UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 16 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the significance and applications of Salt Chimneys: They can serve as natural barriers preventing the spread of pollutants. They are indicators of karstification and potential ground collapse. Autonomous mapping of salt chimneys can help mitigate sinkhole risks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Salt chimneys, also known as salt diapirs, are significant geological formations created by the upward movement of salt through overlying rock layers. They are critical in understanding subsurface geology and associated risks. Statement 1 is incorrect because salt chimneys do not primarily function as natural barriers against pollutants. Instead, they are often pathways for fluid migration and can influence subsurface hydrology, sometimes exacerbating pollutant spread. Statement 2 is correct because salt chimneys are strong indicators of karstification—a process where soluble rocks dissolve, creating cavities and increasing the potential for ground collapse or sinkholes. Mapping these formations helps in identifying vulnerable areas. Statement 3 is also correct. Autonomous techniques, like geophysical surveys and remote sensing, are instrumental in mapping salt chimneys to predict and mitigate sinkhole risks. These technologies help in risk management for infrastructure and communities in karst-prone regions. Incorrect Solution: c) Salt chimneys, also known as salt diapirs, are significant geological formations created by the upward movement of salt through overlying rock layers. They are critical in understanding subsurface geology and associated risks. Statement 1 is incorrect because salt chimneys do not primarily function as natural barriers against pollutants. Instead, they are often pathways for fluid migration and can influence subsurface hydrology, sometimes exacerbating pollutant spread. Statement 2 is correct because salt chimneys are strong indicators of karstification—a process where soluble rocks dissolve, creating cavities and increasing the potential for ground collapse or sinkholes. Mapping these formations helps in identifying vulnerable areas. Statement 3 is also correct. Autonomous techniques, like geophysical surveys and remote sensing, are instrumental in mapping salt chimneys to predict and mitigate sinkhole risks. These technologies help in risk management for infrastructure and communities in karst-prone regions.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the significance and applications of Salt Chimneys:

• They can serve as natural barriers preventing the spread of pollutants.

• They are indicators of karstification and potential ground collapse.

• Autonomous mapping of salt chimneys can help mitigate sinkhole risks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Salt chimneys, also known as salt diapirs, are significant geological formations created by the upward movement of salt through overlying rock layers. They are critical in understanding subsurface geology and associated risks.

Statement 1 is incorrect because salt chimneys do not primarily function as natural barriers against pollutants. Instead, they are often pathways for fluid migration and can influence subsurface hydrology, sometimes exacerbating pollutant spread.

Statement 2 is correct because salt chimneys are strong indicators of karstification—a process where soluble rocks dissolve, creating cavities and increasing the potential for ground collapse or sinkholes. Mapping these formations helps in identifying vulnerable areas.

Statement 3 is also correct. Autonomous techniques, like geophysical surveys and remote sensing, are instrumental in mapping salt chimneys to predict and mitigate sinkhole risks. These technologies help in risk management for infrastructure and communities in karst-prone regions.

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement-I: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is a judicial body established to prosecute individuals for crimes like genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression. Statement-II: The ICC has universal jurisdiction over all crimes committed anywhere in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The ICC was established under the Rome Statute to prosecute individuals for serious crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression. Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC does not have universal jurisdiction. Its jurisdiction is limited to crimes committed within member states, by nationals of member states, or in cases referred by the UN Security Council. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The ICC was established under the Rome Statute to prosecute individuals for serious crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression. Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC does not have universal jurisdiction. Its jurisdiction is limited to crimes committed within member states, by nationals of member states, or in cases referred by the UN Security Council.

#### 2. Question

• Consider the following:

Statement-I: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is a judicial body established to prosecute individuals for crimes like genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression.

Statement-II: The ICC has universal jurisdiction over all crimes committed anywhere in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. The ICC was established under the Rome Statute to prosecute individuals for serious crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression.

Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC does not have universal jurisdiction. Its jurisdiction is limited to crimes committed within member states, by nationals of member states, or in cases referred by the UN Security Council.

