UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Cohort Connect 2025’, which was launched under the Phenome India programme, consider the following statements: The programme focuses mainly on investigating the genetic factors influencing infectious diseases, while non-communicable diseases (NCDs) are a secondary area of study. The primary aim of integrating multiple longitudinal cohort studies is to generate Western health data models for early detection and treatment in India. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While infectious disease interactions are part of the scope, the programme focuses primarily on the rising non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like diabetes, metabolic disorders, and neurological disorders, with an aim to examine how various factors influence these disease patterns in Indian populations. Statement 2 is incorrect. The program’s significance is precisely to provide “Indian data for Indian solutions,” thereby reducing dependence on Western health models. It aims to create a massive longitudinal dataset specific to India’s diverse genetic and cultural populations. The initiative leverages India’s current genomic efforts (10,000 human genomes sequenced) to set an ambitious goal of sequencing one million genomes. This data is crucial for enabling personalised treatment and prevention strategies tailored to the Indian population’s unique genetic profile. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While infectious disease interactions are part of the scope, the programme focuses primarily on the rising non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like diabetes, metabolic disorders, and neurological disorders, with an aim to examine how various factors influence these disease patterns in Indian populations. Statement 2 is incorrect. The program’s significance is precisely to provide “Indian data for Indian solutions,” thereby reducing dependence on Western health models. It aims to create a massive longitudinal dataset specific to India’s diverse genetic and cultural populations. The initiative leverages India’s current genomic efforts (10,000 human genomes sequenced) to set an ambitious goal of sequencing one million genomes. This data is crucial for enabling personalised treatment and prevention strategies tailored to the Indian population’s unique genetic profile.

#### 1. Question

With reference to ‘Cohort Connect 2025’, which was launched under the Phenome India programme, consider the following statements:

• The programme focuses mainly on investigating the genetic factors influencing infectious diseases, while non-communicable diseases (NCDs) are a secondary area of study.

• The primary aim of integrating multiple longitudinal cohort studies is to generate Western health data models for early detection and treatment in India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While infectious disease interactions are part of the scope, the programme focuses primarily on the rising non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like diabetes, metabolic disorders, and neurological disorders, with an aim to examine how various factors influence these disease patterns in Indian populations.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The program’s significance is precisely to provide “Indian data for Indian solutions,” thereby reducing dependence on Western health models. It aims to create a massive longitudinal dataset specific to India’s diverse genetic and cultural populations.

• The initiative leverages India’s current genomic efforts (10,000 human genomes sequenced) to set an ambitious goal of sequencing one million genomes. This data is crucial for enabling personalised treatment and prevention strategies tailored to the Indian population’s unique genetic profile.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the AI-based Locking Monitoring System ‘DRISHTI’: It is a joint development initiative of the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) and the Indian Railways’ Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO). The system uses computer vision and machine learning algorithms to provide real-time alerts for abnormalities like tampering or partial locking of freight wagon doors. The primary purpose of ‘DRISHTI’ is to enhance cargo security and reduce reliance on slow, labour-intensive manual inspections during long-haul freight operations. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘DRISHTI’ was developed through a joint innovation initiative between the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) and IIT Guwahati – Technology Innovation and Development Foundation (IITG TIDF), not RDSO. Statement 2 is correct. The system is AI-powered, utilising computer vision and machine learning to continuously monitor door positions and locking conditions and provide real-time alerts for security breaches, such as tampering. Statement 3 is correct. The aim is clearly stated as automating the detection of door issues, which strengthens cargo security by preventing theft/pilferage, and significantly improves operational efficiency by reducing the need for manual checks. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘DRISHTI’ was developed through a joint innovation initiative between the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) and IIT Guwahati – Technology Innovation and Development Foundation (IITG TIDF), not RDSO. Statement 2 is correct. The system is AI-powered, utilising computer vision and machine learning to continuously monitor door positions and locking conditions and provide real-time alerts for security breaches, such as tampering. Statement 3 is correct. The aim is clearly stated as automating the detection of door issues, which strengthens cargo security by preventing theft/pilferage, and significantly improves operational efficiency by reducing the need for manual checks.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the AI-based Locking Monitoring System ‘DRISHTI’:

• It is a joint development initiative of the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) and the Indian Railways’ Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO).

