UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the primary objective of the Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN)? (a) To establish a military alliance among Quad countries for maritime security operations. (b) To create a shared framework for civilian-led disaster response coordination and efficient humanitarian aid deployment. (c) To promote free trade agreements and reduce tariffs on logistical goods within the Indo-Pacific region. (d) To develop joint surveillance mechanisms for monitoring illegal fishing and resource exploitation. Correct Solution: b) The Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) is a multilateral initiative by the Quad countries (India, Australia, Japan, and the US) specifically designed to develop a shared logistics framework that enables civilian disaster response coordination across the Indo-Pacific region. Its core aim is to support faster, efficient deployment of humanitarian aid through shared logistics infrastructure and enhanced interoperability. Incorrect Solution: b) The Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) is a multilateral initiative by the Quad countries (India, Australia, Japan, and the US) specifically designed to develop a shared logistics framework that enables civilian disaster response coordination across the Indo-Pacific region. Its core aim is to support faster, efficient deployment of humanitarian aid through shared logistics infrastructure and enhanced interoperability.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following best describes the primary objective of the Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN)?

• (a) To establish a military alliance among Quad countries for maritime security operations.

• (b) To create a shared framework for civilian-led disaster response coordination and efficient humanitarian aid deployment.

• (c) To promote free trade agreements and reduce tariffs on logistical goods within the Indo-Pacific region.

• (d) To develop joint surveillance mechanisms for monitoring illegal fishing and resource exploitation.

Solution: b)

The Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) is a multilateral initiative by the Quad countries (India, Australia, Japan, and the US) specifically designed to develop a shared logistics framework that enables civilian disaster response coordination across the Indo-Pacific region. Its core aim is to support faster, efficient deployment of humanitarian aid through shared logistics infrastructure and enhanced interoperability.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With respect to the Revised SHAKTI Policy 2025, consider the following statements: It aims to replace the previous multiple coal linkage categories with a simplified two-window structure for thermal power plants. A key objective is to discourage coal import substitution by ensuring cheaper availability of imported coal for coastal plants. The policy establishes an Empowered Committee headed jointly by the Union Minister of Power and Union Minister of Coal to resolve implementation issues. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct. A significant reform under the Revised SHAKTI Policy 2025 is the simplification of coal allocation by mapping the previous eight coal linkage categories to just two windows: Window-I (Notified Price) and Window-II (Premium Basis). This is intended to enhance transparency and flexibility. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the stated objectives of the policy is to encourage coal import substitution. By allowing imported coal-based (ICB) plants to access domestic coal under Window-II, the policy aims to reduce reliance on imported coal and save foreign exchange, not discourage substitution. Statement 3 is incorrect. While an Empowered Committee is indeed established to resolve implementation issues swiftly, it is headed by the Secretaries of the Ministry of Power and Ministry of Coal, along with the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), not by the Union Ministers of these ministries. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct. A significant reform under the Revised SHAKTI Policy 2025 is the simplification of coal allocation by mapping the previous eight coal linkage categories to just two windows: Window-I (Notified Price) and Window-II (Premium Basis). This is intended to enhance transparency and flexibility. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the stated objectives of the policy is to encourage coal import substitution. By allowing imported coal-based (ICB) plants to access domestic coal under Window-II, the policy aims to reduce reliance on imported coal and save foreign exchange, not discourage substitution. Statement 3 is incorrect. While an Empowered Committee is indeed established to resolve implementation issues swiftly, it is headed by the Secretaries of the Ministry of Power and Ministry of Coal, along with the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), not by the Union Ministers of these ministries.

#### 2. Question

With respect to the Revised SHAKTI Policy 2025, consider the following statements:

• It aims to replace the previous multiple coal linkage categories with a simplified two-window structure for thermal power plants.

• A key objective is to discourage coal import substitution by ensuring cheaper availability of imported coal for coastal plants.

• The policy establishes an Empowered Committee headed jointly by the Union Minister of Power and Union Minister of Coal to resolve implementation issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 only

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is correct. A significant reform under the Revised SHAKTI Policy 2025 is the simplification of coal allocation by mapping the previous eight coal linkage categories to just two windows: Window-I (Notified Price) and Window-II (Premium Basis). This is intended to enhance transparency and flexibility.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the stated objectives of the policy is to encourage coal import substitution. By allowing imported coal-based (ICB) plants to access domestic coal under Window-II, the policy aims to reduce reliance on imported coal and save foreign exchange, not discourage substitution.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While an Empowered Committee is indeed established to resolve implementation issues swiftly, it is headed by the Secretaries of the Ministry of Power and Ministry of Coal, along with the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), not by the Union Ministers of these ministries.

Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Statement-I: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) derives its legal powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. Statement-II: The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is not a statutory body in itself but derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. This Act provides the legal basis for its operations. Statement-II is correct. The CBI was officially established by a Home Ministry resolution on April 1, 1963, following the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. This committee played a crucial role in conceptualizing a premier agency to tackle corruption. However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. While the Santhanam Committee recommended the CBI’s establishment, the CBI’s legal powers to investigate are derived from the pre-existing DSPE Act, 1946. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is not a statutory body in itself but derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. This Act provides the legal basis for its operations. Statement-II is correct. The CBI was officially established by a Home Ministry resolution on April 1, 1963, following the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. This committee played a crucial role in conceptualizing a premier agency to tackle corruption. However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. While the Santhanam Committee recommended the CBI’s establishment, the CBI’s legal powers to investigate are derived from the pre-existing DSPE Act, 1946.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Statement-I: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) derives its legal powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946.

Statement-II: The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

• Statement-I is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is not a statutory body in itself but derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. This Act provides the legal basis for its operations.

• Statement-II is correct. The CBI was officially established by a Home Ministry resolution on April 1, 1963, following the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. This committee played a crucial role in conceptualizing a premier agency to tackle corruption.

• However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. While the Santhanam Committee recommended the CBI’s establishment, the CBI’s legal powers to investigate are derived from the pre-existing DSPE Act, 1946.

Solution: b)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following National Waterway (List-I) with its corresponding River System (List-II) and a significant state it passes through (List-III). List-I (National Waterway) List-II (River System) List-III (Significant State) 1. NW-1 A. Brahmaputra River X. Assam 2. NW-2 B. Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly Y. Uttar Pradesh 3. NW-3 C. West Coast Canal System Z. Kerala How many of the above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system (B) and passes through several states, including Uttar Pradesh (Y), Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. So, 1-B-Y is a correct match. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is on the Brahmaputra River (A) and is primarily located in the state of Assam (X), connecting Dhubri to Sadiya. So, 2-A-X is a correct match. National Waterway 3 (NW-3), also known as the West Coast Canal, runs from Kollam to Kottapuram in Kerala (Z) and includes the Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals. So, 3-C-Z is a correct match. Incorrect Solution: a) National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system (B) and passes through several states, including Uttar Pradesh (Y), Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. So, 1-B-Y is a correct match. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is on the Brahmaputra River (A) and is primarily located in the state of Assam (X), connecting Dhubri to Sadiya. So, 2-A-X is a correct match. National Waterway 3 (NW-3), also known as the West Coast Canal, runs from Kollam to Kottapuram in Kerala (Z) and includes the Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals. So, 3-C-Z is a correct match.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following National Waterway (List-I) with its corresponding River System (List-II) and a significant state it passes through (List-III).

List-I (National Waterway) | List-II (River System) | List-III (Significant State)

1.NW-1 | A. Brahmaputra River | X. Assam
2.NW-2 | B. Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly | Y. Uttar Pradesh
3.NW-3 | C. West Coast Canal System | Z. Kerala

How many of the above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system (B) and passes through several states, including Uttar Pradesh (Y), Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. So, 1-B-Y is a correct match.

• National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is on the Brahmaputra River (A) and is primarily located in the state of Assam (X), connecting Dhubri to Sadiya. So, 2-A-X is a correct match.

National Waterway 3 (NW-3), also known as the West Coast Canal, runs from Kollam to Kottapuram in Kerala (Z) and includes the Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals. So, 3-C-Z is a correct match.

Solution: a)

• National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is on the Brahmaputra River (A) and is primarily located in the state of Assam (X), connecting Dhubri to Sadiya. So, 2-A-X is a correct match.