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. The ICC was established under the Rome Statute to prosecute individuals for serious crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbetka rock shelters: They depict hunting scenes, social life, and rituals through rock paintings. They are located in the Vindhya Range, near the Narmada Valley. Bhimbetka was first excavated during the Indus Valley Civilization period. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhimbetka rock shelters, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are an archaeological treasure showcasing prehistoric art and human evolution. Statement 1 is correct, as the rock paintings depict a variety of scenes, including hunting, social life, rituals, and animals, offering insight into early human culture and activities. Statement 2 is also correct, as Bhimbetka is located in the Vindhya Range near the Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh, an area known for its archaeological and geological significance. Statement 3, however, is incorrect. The Bhimbetka rock shelters were discovered in the 20th century by Dr. Vishnu Wakankar and date back to the Mesolithic period and earlier. They are unrelated to the Indus Valley Civilization, which is a distinct and later Bronze Age culture. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhimbetka rock shelters, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are an archaeological treasure showcasing prehistoric art and human evolution. Statement 1 is correct, as the rock paintings depict a variety of scenes, including hunting, social life, rituals, and animals, offering insight into early human culture and activities. Statement 2 is also correct, as Bhimbetka is located in the Vindhya Range near the Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh, an area known for its archaeological and geological significance. Statement 3, however, is incorrect. The Bhimbetka rock shelters were discovered in the 20th century by Dr. Vishnu Wakankar and date back to the Mesolithic period and earlier. They are unrelated to the Indus Valley Civilization, which is a distinct and later Bronze Age culture.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbetka rock shelters:

• They depict hunting scenes, social life, and rituals through rock paintings.

• They are located in the Vindhya Range, near the Narmada Valley.

• Bhimbetka was first excavated during the Indus Valley Civilization period.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Bhimbetka rock shelters, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are an archaeological treasure showcasing prehistoric art and human evolution.

Statement 1 is correct, as the rock paintings depict a variety of scenes, including hunting, social life, rituals, and animals, offering insight into early human culture and activities.

Statement 2 is also correct, as Bhimbetka is located in the Vindhya Range near the Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh, an area known for its archaeological and geological significance.

Statement 3, however, is incorrect. The Bhimbetka rock shelters were discovered in the 20th century by Dr. Vishnu Wakankar and date back to the Mesolithic period and earlier. They are unrelated to the Indus Valley Civilization, which is a distinct and later Bronze Age culture.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Bhimbetka rock shelters, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are an archaeological treasure showcasing prehistoric art and human evolution.

Statement 1 is correct, as the rock paintings depict a variety of scenes, including hunting, social life, rituals, and animals, offering insight into early human culture and activities.

Statement 2 is also correct, as Bhimbetka is located in the Vindhya Range near the Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh, an area known for its archaeological and geological significance.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI): It uses indicators like GHG emissions, renewable energy, energy use, and climate policy. The index is aimed at enhancing transparency in global climate policies. The United States is consistently ranked in the top five countries. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 3 is incorrect. The CCPI aims to improve transparency in global climate efforts using indicators such as GHG emissions and renewable energy. However, the United States is not ranked among the top-performing countries due to high emissions and inconsistent policies. About Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025: Origin:First published in 2005. Published by:Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. Aim:To monitor and compare climate mitigation efforts and enhance transparency in climate policies globally. Indicators Used: GHG Emissions Renewable Energy Energy Use Climate Policy Top Ranking Countries: No country received an overall very high rating. Denmark holds its 4th-place ranking in this year’s CCPI and is again the highest-ranked of all countries surveyed. (No nation made it top 3) Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 3 is incorrect. The CCPI aims to improve transparency in global climate efforts using indicators such as GHG emissions and renewable energy. However, the United States is not ranked among the top-performing countries due to high emissions and inconsistent policies. About Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025: Origin:First published in 2005. Published by:Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. Aim:To monitor and compare climate mitigation efforts and enhance transparency in climate policies globally. Indicators Used: GHG Emissions Renewable Energy Energy Use Climate Policy Top Ranking Countries: No country received an overall very high rating. Denmark holds its 4th-place ranking in this year’s CCPI and is again the highest-ranked of all countries surveyed. (No nation made it top 3)

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):

• It uses indicators like GHG emissions, renewable energy, energy use, and climate policy.