• The system uses computer vision and machine learning algorithms to provide real-time alerts for abnormalities like tampering or partial locking of freight wagon doors.

• The primary purpose of ‘DRISHTI’ is to enhance cargo security and reduce reliance on slow, labour-intensive manual inspections during long-haul freight operations.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘DRISHTI’ was developed through a joint innovation initiative between the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) and IIT Guwahati – Technology Innovation and Development Foundation (IITG TIDF), not RDSO.

• Statement 2 is correct. The system is AI-powered, utilising computer vision and machine learning to continuously monitor door positions and locking conditions and provide real-time alerts for security breaches, such as tampering.

• Statement 3 is correct. The aim is clearly stated as automating the detection of door issues, which strengthens cargo security by preventing theft/pilferage, and significantly improves operational efficiency by reducing the need for manual checks.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements most accurately describes the geographical and operational status of the New Mangalore Port (NMP)? (a) It is an inner-harbour, non-major port located on the coast of the Bay of Bengal, and is the primary maritime gateway for the state of Goa. (b) It is a major port established under the Major Port Trust Act, 1963, and handles crude oil import for refineries located in the Konkan region of Maharashtra. (c) It is a natural harbour and India's 10th major port, primarily handling iron ore and container cargo, and is situated south of the Gurupur River estuary. (d) It is an all-weather, deep inner-harbour major port, situated at Panambur on the Arabian Sea coast in Karnataka. Correct Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect; it is a major port and is located on the Arabian Sea coast (West Coast) in Karnataka, not the Bay of Bengal or Goa. Option (b) is incorrect; while it came under the 1963 Act (later superseded by the 2021 Act), it specifically handles crude oil import for MRPL (Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited) in Karnataka, not primarily for refineries in Maharashtra. Option (c) is incorrect; it is located north of the Gurupur (Phalguni) River estuary, not south. It was also declared India’s 9th Major Port (in 1974). Option (d) is correct. The New Mangalore Port (NMP) is an all-weather, deep inner-harbour major port located at Panambur, Mangaluru, on the Arabian Sea coast, and is the only major port in Karnataka. Incorrect Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect; it is a major port and is located on the Arabian Sea coast (West Coast) in Karnataka, not the Bay of Bengal or Goa. Option (b) is incorrect; while it came under the 1963 Act (later superseded by the 2021 Act), it specifically handles crude oil import for MRPL (Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited) in Karnataka, not primarily for refineries in Maharashtra. Option (c) is incorrect; it is located north of the Gurupur (Phalguni) River estuary, not south. It was also declared India’s 9th Major Port (in 1974). Option (d) is correct. The New Mangalore Port (NMP) is an all-weather, deep inner-harbour major port located at Panambur, Mangaluru, on the Arabian Sea coast, and is the only major port in Karnataka.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the geographical and operational status of the New Mangalore Port (NMP)?

• (a) It is an inner-harbour, non-major port located on the coast of the Bay of Bengal, and is the primary maritime gateway for the state of Goa.

• (b) It is a major port established under the Major Port Trust Act, 1963, and handles crude oil import for refineries located in the Konkan region of Maharashtra.

• (c) It is a natural harbour and India's 10th major port, primarily handling iron ore and container cargo, and is situated south of the Gurupur River estuary.

• (d) It is an all-weather, deep inner-harbour major port, situated at Panambur on the Arabian Sea coast in Karnataka.

Solution: D

Option (a) is incorrect; it is a major port and is located on the Arabian Sea coast (West Coast) in Karnataka, not the Bay of Bengal or Goa.

Option (b) is incorrect; while it came under the 1963 Act (later superseded by the 2021 Act), it specifically handles crude oil import for MRPL (Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited) in Karnataka, not primarily for refineries in Maharashtra.

Option (c) is incorrect; it is located north of the Gurupur (Phalguni) River estuary, not south. It was also declared India’s 9th Major Port (in 1974).

Option (d) is correct. The New Mangalore Port (NMP) is an all-weather, deep inner-harbour major port located at Panambur, Mangaluru, on the Arabian Sea coast, and is the only major port in Karnataka.

