UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 initiative: It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the NITI Aayog to benchmark logistics performance. The initiative invites applications under various categories, including academic institutions and startups, to promote diversity. A key objective of LEAPS 2025 is to align industry practices with the National Logistics Policy (2022). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 is published by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. NITI Aayog is not the publishing body for this initiative. The initiative aims to create a national benchmarking framework for the logistics sector. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. LEAPS 2025 is designed to be inclusive, inviting applications from a wide array of stakeholders across 13 categories. This includes not just traditional freight operators but also MSMEs, startups, and academic institutions, thereby fostering widespread innovation and participation. A primary goal of the initiative is to ensure that the practices within the logistics industry are harmonized with the strategic vision laid out in the National Logistics Policy (2022) and the integrated infrastructure planning of PM GatiShakti. This alignment is crucial for building a resilient, sustainable, and globally competitive logistics ecosystem in India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 is published by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. NITI Aayog is not the publishing body for this initiative. The initiative aims to create a national benchmarking framework for the logistics sector. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. LEAPS 2025 is designed to be inclusive, inviting applications from a wide array of stakeholders across 13 categories. This includes not just traditional freight operators but also MSMEs, startups, and academic institutions, thereby fostering widespread innovation and participation. A primary goal of the initiative is to ensure that the practices within the logistics industry are harmonized with the strategic vision laid out in the National Logistics Policy (2022) and the integrated infrastructure planning of PM GatiShakti. This alignment is crucial for building a resilient, sustainable, and globally competitive logistics ecosystem in India.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 initiative:

• It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the NITI Aayog to benchmark logistics performance.

• The initiative invites applications under various categories, including academic institutions and startups, to promote diversity.

• A key objective of LEAPS 2025 is to align industry practices with the National Logistics Policy (2022).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield (LEAPS) 2025 is published by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. NITI Aayog is not the publishing body for this initiative. The initiative aims to create a national benchmarking framework for the logistics sector.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. LEAPS 2025 is designed to be inclusive, inviting applications from a wide array of stakeholders across 13 categories. This includes not just traditional freight operators but also MSMEs, startups, and academic institutions, thereby fostering widespread innovation and participation.

• A primary goal of the initiative is to ensure that the practices within the logistics industry are harmonized with the strategic vision laid out in the National Logistics Policy (2022) and the integrated infrastructure planning of PM GatiShakti. This alignment is crucial for building a resilient, sustainable, and globally competitive logistics ecosystem in India.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Mission Drishti’, consider the following statements: It is a collaborative mission between ISRO and a private space-tech startup to develop multi-sensor satellite technology. The satellite will be equipped with both Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) and Hyperspectral sensors for all-weather monitoring. Once deployed, it is expected to have the highest resolution among all privately-built satellites in India. The mission envisions a constellation of satellites to create an integrated global observation network over the next few years. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Drishti is an initiative solely developed by GalaxEye Space, a private Bengaluru-based startup. It is not a collaborative mission with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), highlighting the growing capability of India’s private space sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite integrates Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) and Optical sensors, not hyperspectral sensors. The combination of SAR (which can see through clouds and at night) and traditional optical imaging is what provides its unique all-weather, 24×7 monitoring capability. Statement 3 is correct. The satellite is designed to offer a 5-meter resolution. This level of detail is among the highest in its category for privately built satellites in India, making it a significant advancement in the country’s commercial space-tech landscape. Statement 4 is correct. The long-term plan for Mission Drishti involves launching a constellation of 8–10 satellites over four years. This network will provide comprehensive and frequent global coverage, enabling continuous monitoring and data collection for various applications. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Drishti is an initiative solely developed by GalaxEye Space, a private Bengaluru-based startup. It is not a collaborative mission with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), highlighting the growing capability of India’s private space sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite integrates Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) and Optical sensors, not hyperspectral sensors. The combination of SAR (which can see through clouds and at night) and traditional optical imaging is what provides its unique all-weather, 24×7 monitoring capability. Statement 3 is correct. The satellite is designed to offer a 5-meter resolution. This level of detail is among the highest in its category for privately built satellites in India, making it a significant advancement in the country’s commercial space-tech landscape. Statement 4 is correct. The long-term plan for Mission Drishti involves launching a constellation of 8–10 satellites over four years. This network will provide comprehensive and frequent global coverage, enabling continuous monitoring and data collection for various applications.