• The index is aimed at enhancing transparency in global climate policies.

• The United States is consistently ranked in the top five countries.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The CCPI aims to improve transparency in global climate efforts using indicators such as GHG emissions and renewable energy. However, the United States is not ranked among the top-performing countries due to high emissions and inconsistent policies.

About Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025:

• Origin:First published in 2005.

• Published by:Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network.

• Aim:To monitor and compare climate mitigation efforts and enhance transparency in climate policies globally.

• Indicators Used: GHG Emissions Renewable Energy Energy Use Climate Policy

• GHG Emissions

• Renewable Energy

• Energy Use

• Climate Policy

• Top Ranking Countries: No country received an overall very high rating. Denmark holds its 4th-place ranking in this year’s CCPI and is again the highest-ranked of all countries surveyed. (No nation made it top 3)

• No country received an overall very high rating.

• Denmark holds its 4th-place ranking in this year’s CCPI and is again the highest-ranked of all countries surveyed. (No nation made it top 3)

Solution: a)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025:

• Origin:First published in 2005.

• Published by:Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network.

• Aim:To monitor and compare climate mitigation efforts and enhance transparency in climate policies globally.

• Indicators Used: GHG Emissions Renewable Energy Energy Use Climate Policy

• GHG Emissions

• Renewable Energy

• Energy Use

• Climate Policy

• No country received an overall very high rating.

• Denmark holds its 4th-place ranking in this year’s CCPI and is again the highest-ranked of all countries surveyed. (No nation made it top 3)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements correctly describes the withdrawal process from a treaty under the Paris Agreement? a) Participation is terminated immediately after withdrawal notification. b) Withdrawal becomes effective immediately upon written notification to the UN’s Office of Legal Affairs. c) A country can withdraw only after three years of the treaty's entry into force for that party. d) A country can withdraw at any time without prior notification. Correct Solution: c) Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement. Solution c) is correct because a country is eligible to withdraw only after three years from the date the treaty enters into force for that party. Furthermore, even after initiating the withdrawal process, the withdrawal does not take immediate effect. It becomes effective one year after the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) receives the written notification of withdrawal. This process ensures that countries cannot arbitrarily exit the Agreement and maintains stability and continuity in global climate efforts. For example, the United States initiated its withdrawal in 2019 but the process was only completed in 2020. Incorrect Solution: c) Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement. Solution c) is correct because a country is eligible to withdraw only after three years from the date the treaty enters into force for that party. Furthermore, even after initiating the withdrawal process, the withdrawal does not take immediate effect. It becomes effective one year after the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) receives the written notification of withdrawal. This process ensures that countries cannot arbitrarily exit the Agreement and maintains stability and continuity in global climate efforts. For example, the United States initiated its withdrawal in 2019 but the process was only completed in 2020.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements correctly describes the withdrawal process from a treaty under the Paris Agreement?

• a) Participation is terminated immediately after withdrawal notification.

• b) Withdrawal becomes effective immediately upon written notification to the UN’s Office of Legal Affairs.

• c) A country can withdraw only after three years of the treaty's entry into force for that party.

• d) A country can withdraw at any time without prior notification.

Solution: c)

Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement.

Solution c) is correct because a country is eligible to withdraw only after three years from the date the treaty enters into force for that party. Furthermore, even after initiating the withdrawal process, the withdrawal does not take immediate effect. It becomes effective one year after the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) receives the written notification of withdrawal.

This process ensures that countries cannot arbitrarily exit the Agreement and maintains stability and continuity in global climate efforts. For example, the United States initiated its withdrawal in 2019 but the process was only completed in 2020.

Solution: c)

Under the Paris Agreement, a country cannot withdraw at will or immediately without adhering to specific provisions. The withdrawal process is governed by Article 28 of the Agreement.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the long-term ripple effects of space junk: It can harm terrestrial ecosystems indirectly by altering the upper atmosphere. Changes in the stratosphere due to space debris can disrupt weather patterns. Burning space junk increases the concentration of ozone in the upper atmosphere. Metals from space debris can catalyze chemical reactions affecting climate systems. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly. Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns. Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase. Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems. About Space Junk and Its Impact: Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry. Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere. Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs. Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation. Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns. Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly. Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns. Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase. Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems. About Space Junk and Its Impact: Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry. Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere. Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs. Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation. Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns. Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the long-term ripple effects of space junk:

• It can harm terrestrial ecosystems indirectly by altering the upper atmosphere.