National Waterway 3 (NW-3), also known as the West Coast Canal, runs from Kollam to Kottapuram in Kerala (Z) and includes the Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals. So, 3-C-Z is a correct match.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Human Development Index (HDI) and its components: The HDI score ranges from 0 to 1, with a higher score indicating a higher level of human development. The education component of the HDI gives equal weightage to adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio. The Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) will always be equal to or lower than the HDI for any country. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The HDI is a normalized index with values ranging between 0 and 1. A score closer to 1 signifies a higher level of achievement in human development, while a score closer to 0 indicates a lower level. Statement 2 is incorrect. The education component of the HDI is currently measured by two indicators: mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and older, and expected years of schooling for children of school-entering age. It does not use adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio in its current methodology; these were used in older versions. Statement 3 is correct. The Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) adjusts the HDI for inequalities in the distribution of health, education, and income. Since inequality in any dimension reduces the overall level of human development, the IHDI will be equal to the HDI only if there is perfect equality. In all other cases (i.e., with any level of inequality), the IHDI will be lower than the HDI. The difference between the HDI and IHDI represents the “loss” in human development due to inequality. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The HDI is a normalized index with values ranging between 0 and 1. A score closer to 1 signifies a higher level of achievement in human development, while a score closer to 0 indicates a lower level. Statement 2 is incorrect. The education component of the HDI is currently measured by two indicators: mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and older, and expected years of schooling for children of school-entering age. It does not use adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio in its current methodology; these were used in older versions. Statement 3 is correct. The Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) adjusts the HDI for inequalities in the distribution of health, education, and income. Since inequality in any dimension reduces the overall level of human development, the IHDI will be equal to the HDI only if there is perfect equality. In all other cases (i.e., with any level of inequality), the IHDI will be lower than the HDI. The difference between the HDI and IHDI represents the “loss” in human development due to inequality.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Human Development Index (HDI) and its components:

• The HDI score ranges from 0 to 1, with a higher score indicating a higher level of human development.

• The education component of the HDI gives equal weightage to adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio.

• The Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) will always be equal to or lower than the HDI for any country.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The HDI is a normalized index with values ranging between 0 and 1. A score closer to 1 signifies a higher level of achievement in human development, while a score closer to 0 indicates a lower level.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The education component of the HDI is currently measured by two indicators: mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and older, and expected years of schooling for children of school-entering age. It does not use adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio in its current methodology; these were used in older versions.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) adjusts the HDI for inequalities in the distribution of health, education, and income. Since inequality in any dimension reduces the overall level of human development, the IHDI will be equal to the HDI only if there is perfect equality. In all other cases (i.e., with any level of inequality), the IHDI will be lower than the HDI. The difference between the HDI and IHDI represents the “loss” in human development due to inequality.

Solution: b)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Match the Civil Defence activity (List-I) with its primary objective (List-II): List-I (Civil Defence Activity) List-II (Primary Objective) A. Warden Service 1. Providing immediate medical care to the injured B. Casualty Service 2. Disseminating warnings and ensuring public preparedness at local level C. Rescue Service 3. Extinguishing fires and preventing their spread D. Depot and Transport Service 4. Extricating trapped persons from damaged structures 5. Ensuring availability and movement of resources and personnel Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 d) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: a) The Warden Service forms the backbone of Civil Defence at the community level. Wardens are responsible for disseminating warnings, guiding the public to shelters, reporting damage, and generally ensuring public preparedness and response within their designated areas (A-2). The Casualty Service is primarily focused on providing first aid and immediate medical care to those injured during an emergency, as well as organizing their evacuation to hospitals if necessary (B-1). The Rescue Service is tasked with locating and extricating individuals who may be trapped in collapsed or damaged buildings or other hazardous situations (C-4). D. The Depot and Transport Service is responsible for managing Civil Defence stores, equipment, and supplies, and for providing the necessary transportation for personnel, casualties, and materials during emergency operations (D-5). Incorrect Solution: a) The Warden Service forms the backbone of Civil Defence at the community level. Wardens are responsible for disseminating warnings, guiding the public to shelters, reporting damage, and generally ensuring public preparedness and response within their designated areas (A-2). The Casualty Service is primarily focused on providing first aid and immediate medical care to those injured during an emergency, as well as organizing their evacuation to hospitals if necessary (B-1). The Rescue Service is tasked with locating and extricating individuals who may be trapped in collapsed or damaged buildings or other hazardous situations (C-4). D. The Depot and Transport Service is responsible for managing Civil Defence stores, equipment, and supplies, and for providing the necessary transportation for personnel, casualties, and materials during emergency operations (D-5).