#### 2. Question

With reference to ‘Mission Drishti’, consider the following statements:

• It is a collaborative mission between ISRO and a private space-tech startup to develop multi-sensor satellite technology.

• The satellite will be equipped with both Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) and Hyperspectral sensors for all-weather monitoring.

• Once deployed, it is expected to have the highest resolution among all privately-built satellites in India.

• The mission envisions a constellation of satellites to create an integrated global observation network over the next few years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Drishti is an initiative solely developed by GalaxEye Space, a private Bengaluru-based startup. It is not a collaborative mission with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), highlighting the growing capability of India’s private space sector.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The satellite integrates Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) and Optical sensors, not hyperspectral sensors. The combination of SAR (which can see through clouds and at night) and traditional optical imaging is what provides its unique all-weather, 24×7 monitoring capability.

• Statement 3 is correct. The satellite is designed to offer a 5-meter resolution. This level of detail is among the highest in its category for privately built satellites in India, making it a significant advancement in the country’s commercial space-tech landscape.

• Statement 4 is correct. The long-term plan for Mission Drishti involves launching a constellation of 8–10 satellites over four years. This network will provide comprehensive and frequent global coverage, enabling continuous monitoring and data collection for various applications.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mission Drishti: The satellite developed under this mission is the heaviest satellite ever built by a private entity in India. The mission aims to reduce India’s dependence on foreign Earth Observation data, thereby strengthening the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in the space sector. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The satellite for Mission Drishti weighs 160 kg, making it India’s largest and heaviest privately-built satellite to date. This demonstrates a significant scaling-up of capabilities within the country’s private space industry, moving from smaller nanosatellites to more complex and substantial platforms. Statement 2 is correct. A key significance of Mission Drishti is its contribution to the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) By developing indigenous, advanced Earth Observation capabilities, India can reduce its reliance on purchasing high-resolution satellite imagery and data from foreign sources for strategic purposes like defense, disaster management, and infrastructure monitoring. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The satellite for Mission Drishti weighs 160 kg, making it India’s largest and heaviest privately-built satellite to date. This demonstrates a significant scaling-up of capabilities within the country’s private space industry, moving from smaller nanosatellites to more complex and substantial platforms. Statement 2 is correct. A key significance of Mission Drishti is its contribution to the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) By developing indigenous, advanced Earth Observation capabilities, India can reduce its reliance on purchasing high-resolution satellite imagery and data from foreign sources for strategic purposes like defense, disaster management, and infrastructure monitoring.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mission Drishti:

• The satellite developed under this mission is the heaviest satellite ever built by a private entity in India.

• The mission aims to reduce India’s dependence on foreign Earth Observation data, thereby strengthening the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in the space sector.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The satellite for Mission Drishti weighs 160 kg, making it India’s largest and heaviest privately-built satellite to date. This demonstrates a significant scaling-up of capabilities within the country’s private space industry, moving from smaller nanosatellites to more complex and substantial platforms.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key significance of Mission Drishti is its contribution to the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) By developing indigenous, advanced Earth Observation capabilities, India can reduce its reliance on purchasing high-resolution satellite imagery and data from foreign sources for strategic purposes like defense, disaster management, and infrastructure monitoring.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fare Se Fursat’ scheme: It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and all major private airlines to cap airfares on high-density routes. Under the scheme, a single fixed airfare is applicable, but it is subject to dynamic pricing during peak festival seasons. The scheme is implemented by Air India Asset Holdings Limited (AIAHL) to promote regional connectivity. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Fare Se Fursat’ scheme is an initiative launched exclusively by Alliance Air, a government-owned regional carrier. It is not a joint initiative involving private airlines, and it focuses on select UDAN routes, not necessarily all high-density routes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The core feature of the scheme is the elimination of dynamic pricing. It introduces a single, fixed airfare for a route that remains constant irrespective of when the ticket is booked, even for last-minute travel. The price does not fluctuate based on demand or seasonality. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Alliance Air operates under Air India Asset Holdings Limited (AIAHL), the scheme is directly implemented by Alliance Air AIAHL is the holding company for the assets and liabilities of the erstwhile Air India, but Alliance Air is the operational entity running the airline and its schemes. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Fare Se Fursat’ scheme is an initiative launched exclusively by Alliance Air, a government-owned regional carrier. It is not a joint initiative involving private airlines, and it focuses on select UDAN routes, not necessarily all high-density routes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The core feature of the scheme is the elimination of dynamic pricing. It introduces a single, fixed airfare for a route that remains constant irrespective of when the ticket is booked, even for last-minute travel. The price does not fluctuate based on demand or seasonality. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Alliance Air operates under Air India Asset Holdings Limited (AIAHL), the scheme is directly implemented by Alliance Air AIAHL is the holding company for the assets and liabilities of the erstwhile Air India, but Alliance Air is the operational entity running the airline and its schemes.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fare Se Fursat’ scheme:

• It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and all major private airlines to cap airfares on high-density routes.

• Under the scheme, a single fixed airfare is applicable, but it is subject to dynamic pricing during peak festival seasons.

• The scheme is implemented by Air India Asset Holdings Limited (AIAHL) to promote regional connectivity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Fare Se Fursat’ scheme is an initiative launched exclusively by Alliance Air, a government-owned regional carrier. It is not a joint initiative involving private airlines, and it focuses on select UDAN routes, not necessarily all high-density routes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The core feature of the scheme is the elimination of dynamic pricing. It introduces a single, fixed airfare for a route that remains constant irrespective of when the ticket is booked, even for last-minute travel. The price does not fluctuate based on demand or seasonality.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While Alliance Air operates under Air India Asset Holdings Limited (AIAHL), the scheme is directly implemented by Alliance Air AIAHL is the holding company for the assets and liabilities of the erstwhile Air India, but Alliance Air is the operational entity running the airline and its schemes.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The concept of “useful knowledge,” central to Joel Mokyr’s work (2025 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences winner), is best described as the synergy between: (a) economic policies and market competition. (b) R&D subsidies and intellectual property rights. (c) capital accumulation and labor productivity. (d) propositional knowledge and prescriptive knowledge. Correct Solution: D Joel Mokyr’s concept of “useful knowledge” is the cornerstone of his explanation for the Industrial Revolution and sustained economic growth. He defines it as the powerful interaction between two types of knowledge: Propositional Knowledge (Theoretical): This refers to the scientific understanding of natural principles and phenomena (the “what” and “why”). It encompasses scientific theories, discoveries, and the general laws of nature. Prescriptive Knowledge (Practical): This refers to the practical, instructional knowledge of how to create and operate a technique or technology (the “how-to”). It includes engineering know-how, artisanal skills, and blueprints for machinery. Mokyr’s central argument is that sustained innovation became possible only when these two forms of knowledge began to reinforce each other in a positive feedback loop. Scientific discoveries provided a basis for new technologies, and the challenges of building new technologies, in turn, stimulated new scientific inquiry. This synergy is what distinguished the modern era of growth from previous periods of sporadic invention. Incorrect Solution: D Joel Mokyr’s concept of “useful knowledge” is the cornerstone of his explanation for the Industrial Revolution and sustained economic growth. He defines it as the powerful interaction between two types of knowledge: Propositional Knowledge (Theoretical): This refers to the scientific understanding of natural principles and phenomena (the “what” and “why”). It encompasses scientific theories, discoveries, and the general laws of nature. Prescriptive Knowledge (Practical): This refers to the practical, instructional knowledge of how to create and operate a technique or technology (the “how-to”). It includes engineering know-how, artisanal skills, and blueprints for machinery. Mokyr’s central argument is that sustained innovation became possible only when these two forms of knowledge began to reinforce each other in a positive feedback loop. Scientific discoveries provided a basis for new technologies, and the challenges of building new technologies, in turn, stimulated new scientific inquiry. This synergy is what distinguished the modern era of growth from previous periods of sporadic invention.