• Changes in the stratosphere due to space debris can disrupt weather patterns.

• Burning space junk increases the concentration of ozone in the upper atmosphere.

• Metals from space debris can catalyze chemical reactions affecting climate systems.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly.

Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase.

Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems.

About Space Junk and Its Impact:

• Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry.

• Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere.

• Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs.

• Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation.

• Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns.

• Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth.

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: Alterations in the upper atmosphere affect ecosystems indirectly.

Statement 2 is correct: Stratospheric changes due to pollutants can disrupt weather patterns.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Space junk contributes to ozone depletion, not an increase.

Statement 4 is correct: Metals like aluminum oxide catalyze reactions impacting climate systems.

About Space Junk and Its Impact:

• Definition:Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or disintegrated during re-entry.

• Pollutants Released:Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere.

• Ozone Layer Threat:Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs.

• Stratospheric Changes:Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and promote cloud formation.

• Climate Impacts:Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and disrupting natural climate patterns.

• Long-Term Ripple Effects:Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems, weather patterns, and human health on Earth.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about tuberculosis (TB): Pulmonary TB is caused by the Mycobacterium leprae bacterium. Weight loss, fatigue, and fever are common symptoms of TB. TB can be transmitted through droplets expelled when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). However, Statement 1 is incorrect, as Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not TB. Statement 2 is correct because common symptoms of TB include weight loss, persistent fatigue, fever, night sweats, and a chronic cough. These symptoms often reflect the body’s response to the infection. Statement 3 is also correct, as TB is highly contagious and spreads via respiratory droplets expelled when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. This mode of transmission makes TB a significant public health concern, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments. Incorrect Solution: c) Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). However, Statement 1 is incorrect, as Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not TB. Statement 2 is correct because common symptoms of TB include weight loss, persistent fatigue, fever, night sweats, and a chronic cough. These symptoms often reflect the body’s response to the infection. Statement 3 is also correct, as TB is highly contagious and spreads via respiratory droplets expelled when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. This mode of transmission makes TB a significant public health concern, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about tuberculosis (TB):

• Pulmonary TB is caused by the Mycobacterium leprae bacterium.

• Weight loss, fatigue, and fever are common symptoms of TB.

• TB can be transmitted through droplets expelled when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). However, Statement 1 is incorrect, as Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not TB.

Statement 2 is correct because common symptoms of TB include weight loss, persistent fatigue, fever, night sweats, and a chronic cough. These symptoms often reflect the body’s response to the infection.

Statement 3 is also correct, as TB is highly contagious and spreads via respiratory droplets expelled when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. This mode of transmission makes TB a significant public health concern, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments.

Solution: c)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about uranium isotopes and fission: U-235 is the only isotope of uranium capable of undergoing nuclear fission. U-238 is the dominant isotope in natural uranium and is non-fissile. U-235 in nuclear reactors undergoes fusion to release energy. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production. Statement 1 is incorrect because while U-235 is fissile and capable of undergoing nuclear fission to release energy, it is not the only fissile isotope; for instance, isotopes like Pu-239 also undergo fission. Statement 2 is correct, as U-238 is the most abundant isotope in natural uranium (comprising about 99.3%) and is non-fissile, meaning it cannot sustain a chain reaction. However, U-238 can absorb neutrons to form Pu-239, which is fissile. Statement 3 is incorrect because U-235 releases energy through nuclear fission, where its nucleus splits into smaller nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, not through fusion, which involves combining nuclei. This distinction is essential for understanding the mechanics of nuclear reactors, where fission, not fusion, is the source of energy production. Incorrect Solution: a) Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production. Statement 1 is incorrect because while U-235 is fissile and capable of undergoing nuclear fission to release energy, it is not the only fissile isotope; for instance, isotopes like Pu-239 also undergo fission. Statement 2 is correct, as U-238 is the most abundant isotope in natural uranium (comprising about 99.3%) and is non-fissile, meaning it cannot sustain a chain reaction. However, U-238 can absorb neutrons to form Pu-239, which is fissile. Statement 3 is incorrect because U-235 releases energy through nuclear fission, where its nucleus splits into smaller nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, not through fusion, which involves combining nuclei. This distinction is essential for understanding the mechanics of nuclear reactors, where fission, not fusion, is the source of energy production.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about uranium isotopes and fission:

