UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 May 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about auroras is true? (a) Auroras occur only in the Northern Hemisphere. (b) Auroras are caused by the reflection of sunlight off polar ice caps. (c) The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth's atmosphere. (d) Auroras are only visible during daytime. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. When charged particles from the Sun collide with gas molecules in the Earth’s atmosphere, they emit light of various colors. Oxygen molecules typically produce green and red auroras, while nitrogen molecules produce blue and purple auroras. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. When charged particles from the Sun collide with gas molecules in the Earth’s atmosphere, they emit light of various colors. Oxygen molecules typically produce green and red auroras, while nitrogen molecules produce blue and purple auroras. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements about auroras is true?

• (a) Auroras occur only in the Northern Hemisphere.

• (b) Auroras are caused by the reflection of sunlight off polar ice caps.

• (c) The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth's atmosphere.

• (d) Auroras are only visible during daytime.

Explanation:

• The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. When charged particles from the Sun collide with gas molecules in the Earth’s atmosphere, they emit light of various colors. Oxygen molecules typically produce green and red auroras, while nitrogen molecules produce blue and purple auroras.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points During a geomagnetic storm: (a) The Earth's magnetic field weakens, allowing more solar radiation to penetrate the atmosphere. (b) The Earth's magnetic field strengthens, shielding the planet from solar radiation. (c) The Earth's magnetic field remains unchanged, having no effect on solar radiation. (d) The Earth's magnetic field fluctuates, causing disturbances in the magnetosphere and ionosphere. Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Geomagnetic storms occur when there is a significant disturbance in the Earth’s magnetosphere, caused by changes in the solar wind or solar magnetic field interacting with the Earth’s magnetic field. These storms can lead to fluctuations in the Earth’s magnetic field, causing disturbances in the magnetosphere and ionosphere. These disturbances can result in various effects such as auroras, radio communication disruptions, and potential damage to satellites and electrical power grids. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it accurately describes the impact of geomagnetic storms on the Earth’s magnetic field. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Geomagnetic storms occur when there is a significant disturbance in the Earth’s magnetosphere, caused by changes in the solar wind or solar magnetic field interacting with the Earth’s magnetic field. These storms can lead to fluctuations in the Earth’s magnetic field, causing disturbances in the magnetosphere and ionosphere. These disturbances can result in various effects such as auroras, radio communication disruptions, and potential damage to satellites and electrical power grids. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it accurately describes the impact of geomagnetic storms on the Earth’s magnetic field. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

#### 2. Question

During a geomagnetic storm:

• (a) The Earth's magnetic field weakens, allowing more solar radiation to penetrate the atmosphere.

• (b) The Earth's magnetic field strengthens, shielding the planet from solar radiation.

• (c) The Earth's magnetic field remains unchanged, having no effect on solar radiation.

• (d) The Earth's magnetic field fluctuates, causing disturbances in the magnetosphere and ionosphere.

Explanation:

• Geomagnetic storms occur when there is a significant disturbance in the Earth’s magnetosphere, caused by changes in the solar wind or solar magnetic field interacting with the Earth’s magnetic field. These storms can lead to fluctuations in the Earth’s magnetic field, causing disturbances in the magnetosphere and ionosphere. These disturbances can result in various effects such as auroras, radio communication disruptions, and potential damage to satellites and electrical power grids. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it accurately describes the impact of geomagnetic storms on the Earth’s magnetic field.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Coronal mass ejections (CMEs), consider the following statements: CMEs are bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona. CMEs primarily consist of charged particles, such as protons and electrons. CMEs have little to no impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Correct. Coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are indeed bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona. These ejections are significant events involving the release of a large amount of plasma and magnetic field from the solar corona into space. S2: Incorrect. While CMEs do consist of charged particles, they are not primarily composed of charged particles. CMEs contain mostly plasma, which is a state of matter consisting of ionized gas particles. This plasma contains charged particles like protons and electrons, but it also includes neutral particles. S3: Incorrect. CMEs can have a significant impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere. When the charged particles associated with a CME interact with Earth’s magnetosphere, they can cause geomagnetic storms, which may disrupt satellite operations, communication systems, and power grids. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Correct. Coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are indeed bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona. These ejections are significant events involving the release of a large amount of plasma and magnetic field from the solar corona into space. S2: Incorrect. While CMEs do consist of charged particles, they are not primarily composed of charged particles. CMEs contain mostly plasma, which is a state of matter consisting of ionized gas particles. This plasma contains charged particles like protons and electrons, but it also includes neutral particles. S3: Incorrect. CMEs can have a significant impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere. When the charged particles associated with a CME interact with Earth’s magnetosphere, they can cause geomagnetic storms, which may disrupt satellite operations, communication systems, and power grids. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