#### 5. Question

The concept of “useful knowledge,” central to Joel Mokyr’s work (2025 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences winner), is best described as the synergy between:

• (a) economic policies and market competition.

• (b) R&D subsidies and intellectual property rights.

• (c) capital accumulation and labor productivity.

• (d) propositional knowledge and prescriptive knowledge.

Solution: D

Joel Mokyr’s concept of “useful knowledge” is the cornerstone of his explanation for the Industrial Revolution and sustained economic growth. He defines it as the powerful interaction between two types of knowledge:

• Propositional Knowledge (Theoretical): This refers to the scientific understanding of natural principles and phenomena (the “what” and “why”). It encompasses scientific theories, discoveries, and the general laws of nature.

• Prescriptive Knowledge (Practical): This refers to the practical, instructional knowledge of how to create and operate a technique or technology (the “how-to”). It includes engineering know-how, artisanal skills, and blueprints for machinery.

Mokyr’s central argument is that sustained innovation became possible only when these two forms of knowledge began to reinforce each other in a positive feedback loop. Scientific discoveries provided a basis for new technologies, and the challenges of building new technologies, in turn, stimulated new scientific inquiry. This synergy is what distinguished the modern era of growth from previous periods of sporadic invention.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following physical characteristics is a key adaptation of the Indian wolf to its environment? (a) A dense, woolly undercoat for insulation. (b) A robust, heavy build for taking down large prey. (c) A light brown-grey coat for camouflage in scrublands. (d) Short limbs for navigating mountainous terrain. Correct Solution: C The physical characteristics of the Indian wolf are finely tuned for survival in the open, semi-arid, and grassland ecosystems of the Indian peninsula. Option (c) is correct. The Indian wolf has a light brown-grey coat with short fur. This coloration provides excellent camouflage, allowing it to blend in with the dry grasses and scrubby vegetation of its habitat. This is crucial for both ambushing prey and avoiding detection by humans. Option (a) is incorrect. It lacks a thick undercoat, which is an adaptation to dissipate heat in the hot Indian climate, unlike Himalayan or Eurasian wolves which need it for cold environments. Option (b) is incorrect. It has a smaller and leaner build, not a robust or heavy one. This body type is suited for endurance and speed in open terrains rather than overpowering large prey through sheer force. Option (d) is incorrect. It is described as having long limbs, which are advantageous for covering long distances and achieving high speeds during hunts in open plains, not short limbs for mountains. Incorrect Solution: C The physical characteristics of the Indian wolf are finely tuned for survival in the open, semi-arid, and grassland ecosystems of the Indian peninsula. Option (c) is correct. The Indian wolf has a light brown-grey coat with short fur. This coloration provides excellent camouflage, allowing it to blend in with the dry grasses and scrubby vegetation of its habitat. This is crucial for both ambushing prey and avoiding detection by humans. Option (a) is incorrect. It lacks a thick undercoat, which is an adaptation to dissipate heat in the hot Indian climate, unlike Himalayan or Eurasian wolves which need it for cold environments. Option (b) is incorrect. It has a smaller and leaner build, not a robust or heavy one. This body type is suited for endurance and speed in open terrains rather than overpowering large prey through sheer force. Option (d) is incorrect. It is described as having long limbs, which are advantageous for covering long distances and achieving high speeds during hunts in open plains, not short limbs for mountains.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following physical characteristics is a key adaptation of the Indian wolf to its environment?

• (a) A dense, woolly undercoat for insulation.

• (b) A robust, heavy build for taking down large prey.

• (c) A light brown-grey coat for camouflage in scrublands.

• (d) Short limbs for navigating mountainous terrain.

Solution: C

• The physical characteristics of the Indian wolf are finely tuned for survival in the open, semi-arid, and grassland ecosystems of the Indian peninsula.