Solution: D

Option (a) is incorrect; it is a major port and is located on the Arabian Sea coast (West Coast) in Karnataka, not the Bay of Bengal or Goa.

Option (c) is incorrect; it is located north of the Gurupur (Phalguni) River estuary, not south. It was also declared India’s 9th Major Port (in 1974).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis A: Hepatitis A is highly prevalent in high-income countries, where outbreaks occur due to poor sanitation and lack of natural immunity in the population. It can result in acute liver failure, especially in adults, but most people recover fully and gain lifelong immunity. It is a waterborne disease that is exclusively transmitted through the ingestion of sewage-contaminated water and not through direct contact. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Hepatitis A is highly prevalent in low- and middle-income regions with poor sanitation, where most children get infected early. It has low prevalence in high-income countries, though outbreaks occur in specific risk groups. Statement 2 is correct. Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, but it can lead to severe hepatitis or acute liver failure, particularly in adults. Recovery is generally full, leading to lifelong immunity. Statement 3 is incorrect. While waterborne outbreaks linked to sewage contamination do occur, transmission is via the faeco-oral route, which includes ingestion of contaminated food or water, as well as direct contact with an infected person (e.g., poor hygiene, oral-anal sexual contact). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Hepatitis A is highly prevalent in low- and middle-income regions with poor sanitation, where most children get infected early. It has low prevalence in high-income countries, though outbreaks occur in specific risk groups. Statement 2 is correct. Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, but it can lead to severe hepatitis or acute liver failure, particularly in adults. Recovery is generally full, leading to lifelong immunity. Statement 3 is incorrect. While waterborne outbreaks linked to sewage contamination do occur, transmission is via the faeco-oral route, which includes ingestion of contaminated food or water, as well as direct contact with an infected person (e.g., poor hygiene, oral-anal sexual contact).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis A:

• Hepatitis A is highly prevalent in high-income countries, where outbreaks occur due to poor sanitation and lack of natural immunity in the population.

• It can result in acute liver failure, especially in adults, but most people recover fully and gain lifelong immunity.

• It is a waterborne disease that is exclusively transmitted through the ingestion of sewage-contaminated water and not through direct contact.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Hepatitis A is highly prevalent in low- and middle-income regions with poor sanitation, where most children get infected early. It has low prevalence in high-income countries, though outbreaks occur in specific risk groups.

• Statement 2 is correct. Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, but it can lead to severe hepatitis or acute liver failure, particularly in adults. Recovery is generally full, leading to lifelong immunity.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While waterborne outbreaks linked to sewage contamination do occur, transmission is via the faeco-oral route, which includes ingestion of contaminated food or water, as well as direct contact with an infected person (e.g., poor hygiene, oral-anal sexual contact).

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Public health experts are urging for the inclusion of Hepatitis A vaccination in India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). In India’s health governance structure, the authoritative body whose recommendations primarily guide the formulation of the National Vaccine Policy and the inclusion of new vaccines into the UIP is: (a) The National Health Authority (NHA) (b) The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (c) The National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI) (d) The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) Correct Solution: C The correct body is the National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI). NTAGI is India’s premier expert body providing recommendations to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on vaccines and immunisation practices, including the introduction of new vaccines into the UIP. The UIP’s strategy is explicitly guided by NTAGI recommendations. NHA is responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat. ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research. CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs and medical devices. Incorrect Solution: C The correct body is the National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI). NTAGI is India’s premier expert body providing recommendations to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on vaccines and immunisation practices, including the introduction of new vaccines into the UIP. The UIP’s strategy is explicitly guided by NTAGI recommendations. NHA is responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat. ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research. CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs and medical devices.