#### 3. Question

With reference to Coronal mass ejections (CMEs), consider the following statements:

• CMEs are bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona. CMEs primarily consist of charged particles, such as protons and electrons. CMEs have little to no impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere.

• CMEs are bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona.

• CMEs primarily consist of charged particles, such as protons and electrons.

• CMEs have little to no impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1: Correct. Coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are indeed bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun’s corona. These ejections are significant events involving the release of a large amount of plasma and magnetic field from the solar corona into space.

• S2: Incorrect. While CMEs do consist of charged particles, they are not primarily composed of charged particles. CMEs contain mostly plasma, which is a state of matter consisting of ionized gas particles. This plasma contains charged particles like protons and electrons, but it also includes neutral particles.

• S3: Incorrect. CMEs can have a significant impact on Earth’s magnetic field and ionosphere. When the charged particles associated with a CME interact with Earth’s magnetosphere, they can cause geomagnetic storms, which may disrupt satellite operations, communication systems, and power grids.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Measles is caused by bacteria. Measles primarily affects the digestive system. Measles can be prevented by vaccination. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles virus. Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent measles. The measles vaccine, typically administered as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine, provides immunity against the virus. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/measles-vaccine/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles virus. Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent measles. The measles vaccine, typically administered as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine, provides immunity against the virus. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/measles-vaccine/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Measles is caused by bacteria. Measles primarily affects the digestive system. Measles can be prevented by vaccination.

• Measles is caused by bacteria.

• Measles primarily affects the digestive system.

• Measles can be prevented by vaccination.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles virus.

• Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system.

• Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent measles. The measles vaccine, typically administered as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine, provides immunity against the virus.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/measles-vaccine/

Explanation:

• Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles virus.

• Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/measles-vaccine/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Trans fats are healthier than saturated fats because they lower LDL cholesterol levels. Trans fats are formed through an industrial process called hydrogenation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Trans fats are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation, where hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to make it solid at room temperature. This process is often used in the production of margarine, shortening, and some processed foods to increase their shelf life and improve texture. Trans fats have been linked to various health issues, including an increased risk of heart disease, as they raise LDL (bad) cholesterol levels while lowering HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/ultra-processed-foods-upf/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Trans fats are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation, where hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to make it solid at room temperature. This process is often used in the production of margarine, shortening, and some processed foods to increase their shelf life and improve texture. Trans fats have been linked to various health issues, including an increased risk of heart disease, as they raise LDL (bad) cholesterol levels while lowering HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/ultra-processed-foods-upf/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Trans fats are healthier than saturated fats because they lower LDL cholesterol levels. Trans fats are formed through an industrial process called hydrogenation.

• Trans fats are healthier than saturated fats because they lower LDL cholesterol levels.