#### 6. Question

Match the Civil Defence activity (List-I) with its primary objective (List-II):

List-I (Civil Defence Activity) | List-II (Primary Objective)

A. Warden Service | 1. Providing immediate medical care to the injured

B. Casualty Service | 2. Disseminating warnings and ensuring public preparedness at local level

C. Rescue Service | 3. Extinguishing fires and preventing their spread

D. Depot and Transport Service | 4. Extricating trapped persons from damaged structures

| 5. Ensuring availability and movement of resources and personnel

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5

• b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• d) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2

Solution: a)

• The Warden Service forms the backbone of Civil Defence at the community level. Wardens are responsible for disseminating warnings, guiding the public to shelters, reporting damage, and generally ensuring public preparedness and response within their designated areas (A-2).

• The Casualty Service is primarily focused on providing first aid and immediate medical care to those injured during an emergency, as well as organizing their evacuation to hospitals if necessary (B-1).

• The Rescue Service is tasked with locating and extricating individuals who may be trapped in collapsed or damaged buildings or other hazardous situations (C-4).

D. The Depot and Transport Service is responsible for managing Civil Defence stores, equipment, and supplies, and for providing the necessary transportation for personnel, casualties, and materials during emergency operations (D-5).

Solution: a)

• The Rescue Service is tasked with locating and extricating individuals who may be trapped in collapsed or damaged buildings or other hazardous situations (C-4).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Anak Krakatau volcano, known for its recent eruptive activity, is located in which of the following geographical regions? a) The Hawaiian archipelago in the Pacific Ocean b) The Kamchatka Peninsula in Far East Russia c) The Aegean Sea, near Greece d) The Sunda Strait, between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia Correct Solution: d) Anak Krakatau, meaning “Child of Krakatoa,” is a volcanic island that emerged from the caldera formed after the catastrophic 1883 eruption of Krakatoa. It is located in the Sunda Strait, which lies between the major Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. This region is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for its intense seismic and volcanic activity due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate. Incorrect Solution: d) Anak Krakatau, meaning “Child of Krakatoa,” is a volcanic island that emerged from the caldera formed after the catastrophic 1883 eruption of Krakatoa. It is located in the Sunda Strait, which lies between the major Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. This region is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for its intense seismic and volcanic activity due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.

#### 7. Question

The Anak Krakatau volcano, known for its recent eruptive activity, is located in which of the following geographical regions?

• a) The Hawaiian archipelago in the Pacific Ocean

• b) The Kamchatka Peninsula in Far East Russia

• c) The Aegean Sea, near Greece

• d) The Sunda Strait, between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia

Solution: d)

• Anak Krakatau, meaning “Child of Krakatoa,” is a volcanic island that emerged from the caldera formed after the catastrophic 1883 eruption of Krakatoa. It is located in the Sunda Strait, which lies between the major Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra.

This region is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for its intense seismic and volcanic activity due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.

Solution: d)

This region is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for its intense seismic and volcanic activity due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Mission Sankalp, a major anti-Naxal operation, primarily targets which geographical area known to be a Maoist stronghold? a) Abujhmad region in Chhattisgarh b) Saranda forest in Jharkhand c) Karregutta hills on the Chhattisgarh-Telangana border d) Malkangiri district in Odisha Correct Solution: c) Mission Sankalp is specifically focused on the Karregutta hills and surrounding forest areas located along the Chhattisgarh–Telangana border. This region, particularly straddling Bijapur district in Chhattisgarh and Mulugu and Bhadradri-Kothagudem districts in Telangana, has been identified as a significant Maoist stronghold. The operation was launched based on intelligence inputs about the presence of senior Maoist cadres, including those from the People’s Liberation Guerrilla Army (PLGA) Battalion No. 1, Dandakaranya Special Zonal Committee (DKSZC), and the Telangana state committee of Maoists in this specific area. The Karregutta hills, also known as ‘The Black Forest’ hills, are described as thickly-wooded and difficult to scale, serving as a fortified base for Maoist formations. While Abujhmad, Saranda, and Malkangiri are also known LWE-affected areas, Mission Sankalp’s core operational theatre is the Karregutta hills. Incorrect Solution: c) Mission Sankalp is specifically focused on the Karregutta hills and surrounding forest areas located along the Chhattisgarh–Telangana border. This region, particularly straddling Bijapur district in Chhattisgarh and Mulugu and Bhadradri-Kothagudem districts in Telangana, has been identified as a significant Maoist stronghold. The operation was launched based on intelligence inputs about the presence of senior Maoist cadres, including those from the People’s Liberation Guerrilla Army (PLGA) Battalion No. 1, Dandakaranya Special Zonal Committee (DKSZC), and the Telangana state committee of Maoists in this specific area. The Karregutta hills, also known as ‘The Black Forest’ hills, are described as thickly-wooded and difficult to scale, serving as a fortified base for Maoist formations. While Abujhmad, Saranda, and Malkangiri are also known LWE-affected areas, Mission Sankalp’s core operational theatre is the Karregutta hills.

