hills of Nashik. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately summarizes the river’s geography. It originates in the Western Ghats (south of Lonavala), flows eastward through Pimpri-Chinchwad, and its journey culminates in its merger with the Mula River near Pune. The entire described course is within the Pune district. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately summarizes the river’s geography. It originates in the Western Ghats (south of Lonavala), flows eastward through Pimpri-Chinchwad, and its journey culminates in its merger with the Mula River near Pune. The entire described course is within the Pune district.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following accurately describes the geographical course and confluence of the Pavana River?

• (a) It originates in the Satpura Range, flows westward, and merges directly into the Arabian Sea near Mumbai.

• (b) It arises in the Western Ghats near Lonavala, flows eastward, and is a direct tributary of the Krishna River.

• (c) It originates south of Lonavala in the Western Ghats, flows east, and eventually joins the Mula River within the Pune district.

• (d) It is a major left-bank tributary of the Godavari river, originating in the hills of Nashik.

Solution: C

• Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately summarizes the river’s geography. It originates in the Western Ghats (south of Lonavala), flows eastward through Pimpri-Chinchwad, and its journey culminates in its merger with the Mula River near Pune. The entire described course is within the Pune district.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points A person may be eligible for an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card if they satisfy which of the following conditions? They were a citizen of a territory that became part of India after 15th August 1947. They are a minor child whose both parents are citizens of India. They have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The eligibility criteria for OCI status include individuals who belonged to a territory that became part of India after August 15, 1947. This provision accommodates people from regions that integrated with India post-independence, such as Sikkim. Statement 2 is correct. A minor child, one or both of whose parents are citizens of India, is eligible for OCI. This provision is designed to ensure that children of Indian citizens who may be born abroad can maintain a strong connection with India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Citizenship Act, 1955, explicitly excludes individuals who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh from being eligible for OCI status. This is a key ineligibility criterion and is strictly enforced. The Indian government may also notify other countries whose citizens would not be eligible for OCI. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The eligibility criteria for OCI status include individuals who belonged to a territory that became part of India after August 15, 1947. This provision accommodates people from regions that integrated with India post-independence, such as Sikkim. Statement 2 is correct. A minor child, one or both of whose parents are citizens of India, is eligible for OCI. This provision is designed to ensure that children of Indian citizens who may be born abroad can maintain a strong connection with India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Citizenship Act, 1955, explicitly excludes individuals who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh from being eligible for OCI status. This is a key ineligibility criterion and is strictly enforced. The Indian government may also notify other countries whose citizens would not be eligible for OCI.

#### 10. Question

A person may be eligible for an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card if they satisfy which of the following conditions?

• They were a citizen of a territory that became part of India after 15th August 1947.

• They are a minor child whose both parents are citizens of India.

• They have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The eligibility criteria for OCI status include individuals who belonged to a territory that became part of India after August 15, 1947. This provision accommodates people from regions that integrated with India post-independence, such as Sikkim.

• Statement 2 is correct. A minor child, one or both of whose parents are citizens of India, is eligible for OCI. This provision is designed to ensure that children of Indian citizens who may be born abroad can maintain a strong connection with India.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Citizenship Act, 1955, explicitly excludes individuals who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh from being eligible for OCI status. This is a key ineligibility criterion and is strictly enforced. The Indian government may also notify other countries whose citizens would not be eligible for OCI.

Solution: B

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