• Option (c) is correct. The Indian wolf has a light brown-grey coat with short fur. This coloration provides excellent camouflage, allowing it to blend in with the dry grasses and scrubby vegetation of its habitat. This is crucial for both ambushing prey and avoiding detection by humans.

• Option (a) is incorrect. It lacks a thick undercoat, which is an adaptation to dissipate heat in the hot Indian climate, unlike Himalayan or Eurasian wolves which need it for cold environments.

• Option (b) is incorrect. It has a smaller and leaner build, not a robust or heavy one. This body type is suited for endurance and speed in open terrains rather than overpowering large prey through sheer force.

• Option (d) is incorrect. It is described as having long limbs, which are advantageous for covering long distances and achieving high speeds during hunts in open plains, not short limbs for mountains.

Solution: C

• The physical characteristics of the Indian wolf are finely tuned for survival in the open, semi-arid, and grassland ecosystems of the Indian peninsula.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points A primary function of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) that distinguishes it from many other humanitarian organizations is its role in: (a) leading global vaccination and disease eradication campaigns. (b) promoting sustainable development goals in developing nations. (c) acting as a neutral intermediary and guardian of International Humanitarian Law. (d) funding long-term infrastructure projects in post-disaster regions. Correct Solution: C The most distinctive and central function of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is its unique mandate under international law to act as a neutral and impartial intermediary during armed conflicts. This role is enshrined in the Geneva Conventions. As the guardian of International Humanitarian Law (IHL), the ICRC has special responsibilities that other NGOs typically do not, such as: Visiting prisoners of war and political detainees to monitor their treatment. Facilitating the exchange of messages between separated family members. Acting as a trusted intermediary in hostage exchanges and prisoner swaps, as seen in the Israel-Hamas conflict. While other organizations provide aid, the ICRC’s legally recognized status and its strict adherence to the principles of neutrality, impartiality, and independence allow it to operate in highly sensitive conflict environments and engage with all parties to a conflict. The Sawalkote Hydroelectric Project is a significant run-of-the-river hydropower project being developed in Jammu & Kashmir. It is situated on the Chenab River, a major west-flowing tributary of the Indus River. The project is located in the Ramban district of the union territory. Upon completion, it will be one of India’s largest hydroelectric projects in the Indus basin, with an installed capacity of 1,856 MW, and is expected to generate a substantial amount of clean energy. Incorrect Solution: C The most distinctive and central function of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is its unique mandate under international law to act as a neutral and impartial intermediary during armed conflicts. This role is enshrined in the Geneva Conventions. As the guardian of International Humanitarian Law (IHL), the ICRC has special responsibilities that other NGOs typically do not, such as: Visiting prisoners of war and political detainees to monitor their treatment. Facilitating the exchange of messages between separated family members. Acting as a trusted intermediary in hostage exchanges and prisoner swaps, as seen in the Israel-Hamas conflict. While other organizations provide aid, the ICRC’s legally recognized status and its strict adherence to the principles of neutrality, impartiality, and independence allow it to operate in highly sensitive conflict environments and engage with all parties to a conflict.

#### 7. Question

A primary function of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) that distinguishes it from many other humanitarian organizations is its role in:

• (a) leading global vaccination and disease eradication campaigns.

• (b) promoting sustainable development goals in developing nations.

• (c) acting as a neutral intermediary and guardian of International Humanitarian Law.

• (d) funding long-term infrastructure projects in post-disaster regions.

Solution: C

The most distinctive and central function of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is its unique mandate under international law to act as a neutral and impartial intermediary during armed conflicts. This role is enshrined in the Geneva Conventions. As the guardian of International Humanitarian Law (IHL), the ICRC has special responsibilities that other NGOs typically do not, such as:

• Visiting prisoners of war and political detainees to monitor their treatment.

• Facilitating the exchange of messages between separated family members.

• Acting as a trusted intermediary in hostage exchanges and prisoner swaps, as seen in the Israel-Hamas conflict.

While other organizations provide aid, the ICRC’s legally recognized status and its strict adherence to the principles of neutrality, impartiality, and independence allow it to operate in highly sensitive conflict environments and engage with all parties to a conflict.