#### 8. Question

Mission Sankalp, a major anti-Naxal operation, primarily targets which geographical area known to be a Maoist stronghold?

• a) Abujhmad region in Chhattisgarh

• b) Saranda forest in Jharkhand

• c) Karregutta hills on the Chhattisgarh-Telangana border

• d) Malkangiri district in Odisha

Solution: c)

• Mission Sankalp is specifically focused on the Karregutta hills and surrounding forest areas located along the Chhattisgarh–Telangana border.

• This region, particularly straddling Bijapur district in Chhattisgarh and Mulugu and Bhadradri-Kothagudem districts in Telangana, has been identified as a significant Maoist stronghold.

• The operation was launched based on intelligence inputs about the presence of senior Maoist cadres, including those from the People’s Liberation Guerrilla Army (PLGA) Battalion No. 1, Dandakaranya Special Zonal Committee (DKSZC), and the Telangana state committee of Maoists in this specific area.

The Karregutta hills, also known as ‘The Black Forest’ hills, are described as thickly-wooded and difficult to scale, serving as a fortified base for Maoist formations. While Abujhmad, Saranda, and Malkangiri are also known LWE-affected areas, Mission Sankalp’s core operational theatre is the Karregutta hills.

Solution: c)

• Mission Sankalp is specifically focused on the Karregutta hills and surrounding forest areas located along the Chhattisgarh–Telangana border.

• This region, particularly straddling Bijapur district in Chhattisgarh and Mulugu and Bhadradri-Kothagudem districts in Telangana, has been identified as a significant Maoist stronghold.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The recent genome sequencing of the Saola is considered a significant step for its conservation primarily because it: a) Allowed for the immediate cloning of Saola individuals to boost population numbers. b) Identified the exact locations of all remaining Saola in the wild using genetic markers. c) Revealed complementary genetic diversity between its historically split populations, offering a scientific basis for strategic captive breeding and genetic rescue. d) Proved that the Saola is immune to common bovine diseases, simplifying reintroduction programs. Correct Solution: c) The importance of the Saola genome sequencing lies in its profound implications for conservation strategy. The research, based on DNA from remains of 26 individuals, revealed that the Saola population historically split into two distinct genetic groups. Crucially, these groups lost different segments of genetic diversity over time, resulting in complementary genetic variation. This finding is pivotal because it suggests that if individuals from these two groups can be brought together in a captive breeding program, their combined gene pool could restore overall genetic diversity and health, which is crucial for the long-term survival of a species with such low numbers. This provides a strong scientific foundation for designing such breeding programs and future reintroduction efforts, aiming for a “genetic rescue.” Incorrect Solution: c) The importance of the Saola genome sequencing lies in its profound implications for conservation strategy. The research, based on DNA from remains of 26 individuals, revealed that the Saola population historically split into two distinct genetic groups. Crucially, these groups lost different segments of genetic diversity over time, resulting in complementary genetic variation. This finding is pivotal because it suggests that if individuals from these two groups can be brought together in a captive breeding program, their combined gene pool could restore overall genetic diversity and health, which is crucial for the long-term survival of a species with such low numbers. This provides a strong scientific foundation for designing such breeding programs and future reintroduction efforts, aiming for a “genetic rescue.”

#### 9. Question

The recent genome sequencing of the Saola is considered a significant step for its conservation primarily because it:

• a) Allowed for the immediate cloning of Saola individuals to boost population numbers.

• b) Identified the exact locations of all remaining Saola in the wild using genetic markers.

• c) Revealed complementary genetic diversity between its historically split populations, offering a scientific basis for strategic captive breeding and genetic rescue.