• Trans fats are formed through an industrial process called hydrogenation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Trans fats are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation, where hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to make it solid at room temperature. This process is often used in the production of margarine, shortening, and some processed foods to increase their shelf life and improve texture. Trans fats have been linked to various health issues, including an increased risk of heart disease, as they raise LDL (bad) cholesterol levels while lowering HDL (good) cholesterol levels.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/ultra-processed-foods-upf/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/ultra-processed-foods-upf/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 3D printing technology only works with plastics. 3D printing is a subtractive manufacturing process. 3D printing enables rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing. 3D printing can only produce small-sized objects. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Incorrect. While plastics are commonly used in 3D printing, the technology is not limited to plastics. It can also work with metals, ceramics, and various other materials. S2: Incorrect. 3D printing is an additive manufacturing process, meaning it adds material layer by layer to create an object, as opposed to subtractive manufacturing, which removes material from a block or stock. S3: Correct. 3D printing is widely utilized for rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing due to its ability to create complex shapes and designs quickly and cost-effectively. S4: Incorrect. While 3D printing started with producing small-sized objects, advancements in technology have enabled the production of larger objects, including entire buildings and aircraft components. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/hot-test-of-a-liquid-rocket-engine/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Incorrect. While plastics are commonly used in 3D printing, the technology is not limited to plastics. It can also work with metals, ceramics, and various other materials. S2: Incorrect. 3D printing is an additive manufacturing process, meaning it adds material layer by layer to create an object, as opposed to subtractive manufacturing, which removes material from a block or stock. S3: Correct. 3D printing is widely utilized for rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing due to its ability to create complex shapes and designs quickly and cost-effectively. S4: Incorrect. While 3D printing started with producing small-sized objects, advancements in technology have enabled the production of larger objects, including entire buildings and aircraft components. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/hot-test-of-a-liquid-rocket-engine/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• 3D printing technology only works with plastics. 3D printing is a subtractive manufacturing process. 3D printing enables rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing. 3D printing can only produce small-sized objects.

• 3D printing technology only works with plastics.

• 3D printing is a subtractive manufacturing process.

• 3D printing enables rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing.

• 3D printing can only produce small-sized objects.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• S1: Incorrect. While plastics are commonly used in 3D printing, the technology is not limited to plastics. It can also work with metals, ceramics, and various other materials.

• S2: Incorrect. 3D printing is an additive manufacturing process, meaning it adds material layer by layer to create an object, as opposed to subtractive manufacturing, which removes material from a block or stock.

• S3: Correct. 3D printing is widely utilized for rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing due to its ability to create complex shapes and designs quickly and cost-effectively.

• S4: Incorrect. While 3D printing started with producing small-sized objects, advancements in technology have enabled the production of larger objects, including entire buildings and aircraft components.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/hot-test-of-a-liquid-rocket-engine/

Explanation:

• S1: Incorrect. While plastics are commonly used in 3D printing, the technology is not limited to plastics. It can also work with metals, ceramics, and various other materials.

• S3: Correct. 3D printing is widely utilized for rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing due to its ability to create complex shapes and designs quickly and cost-effectively.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/hot-test-of-a-liquid-rocket-engine/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Roundworms belong to the phylum (a) Nematoda (b) Arthropoda (c) Annelida (d) Cnidaria Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Researchers at Princeton University discovered that the roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans, commonly known as C. elegans, exhibits an intriguing behaviour where offspring inherit the knowledge of avoiding disease-causing bacteria consumed by their parents. Roundworms or eelworms constitute the phylum Nematoda. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Researchers at Princeton University discovered that the roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans, commonly known as C. elegans, exhibits an intriguing behaviour where offspring inherit the knowledge of avoiding disease-causing bacteria consumed by their parents. Roundworms or eelworms constitute the phylum Nematoda. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

#### 7. Question

Roundworms belong to the phylum

• (a) Nematoda

• (b) Arthropoda

• (c) Annelida

• (d) Cnidaria

Explanation:

• Context: Researchers at Princeton University discovered that the roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans, commonly known as C. elegans, exhibits an intriguing behaviour where offspring inherit the knowledge of avoiding disease-causing bacteria consumed by their parents.

• Roundworms or eelworms constitute the phylum Nematoda.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

Explanation:

• Roundworms or eelworms constitute the phylum Nematoda.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis. RNA is more stable than DNA and less susceptible to mutations. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a type of RNA that carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where proteins are synthesized. Therefore, it accurately reflects the role of RNA in protein synthesis. S2: RNA is generally less stable than DNA and is more prone to mutations due to the presence of ribose sugar and the lack of a stabilizing thymine base pair. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a type of RNA that carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where proteins are synthesized. Therefore, it accurately reflects the role of RNA in protein synthesis. S2: RNA is generally less stable than DNA and is more prone to mutations due to the presence of ribose sugar and the lack of a stabilizing thymine base pair. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis. RNA is more stable than DNA and less susceptible to mutations.

• Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis.

• RNA is more stable than DNA and less susceptible to mutations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a type of RNA that carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where proteins are synthesized. Therefore, it accurately reflects the role of RNA in protein synthesis.

• S2: RNA is generally less stable than DNA and is more prone to mutations due to the presence of ribose sugar and the lack of a stabilizing thymine base pair.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

Explanation:

• S2: RNA is generally less stable than DNA and is more prone to mutations due to the presence of ribose sugar and the lack of a stabilizing thymine base pair.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-elegans/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Environmental DNA (eDNA): eDNA refers to the genetic material present in the environment, such as soil, water, or air. It is primarily used for tracking the presence or abundance of species in aquatic ecosystems. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Environmental DNA (eDNA) refers to the genetic material obtained directly from environmental samples such as soil, water, or air. It can provide valuable information about the organisms present in an environment without the need to directly observe or capture them. S2: While eDNA is frequently used in aquatic ecosystems due to the ease of sample collection and the high concentration of genetic material in water, it is also applicable to terrestrial and aerial environments. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/armoured-sailfin-catfish-asc/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Environmental DNA (eDNA) refers to the genetic material obtained directly from environmental samples such as soil, water, or air. It can provide valuable information about the organisms present in an environment without the need to directly observe or capture them. S2: While eDNA is frequently used in aquatic ecosystems due to the ease of sample collection and the high concentration of genetic material in water, it is also applicable to terrestrial and aerial environments. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/armoured-sailfin-catfish-asc/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Environmental DNA (eDNA):

• eDNA refers to the genetic material present in the environment, such as soil, water, or air. It is primarily used for tracking the presence or abundance of species in aquatic ecosystems.

• eDNA refers to the genetic material present in the environment, such as soil, water, or air.

• It is primarily used for tracking the presence or abundance of species in aquatic ecosystems.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1: Environmental DNA (eDNA) refers to the genetic material obtained directly from environmental samples such as soil, water, or air. It can provide valuable information about the organisms present in an environment without the need to directly observe or capture them.

• S2: While eDNA is frequently used in aquatic ecosystems due to the ease of sample collection and the high concentration of genetic material in water, it is also applicable to terrestrial and aerial environments.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/armoured-sailfin-catfish-asc/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/armoured-sailfin-catfish-asc/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In which of the following states is Kaziranga National Park located? (a) Meghalaya (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Manipur Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Kaziranga National Park in Assam has achieved a significant milestone by recording its highest revenue in its 50-year history during the 2023-24 tourism year. The park also witnessed a surge in visitors, with a total of 3,27,493 tourists, including 13,919 foreign visitors. About Kaziranga National Park: Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain. International Status: It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/kaziranga-national-park/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Kaziranga National Park in Assam has achieved a significant milestone by recording its highest revenue in its 50-year history during the 2023-24 tourism year. The park also witnessed a surge in visitors, with a total of 3,27,493 tourists, including 13,919 foreign visitors. About Kaziranga National Park: Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain. International Status: It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/kaziranga-national-park/

#### 10. Question

In which of the following states is Kaziranga National Park located?

• (a) Meghalaya

• (b) Arunachal Pradesh

• (d) Manipur

Explanation:

• Context: Kaziranga National Park in Assam has achieved a significant milestone by recording its highest revenue in its 50-year history during the 2023-24 tourism year. The park also witnessed a surge in visitors, with a total of 3,27,493 tourists, including 13,919 foreign visitors.

• About Kaziranga National Park: Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain. International Status: It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

• Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.

• International Status: It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.

• It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/kaziranga-national-park/

Explanation:

• Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.

• International Status: It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.

• It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/kaziranga-national-park/

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