• The Sawalkote Hydroelectric Project is a significant run-of-the-river hydropower project being developed in Jammu & Kashmir. It is situated on the Chenab River, a major west-flowing tributary of the Indus River. The project is located in the Ramban district of the union territory.

• Upon completion, it will be one of India’s largest hydroelectric projects in the Indus basin, with an installed capacity of 1,856 MW, and is expected to generate a substantial amount of clean energy.

Solution: C

• Visiting prisoners of war and political detainees to monitor their treatment.

• Facilitating the exchange of messages between separated family members.

• Acting as a trusted intermediary in hostage exchanges and prisoner swaps, as seen in the Israel-Hamas conflict.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Triple Elimination’ status achieved by the Maldives: The WHO validation requires a country to report zero new infant cases of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B for at least one year. Maldives is the first country in the South-East Asia region, but not the first in the world, to achieve this milestone. A key factor in this achievement was ensuring a high percentage of newborns receive the hepatitis B birth dose vaccination. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The criteria for WHO validation are stringent. A country must demonstrate zero new infant cases for at least two consecutive years, not just one. This ensures that the achievement is sustained and not a one-off statistical outcome. The country must also have robust monitoring and healthcare systems in place. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Maldives is not just the first in its region, but the first country in the world to be validated by the WHO for achieving “triple elimination” of mother-to-child transmission of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B. This makes it a historic global public health milestone. Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Maldives is built on a comprehensive public health strategy. A critical component was its highly effective immunization program, which ensures that over 95% of newborns receive the hepatitis B birth dose within 24 hours. This early intervention is crucial for preventing perinatal transmission of the virus and was a key pillar of the elimination strategy, along with universal antenatal screening for pregnant women. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The criteria for WHO validation are stringent. A country must demonstrate zero new infant cases for at least two consecutive years, not just one. This ensures that the achievement is sustained and not a one-off statistical outcome. The country must also have robust monitoring and healthcare systems in place. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Maldives is not just the first in its region, but the first country in the world to be validated by the WHO for achieving “triple elimination” of mother-to-child transmission of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B. This makes it a historic global public health milestone. Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Maldives is built on a comprehensive public health strategy. A critical component was its highly effective immunization program, which ensures that over 95% of newborns receive the hepatitis B birth dose within 24 hours. This early intervention is crucial for preventing perinatal transmission of the virus and was a key pillar of the elimination strategy, along with universal antenatal screening for pregnant women.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Triple Elimination’ status achieved by the Maldives:

• The WHO validation requires a country to report zero new infant cases of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B for at least one year.

• Maldives is the first country in the South-East Asia region, but not the first in the world, to achieve this milestone.

• A key factor in this achievement was ensuring a high percentage of newborns receive the hepatitis B birth dose vaccination.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The criteria for WHO validation are stringent. A country must demonstrate zero new infant cases for at least two consecutive years, not just one. This ensures that the achievement is sustained and not a one-off statistical outcome. The country must also have robust monitoring and healthcare systems in place.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Maldives is not just the first in its region, but the first country in the world to be validated by the WHO for achieving “triple elimination” of mother-to-child transmission of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B. This makes it a historic global public health milestone.