• d) Proved that the Saola is immune to common bovine diseases, simplifying reintroduction programs.

Solution: c)

• The importance of the Saola genome sequencing lies in its profound implications for conservation strategy. The research, based on DNA from remains of 26 individuals, revealed that the Saola population historically split into two distinct genetic groups.

• Crucially, these groups lost different segments of genetic diversity over time, resulting in complementary genetic variation. This finding is pivotal because it suggests that if individuals from these two groups can be brought together in a captive breeding program, their combined gene pool could restore overall genetic diversity and health, which is crucial for the long-term survival of a species with such low numbers.

• This provides a strong scientific foundation for designing such breeding programs and future reintroduction efforts, aiming for a “genetic rescue.”

Solution: c)

• This provides a strong scientific foundation for designing such breeding programs and future reintroduction efforts, aiming for a “genetic rescue.”

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Match List-I (Indian Air Defence System) with List-II (Primary Origin and Engagement Range Category). Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (System) List-II (Origin & Range Category) A. S-400 Triumf 1. Russian, Short-Range (Legacy) B. Barak-8 MRSAM 2. Russian, Long-Range C. Akash SAM 3. India-Israel Co-development, Medium-Range D. S-125 Pechora 4. Indigenous, Medium-Range Select the correct answer Code: a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: a) S-400 Triumf: This is a long-range surface-to-air missile system procured from Russia, with an engagement capability of up to 400 km. (A matches 2) Barak-8 MRSAM: This is a medium-range SAM system, co-developed by India (DRDO) and Israel (IAI), with a range of approximately 70-100 km. (B matches 3) Akash SAM: This is an indigenously developed medium-range surface-to-air missile system with a range of up to 25-30 km (Akash-1S) and newer versions like Akash-NG having extended ranges up to 70+ km. (C matches 4) S-125 Pechora: This is a legacy short-range SAM system of Russian (Soviet) origin, with a range of around 35 km, still used to supplement sectoral defences. (D matches 1) Incorrect Solution: a) S-400 Triumf: This is a long-range surface-to-air missile system procured from Russia, with an engagement capability of up to 400 km. (A matches 2) Barak-8 MRSAM: This is a medium-range SAM system, co-developed by India (DRDO) and Israel (IAI), with a range of approximately 70-100 km. (B matches 3) Akash SAM: This is an indigenously developed medium-range surface-to-air missile system with a range of up to 25-30 km (Akash-1S) and newer versions like Akash-NG having extended ranges up to 70+ km. (C matches 4) S-125 Pechora: This is a legacy short-range SAM system of Russian (Soviet) origin, with a range of around 35 km, still used to supplement sectoral defences. (D matches 1)

#### 10. Question

Match List-I (Indian Air Defence System) with List-II (Primary Origin and Engagement Range Category). Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (System) | List-II (Origin & Range Category)

A. S-400 Triumf | 1. Russian, Short-Range (Legacy)

B. Barak-8 MRSAM | 2. Russian, Long-Range

C. Akash SAM | 3. India-Israel Co-development, Medium-Range

D. S-125 Pechora | 4. Indigenous, Medium-Range

Select the correct answer Code:

• a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

• c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

• d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Solution: a)

• S-400 Triumf: This is a long-range surface-to-air missile system procured from Russia, with an engagement capability of up to 400 km. (A matches 2)

• Barak-8 MRSAM: This is a medium-range SAM system, co-developed by India (DRDO) and Israel (IAI), with a range of approximately 70-100 km. (B matches 3)

• Akash SAM: This is an indigenously developed medium-range surface-to-air missile system with a range of up to 25-30 km (Akash-1S) and newer versions like Akash-NG having extended ranges up to 70+ km. (C matches 4)

• S-125 Pechora: This is a legacy short-range SAM system of Russian (Soviet) origin, with a range of around 35 km, still used to supplement sectoral defences. (D matches 1)

Solution: a)

• S-400 Triumf: This is a long-range surface-to-air missile system procured from Russia, with an engagement capability of up to 400 km. (A matches 2)

• Barak-8 MRSAM: This is a medium-range SAM system, co-developed by India (DRDO) and Israel (IAI), with a range of approximately 70-100 km. (B matches 3)

• S-125 Pechora: This is a legacy short-range SAM system of Russian (Soviet) origin, with a range of around 35 km, still used to supplement sectoral defences. (D matches 1)

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