#### 5. Question

Public health experts are urging for the inclusion of Hepatitis A vaccination in India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). In India’s health governance structure, the authoritative body whose recommendations primarily guide the formulation of the National Vaccine Policy and the inclusion of new vaccines into the UIP is:

• (a) The National Health Authority (NHA)

• (b) The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

• (c) The National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI)

• (d) The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)

Solution: C

The correct body is the National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI). NTAGI is India’s premier expert body providing recommendations to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on vaccines and immunisation practices, including the introduction of new vaccines into the UIP. The UIP’s strategy is explicitly guided by NTAGI recommendations. NHA is responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat. ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research. CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs and medical devices.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following terms best describes the Cohort Connect 2025 program’s central goal of generating large-scale, India-specific health data for disease prediction and public health planning? (a) Evidence-Based Medicine (b) Adaptive Trials (c) Tele-Medicine (d) Precision Medicine Correct Solution: D The central aim of Cohort Connect 2025 is to generate large-scale, India-specific health data using genome sequencing and biomarkers to enable early detection, personalised treatment, and prevention strategies tailored to India’s population. This goal is the definition of Precision Medicine, which aims to tailor treatment and prevention strategies to the individual’s unique genetic and environmental profile. Evidence-Based Medicine is the practice of using current best evidence in making decisions. Tele-Medicine is the delivery of health services via technology. Adaptive Trials are clinical trial designs that allow modifications during the trial. Incorrect Solution: D The central aim of Cohort Connect 2025 is to generate large-scale, India-specific health data using genome sequencing and biomarkers to enable early detection, personalised treatment, and prevention strategies tailored to India’s population. This goal is the definition of Precision Medicine, which aims to tailor treatment and prevention strategies to the individual’s unique genetic and environmental profile. Evidence-Based Medicine is the practice of using current best evidence in making decisions. Tele-Medicine is the delivery of health services via technology. Adaptive Trials are clinical trial designs that allow modifications during the trial.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following terms best describes the Cohort Connect 2025 program’s central goal of generating large-scale, India-specific health data for disease prediction and public health planning?

• (a) Evidence-Based Medicine

• (b) Adaptive Trials

• (c) Tele-Medicine

• (d) Precision Medicine

Solution: D

• The central aim of Cohort Connect 2025 is to generate large-scale, India-specific health data using genome sequencing and biomarkers to enable early detection, personalised treatment, and prevention strategies tailored to India’s population. This goal is the definition of Precision Medicine, which aims to tailor treatment and prevention strategies to the individual’s unique genetic and environmental profile.

• Evidence-Based Medicine is the practice of using current best evidence in making decisions.

• Tele-Medicine is the delivery of health services via technology.

• Adaptive Trials are clinical trial designs that allow modifications during the trial.

Solution: D

• Evidence-Based Medicine is the practice of using current best evidence in making decisions.

• Tele-Medicine is the delivery of health services via technology.

• Adaptive Trials are clinical trial designs that allow modifications during the trial.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Cornea and its features. The cornea is the transparent, dome-shaped outer layer that serves as a protective barrier and is highly sensitive, possessing a high density of pain receptors. The cornea comprises only three distinct layers, with the Stroma being the thickest layer. It is generally not a self-healing organ, and minor injuries often require surgical intervention to prevent scarring. The primary function of the cornea is to act like a window, allowing light to enter and focus on the retina for clear vision. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The cornea is described as the transparent, dome-shaped outer layer at the front of the eye. Its structure acts as a protective barrier against external factors. Critically, it is highly sensitive, possessing a high density of pain receptors (300–600 times more than skin), which triggers quick reflex protection. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cornea is known to have six layers: Epithelium, Bowman’s Layer, Stroma, Pre-Descemet’s (Dua’s) Layer, Descemet’s Layer, and Endothelium. Statement 3 is incorrect. The cornea is self-healing, and minor injuries repair rapidly. Only deeper damage, which leads to scarring or clouding, typically requires a corneal transplant surgery to restore vision. Statement 4 is correct. The main function of the cornea is described as acting like a window, allowing light to enter and focus on the retina. This light-focusing property, along with maintaining eye structure and fluid balance, is essential for vision clarity. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The cornea is described as the transparent, dome-shaped outer layer at the front of the eye. Its structure acts as a protective barrier against external factors. Critically, it is highly sensitive, possessing a high density of pain receptors (300–600 times more than skin), which triggers quick reflex protection. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cornea is known to have six layers: Epithelium, Bowman’s Layer, Stroma, Pre-Descemet’s (Dua’s) Layer, Descemet’s Layer, and Endothelium. Statement 3 is incorrect. The cornea is self-healing, and minor injuries repair rapidly. Only deeper damage, which leads to scarring or clouding, typically requires a corneal transplant surgery to restore vision. Statement 4 is correct. The main function of the cornea is described as acting like a window, allowing light to enter and focus on the retina. This light-focusing property, along with maintaining eye structure and fluid balance, is essential for vision clarity.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Cornea and its features.