• Statement 3 is correct. The success of the Maldives is built on a comprehensive public health strategy. A critical component was its highly effective immunization program, which ensures that over 95% of newborns receive the hepatitis B birth dose within 24 hours. This early intervention is crucial for preventing perinatal transmission of the virus and was a key pillar of the elimination strategy, along with universal antenatal screening for pregnant women.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the dispute over Sir Creek: The dispute is a post-partition issue that emerged after the 1965 India-Pakistan war. Pakistan’s claim to the entire creek is based on a 1914 resolution between the Government of Bombay and the Ruler of Sindh. The 1968 International Tribunal that resolved the Rann of Kutch boundary dispute also settled the Sir Creek issue. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The dispute’s origins predate the partition of India. It dates back to the colonial era, specifically the 1914 resolution. It became an international dispute between India and Pakistan after 1947, not as a result of the 1965 war. Statement 2 is correct. Pakistan’s legal claim is rooted in its interpretation of the 1914 resolution, which it argues placed the boundary on the eastern bank of the creek, thereby allocating the entire waterway to the Sindh province (which later became part of Pakistan). Statement 3 is incorrect. The 1968 International Tribunal successfully adjudicated the broader boundary in the Rann of Kutch region, awarding 90% of the disputed territory to India. However, the issue of Sir Creek was explicitly left unresolved by the tribunal and remains a point of contention between the two countries. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The dispute’s origins predate the partition of India. It dates back to the colonial era, specifically the 1914 resolution. It became an international dispute between India and Pakistan after 1947, not as a result of the 1965 war. Statement 2 is correct. Pakistan’s legal claim is rooted in its interpretation of the 1914 resolution, which it argues placed the boundary on the eastern bank of the creek, thereby allocating the entire waterway to the Sindh province (which later became part of Pakistan). Statement 3 is incorrect. The 1968 International Tribunal successfully adjudicated the broader boundary in the Rann of Kutch region, awarding 90% of the disputed territory to India. However, the issue of Sir Creek was explicitly left unresolved by the tribunal and remains a point of contention between the two countries.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the dispute over Sir Creek:

• The dispute is a post-partition issue that emerged after the 1965 India-Pakistan war.

• Pakistan’s claim to the entire creek is based on a 1914 resolution between the Government of Bombay and the Ruler of Sindh.

• The 1968 International Tribunal that resolved the Rann of Kutch boundary dispute also settled the Sir Creek issue.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The dispute’s origins predate the partition of India. It dates back to the colonial era, specifically the 1914 resolution. It became an international dispute between India and Pakistan after 1947, not as a result of the 1965 war.

• Statement 2 is correct. Pakistan’s legal claim is rooted in its interpretation of the 1914 resolution, which it argues placed the boundary on the eastern bank of the creek, thereby allocating the entire waterway to the Sindh province (which later became part of Pakistan).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The 1968 International Tribunal successfully adjudicated the broader boundary in the Rann of Kutch region, awarding 90% of the disputed territory to India. However, the issue of Sir Creek was explicitly left unresolved by the tribunal and remains a point of contention between the two countries.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Government of India has launched the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ to achieve self-sufficiency and reduce import dependency. Statement-II: India is the world’s largest producer and consumer of pulses, yet it relies on imports to meet its domestic demand. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ with the explicit objective of boosting domestic production to achieve self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta) and reduce the country’s dependence on imported pulses. The mission focuses on key pulses like Tur, Urad, and Masoor. Statement-II is correct. India holds the unique position of being the largest producer, largest consumer, and also a significant importer of pulses globally. Despite substantial increases in domestic production over the past decade, a gap between demand and supply persists, necessitating imports to ensure nutritional security and price stability. Statement-II provides the direct and fundamental reason for the policy action described in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ with the explicit objective of boosting domestic production to achieve self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta) and reduce the country’s dependence on imported pulses. The mission focuses on key pulses like Tur, Urad, and Masoor. Statement-II is correct. India holds the unique position of being the largest producer, largest consumer, and also a significant importer of pulses globally. Despite substantial increases in domestic production over the past decade, a gap between demand and supply persists, necessitating imports to ensure nutritional security and price stability. Statement-II provides the direct and fundamental reason for the policy action described in Statement-I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Government of India has launched the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ to achieve self-sufficiency and reduce import dependency.

Statement-II: India is the world’s largest producer and consumer of pulses, yet it relies on imports to meet its domestic demand.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ with the explicit objective of boosting domestic production to achieve self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta) and reduce the country’s dependence on imported pulses. The mission focuses on key pulses like Tur, Urad, and Masoor.

• Statement-II is correct. India holds the unique position of being the largest producer, largest consumer, and also a significant importer of pulses globally. Despite substantial increases in domestic production over the past decade, a gap between demand and supply persists, necessitating imports to ensure nutritional security and price stability.

• Statement-II provides the direct and fundamental reason for the policy action described in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the direct and fundamental reason for the policy action described in Statement-I.

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