• U-235 is the only isotope of uranium capable of undergoing nuclear fission.

• U-238 is the dominant isotope in natural uranium and is non-fissile.

• U-235 in nuclear reactors undergoes fusion to release energy.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production.

Statement 1 is incorrect because while U-235 is fissile and capable of undergoing nuclear fission to release energy, it is not the only fissile isotope; for instance, isotopes like Pu-239 also undergo fission.

Statement 2 is correct, as U-238 is the most abundant isotope in natural uranium (comprising about 99.3%) and is non-fissile, meaning it cannot sustain a chain reaction. However, U-238 can absorb neutrons to form Pu-239, which is fissile.

Statement 3 is incorrect because U-235 releases energy through nuclear fission, where its nucleus splits into smaller nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, not through fusion, which involves combining nuclei. This distinction is essential for understanding the mechanics of nuclear reactors, where fission, not fusion, is the source of energy production.

Solution: a)

Uranium isotopes play a critical role in nuclear energy production.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points RNA editing is primarily characterized by: a) Irreversible protein changes b) Temporary and reversible modifications in RNA molecules c) Permanent changes in RNA molecules d) Permanent alterations in the genome Correct Solution: b) RNA editing involves making transient and precise alterations in RNA molecules. Unlike DNA editing, which induces permanent genetic changes, RNA editing does not modify the genome itself. This reversibility offers a safer therapeutic option with reduced long-term risks, making it particularly suitable for treating genetic disorders. Incorrect Solution: b) RNA editing involves making transient and precise alterations in RNA molecules. Unlike DNA editing, which induces permanent genetic changes, RNA editing does not modify the genome itself. This reversibility offers a safer therapeutic option with reduced long-term risks, making it particularly suitable for treating genetic disorders.

#### 9. Question

RNA editing is primarily characterized by:

• a) Irreversible protein changes

• b) Temporary and reversible modifications in RNA molecules

• c) Permanent changes in RNA molecules

• d) Permanent alterations in the genome

Solution: b)

RNA editing involves making transient and precise alterations in RNA molecules. Unlike DNA editing, which induces permanent genetic changes, RNA editing does not modify the genome itself. This reversibility offers a safer therapeutic option with reduced long-term risks, making it particularly suitable for treating genetic disorders.

Solution: b)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement-I: India, along with the United States and China, is not a party to the International Criminal Court (ICC)’s Rome Statute. Statement-II: India has not joined the ICC due to concerns about the court’s jurisdiction and potential interference with domestic legal matters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members. Statement-II is also correct and provides the explanation for Statement-I. India’s decision to stay out of the ICC stems from concerns about sovereignty, jurisdiction, and the court’s perceived potential to interfere with domestic legal systems. Incorrect Solution: a) The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members. Statement-II is also correct and provides the explanation for Statement-I. India’s decision to stay out of the ICC stems from concerns about sovereignty, jurisdiction, and the court’s perceived potential to interfere with domestic legal systems.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

Statement-I: India, along with the United States and China, is not a party to the International Criminal Court (ICC)’s Rome Statute.

Statement-II: India has not joined the ICC due to concerns about the court’s jurisdiction and potential interference with domestic legal matters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.

Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members.

Statement-II is also correct and provides the explanation for Statement-I. India’s decision to stay out of the ICC stems from concerns about sovereignty, jurisdiction, and the court’s perceived potential to interfere with domestic legal systems.

Solution: a)

The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is a permanent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.

Statement-I is correct as India, the United States, China, and Russia are among the prominent nations that have not ratified the Rome Statute, hence are not ICC members.

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