• The cornea is the transparent, dome-shaped outer layer that serves as a protective barrier and is highly sensitive, possessing a high density of pain receptors.

• The cornea comprises only three distinct layers, with the Stroma being the thickest layer.

• It is generally not a self-healing organ, and minor injuries often require surgical intervention to prevent scarring.

• The primary function of the cornea is to act like a window, allowing light to enter and focus on the retina for clear vision.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The cornea is described as the transparent, dome-shaped outer layer at the front of the eye. Its structure acts as a protective barrier against external factors. Critically, it is highly sensitive, possessing a high density of pain receptors (300–600 times more than skin), which triggers quick reflex protection.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The cornea is known to have six layers: Epithelium, Bowman’s Layer, Stroma, Pre-Descemet’s (Dua’s) Layer, Descemet’s Layer, and Endothelium.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The cornea is self-healing, and minor injuries repair rapidly. Only deeper damage, which leads to scarring or clouding, typically requires a corneal transplant surgery to restore vision.

• Statement 4 is correct. The main function of the cornea is described as acting like a window, allowing light to enter and focus on the retina. This light-focusing property, along with maintaining eye structure and fluid balance, is essential for vision clarity.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The cornea is known to have six layers: Epithelium, Bowman’s Layer, Stroma, Pre-Descemet’s (Dua’s) Layer, Descemet’s Layer, and Endothelium.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most accurate statement about the application of lab-grown milk, also known as animal-free dairy? (a) It is mainly suited for direct consumption as a beverage, but its proteins cannot be successfully converted into curd or cheese. (b) It is currently being developed to be nutritionally superior to traditional milk by excluding all fats and carbohydrates. (c) It contains actual dairy proteins identical to cow’s milk, making it suitable for traditional dairy uses like cheese, curd, and yogurt. (d) Its successful commercial rollout relies on completely removing all nine essential amino acids to make it a novelty food. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The core feature of animal-free dairy is that it contains actual casein and whey proteins—identical to cow’s milk—making it functionally viable for processes that rely on these proteins, such as making cheese, curd, and yogurt. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The core feature of animal-free dairy is that it contains actual casein and whey proteins—identical to cow’s milk—making it functionally viable for processes that rely on these proteins, such as making cheese, curd, and yogurt.

#### 8. Question

Which one of the following is the most accurate statement about the application of lab-grown milk, also known as animal-free dairy?

• (a) It is mainly suited for direct consumption as a beverage, but its proteins cannot be successfully converted into curd or cheese.

• (b) It is currently being developed to be nutritionally superior to traditional milk by excluding all fats and carbohydrates.

• (c) It contains actual dairy proteins identical to cow’s milk, making it suitable for traditional dairy uses like cheese, curd, and yogurt.

• (d) Its successful commercial rollout relies on completely removing all nine essential amino acids to make it a novelty food.

Solution: C

• Option (c) is correct. The core feature of animal-free dairy is that it contains actual casein and whey proteins—identical to cow’s milk—making it functionally viable for processes that rely on these proteins, such as making cheese, curd, and yogurt.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) system: Statement I: The inauguration of the Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) system at NTPC NETRA marks India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium energy storage. Statement II: The development of the VRFB system promotes the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependence on imported lithium. Statement III: The technology enhances renewable energy reliability by providing long-duration energy storage (LDES) for excess solar and wind power. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The VRFB installation is presented as a breakthrough and India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium Statement II is correct. Reducing dependence on imported materials like lithium aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-Reliant India) initiative, which is a key goal. Statement III is correct. The VRFB’s primary application is to enhance renewable energy reliability through its capacity for Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES). Statement I describes an outcome (entry into non-lithium storage). Statement II (reducing import dependence/Atmanirbhar Bharat) provides the strategic, national explanation for why India would focus on a non-lithium Statement III (enhancing reliability) explains the technical application of LDES, which is a feature of the system, not the reason for choosing non-lithium over lithium. Therefore, Statement II offers the stronger explanation for the non-lithium focus mentioned in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The VRFB installation is presented as a breakthrough and India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium Statement II is correct. Reducing dependence on imported materials like lithium aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-Reliant India) initiative, which is a key goal. Statement III is correct. The VRFB’s primary application is to enhance renewable energy reliability through its capacity for Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES). Statement I describes an outcome (entry into non-lithium storage). Statement II (reducing import dependence/Atmanirbhar Bharat) provides the strategic, national explanation for why India would focus on a non-lithium Statement III (enhancing reliability) explains the technical application of LDES, which is a feature of the system, not the reason for choosing non-lithium over lithium. Therefore, Statement II offers the stronger explanation for the non-lithium focus mentioned in Statement I.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) system:

Statement I: The inauguration of the Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) system at NTPC NETRA marks India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium energy storage.

Statement II: The development of the VRFB system promotes the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependence on imported lithium.

Statement III: The technology enhances renewable energy reliability by providing long-duration energy storage (LDES) for excess solar and wind power.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The VRFB installation is presented as a breakthrough and India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium

• Statement II is correct. Reducing dependence on imported materials like lithium aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-Reliant India) initiative, which is a key goal.

• Statement III is correct. The VRFB’s primary application is to enhance renewable energy reliability through its capacity for Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES).

• Statement I describes an outcome (entry into non-lithium storage). Statement II (reducing import dependence/Atmanirbhar Bharat) provides the strategic, national explanation for why India would focus on a non-lithium Statement III (enhancing reliability) explains the technical application of LDES, which is a feature of the system, not the reason for choosing non-lithium over lithium. Therefore, Statement II offers the stronger explanation for the non-lithium focus mentioned in Statement I.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The VRFB installation is presented as a breakthrough and India’s entry into next-generation, non-lithium

• Statement II is correct. Reducing dependence on imported materials like lithium aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-Reliant India) initiative, which is a key goal.

• Statement III is correct. The VRFB’s primary application is to enhance renewable energy reliability through its capacity for Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES).

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FRA) Act, 2001: The Act is India’s first sui generis legal framework and is implemented under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The National Gene Fund, established under the Act, is primarily used to channel benefit-sharing fees and support in-situ conservation efforts. Breeders are granted exclusive rights for a protected variety, but researchers are exempt and can use the variety for experimentation and developing new varieties. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Act is India’s first sui generis legal framework for plant variety protection, it is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 2 is correct. The National Gene Fund is created to channel benefit-sharing fees and support crucial activities like in-situ conservation and rewarding farmers who are conservationists. Statement 3 is correct. The Act ensures Breeders’ Rights (exclusive commercial rights) while maintaining Researchers’ Exemption, which allows scientists to use the registered variety for further experimentation and varietal development, promoting open scientific access and innovation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Act is India’s first sui generis legal framework for plant variety protection, it is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 2 is correct. The National Gene Fund is created to channel benefit-sharing fees and support crucial activities like in-situ conservation and rewarding farmers who are conservationists. Statement 3 is correct. The Act ensures Breeders’ Rights (exclusive commercial rights) while maintaining Researchers’ Exemption, which allows scientists to use the registered variety for further experimentation and varietal development, promoting open scientific access and innovation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FRA) Act, 2001:

• The Act is India’s first sui generis legal framework and is implemented under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• The National Gene Fund, established under the Act, is primarily used to channel benefit-sharing fees and support in-situ conservation efforts.

• Breeders are granted exclusive rights for a protected variety, but researchers are exempt and can use the variety for experimentation and developing new varieties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Act is India’s first sui generis legal framework for plant variety protection, it is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• Statement 2 is correct. The National Gene Fund is created to channel benefit-sharing fees and support crucial activities like in-situ conservation and rewarding farmers who are conservationists.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Act ensures Breeders’ Rights (exclusive commercial rights) while maintaining Researchers’ Exemption, which allows scientists to use the registered variety for further experimentation and varietal development, promoting open scientific access and innovation.

Solution: B

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