UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 March 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes. The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities. Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes and castes. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (a) Explanation: Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but not on other castes. Our Constitution too favours conducting a caste census. Article 340 mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by governments. The Justice Rohini committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/ Incorrect Ans : (a) Explanation: Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but not on other castes. Our Constitution too favours conducting a caste census. Article 340 mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by governments. The Justice Rohini committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes. The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities. Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes and castes.

• The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.

• The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities.

• Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes and castes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but not on other castes.

• Our Constitution too favours conducting a caste census. Article 340 mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and make recommendations as to the steps that should be taken by governments.

• The Justice Rohini committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

Explanation:

• Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but not on other castes.

• The Justice Rohini committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Milankovitch cycles: The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation. The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession. The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. Milankovitch cycles refer to changes in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession over long periods of time, typically thousands to hundreds of thousands of years. These cycles are instrumental in driving changes in Earth’s climate over geological time scales. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/astronomical-grand-cycles/ Incorrect Ans : (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. Milankovitch cycles refer to changes in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession over long periods of time, typically thousands to hundreds of thousands of years. These cycles are instrumental in driving changes in Earth’s climate over geological time scales. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/astronomical-grand-cycles/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Milankovitch cycles:

• The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation. The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession. The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate.

• The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation.

• The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession.

• The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Only statement 2 is correct.

• Milankovitch cycles refer to changes in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession over long periods of time, typically thousands to hundreds of thousands of years. These cycles are instrumental in driving changes in Earth’s climate over geological time scales.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/astronomical-grand-cycles/

Explanation:

• Only statement 2 is correct.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/astronomical-grand-cycles/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is true? (a) AMR only occurs in bacteria. (b) Overuse of antibiotics is not a significant factor contributing to AMR. (c) AMR poses no threat to global public health. (d) AMR can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer. Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The FAO and ICAR released the first national report on AMR surveillance (INFAAR 2019-22 Report) in India’s fisheries and livestock sectors. What is INFAAR? ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors. AMR can develop through genetic mutations within microbial populations, allowing them to survive exposure to antimicrobial agents. Additionally, horizontal gene transfer, where resistant genes are transferred between different organisms, also plays a crucial role in the spread of AMR. This process can occur through mechanisms such as conjugation, transformation, and transduction. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The FAO and ICAR released the first national report on AMR surveillance (INFAAR 2019-22 Report) in India’s fisheries and livestock sectors. What is INFAAR? ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors. AMR can develop through genetic mutations within microbial populations, allowing them to survive exposure to antimicrobial agents. Additionally, horizontal gene transfer, where resistant genes are transferred between different organisms, also plays a crucial role in the spread of AMR. This process can occur through mechanisms such as conjugation, transformation, and transduction. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is true?

• (a) AMR only occurs in bacteria.

• (b) Overuse of antibiotics is not a significant factor contributing to AMR.

• (c) AMR poses no threat to global public health.

• (d) AMR can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer.

Explanation:

• Context: The FAO and ICAR released the first national report on AMR surveillance (INFAAR 2019-22 Report) in India’s fisheries and livestock sectors.

• What is INFAAR? ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors.

• ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors.

• AMR can develop through genetic mutations within microbial populations, allowing them to survive exposure to antimicrobial agents. Additionally, horizontal gene transfer, where resistant genes are transferred between different organisms, also plays a crucial role in the spread of AMR. This process can occur through mechanisms such as conjugation, transformation, and transduction.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

Explanation:

• Context: The FAO and ICAR released the first national report on AMR surveillance (INFAAR 2019-22 Report) in India’s fisheries and livestock sectors.

• What is INFAAR? ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors.

• ICAR, supported by FAO, initiated INFAAR (Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance) in 2017 to monitor AMR in the aquaculture and veterinary sectors.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission. Like the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, any additions to the Central OBC list must have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India. The NCBC Act, 1993 prescribes that the National Commission for Backward Classes is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine proposals for inclusion in the OBC list, and then forward their decision to the Union government. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Context: The forthcoming judgment in the State of Punjab vs Davinder Singh case by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India holds significant implications for affirmative action and reservations under the Constitution. As per the Procedure for Addition prescribed in the NCBC Act, 1993, the Commission is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine such proposals and then forward their decision to the Union government (with dissent, where applicable). The Cabinet then needs to approve the additions and bring legislation to this effect, following which the President is empowered to notify the change. Unlike the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, additions to the Central OBC list do not have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India or any other authority other than the Commission. The Commission, as per its guidelines, considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission established in 1979. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Context: The forthcoming judgment in the State of Punjab vs Davinder Singh case by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India holds significant implications for affirmative action and reservations under the Constitution. As per the Procedure for Addition prescribed in the NCBC Act, 1993, the Commission is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine such proposals and then forward their decision to the Union government (with dissent, where applicable). The Cabinet then needs to approve the additions and bring legislation to this effect, following which the President is empowered to notify the change. Unlike the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, additions to the Central OBC list do not have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India or any other authority other than the Commission. The Commission, as per its guidelines, considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission established in 1979. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission. Like the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, any additions to the Central OBC list must have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India. The NCBC Act, 1993 prescribes that the National Commission for Backward Classes is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine proposals for inclusion in the OBC list, and then forward their decision to the Union government.

• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission.

• Like the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, any additions to the Central OBC list must have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India.

• The NCBC Act, 1993 prescribes that the National Commission for Backward Classes is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine proposals for inclusion in the OBC list, and then forward their decision to the Union government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Context: The forthcoming judgment in the State of Punjab vs Davinder Singh case by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India holds significant implications for affirmative action and reservations under the Constitution.

• As per the Procedure for Addition prescribed in the NCBC Act, 1993, the Commission is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine such proposals and then forward their decision to the Union government (with dissent, where applicable). The Cabinet then needs to approve the additions and bring legislation to this effect, following which the President is empowered to notify the change.

• Unlike the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, additions to the Central OBC list do not have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India or any other authority other than the Commission.

• The Commission, as per its guidelines, considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission established in 1979.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

Explanation:

• Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Commission, as per its guidelines, considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission established in 1979.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions. Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions. Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.

• Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions.

• Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

• Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.

• Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

Explanation:

• Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.

• Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO). The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. The approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country and laying down the standards for Drugs is the responsibility of Central Authorities. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (b) Explanation: Only statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. The regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bringing about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/ Incorrect Ans : (b) Explanation: Only statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. The regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bringing about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO).

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. The approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country and laying down the standards for Drugs is the responsibility of Central Authorities.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers.

• The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics.

• The approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country and laying down the standards for Drugs is the responsibility of Central Authorities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India.

• The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics.

• The regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bringing about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

Explanation:

• Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/infaar-2019-22-report/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS): It aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. It is a component of the Production Linked Incentive schemes. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has announced the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS). What is RPTUAS? Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. The scheme offers support to pharmaceutical manufacturing units for technology and quality upgradation. PTUAS is a component of the Strengthening of Pharmaceutical Industry (SPI) Scheme. SPI Scheme aimed to strengthen the existing infrastructure facilities to make India a global leader in the Pharma Sector. RPTUAS is the successor of PTUAS under SPI. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/rptuas/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has announced the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS). What is RPTUAS? Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. The scheme offers support to pharmaceutical manufacturing units for technology and quality upgradation. PTUAS is a component of the Strengthening of Pharmaceutical Industry (SPI) Scheme. SPI Scheme aimed to strengthen the existing infrastructure facilities to make India a global leader in the Pharma Sector. RPTUAS is the successor of PTUAS under SPI. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/rptuas/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS):

• It aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. It is a component of the Production Linked Incentive schemes.

• It aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India.

• It is a component of the Production Linked Incentive schemes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has announced the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS).

• What is RPTUAS? Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. The scheme offers support to pharmaceutical manufacturing units for technology and quality upgradation. PTUAS is a component of the Strengthening of Pharmaceutical Industry (SPI) Scheme. SPI Scheme aimed to strengthen the existing infrastructure facilities to make India a global leader in the Pharma Sector. RPTUAS is the successor of PTUAS under SPI.

• Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme aims to enhance the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in India. The scheme offers support to pharmaceutical manufacturing units for technology and quality upgradation.

• PTUAS is a component of the Strengthening of Pharmaceutical Industry (SPI) Scheme. SPI Scheme aimed to strengthen the existing infrastructure facilities to make India a global leader in the Pharma Sector. RPTUAS is the successor of PTUAS under SPI.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/rptuas/

Explanation:

• Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has announced the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (RPTUAS).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/rptuas/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Recently, which one of the following has issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024? (a) Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals (b) Department of Fertilizers. (c) NITI Aayog (d) None of the above Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024, setting guidelines for interactions between pharmaceutical companies and healthcare professionals. Aim: It aims to regulate unethical practices in the pharmaceutical industry. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers in India is the federal ministry with administrative purview over three departments namely: Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals Department of Fertilizers. Department of Pharmaceuticals. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/ucpmp-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024, setting guidelines for interactions between pharmaceutical companies and healthcare professionals. Aim: It aims to regulate unethical practices in the pharmaceutical industry. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers in India is the federal ministry with administrative purview over three departments namely: Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals Department of Fertilizers. Department of Pharmaceuticals. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/ucpmp-2024/

#### 8. Question

Recently, which one of the following has issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024?

• (a) Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals

• (b) Department of Fertilizers.

• (c) NITI Aayog

• (d) None of the above

Explanation:

• Context: The Department of Pharmaceuticals issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024, setting guidelines for interactions between pharmaceutical companies and healthcare professionals.

• Aim: It aims to regulate unethical practices in the pharmaceutical industry.

• The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers in India is the federal ministry with administrative purview over three departments namely: Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals Department of Fertilizers. Department of Pharmaceuticals.

• Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals

• Department of Fertilizers.

• Department of Pharmaceuticals.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/ucpmp-2024/

Explanation:

• Aim: It aims to regulate unethical practices in the pharmaceutical industry.

• Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals

• Department of Fertilizers.

• Department of Pharmaceuticals.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/ucpmp-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes. Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the Scheduled Castes (SC) list. There is provision for the reservation of Scheduled Castes both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes. Under the provision of Article 341, first list of SCs in relation to a states/UT is to be issued by a notified Order of the President after consulting concerned state Government. But the clause (2) of Article 341 envisages that, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Castes can be effected through an Act of Parliament. Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the SC list under Article 341 of the Constitution. Statement 3: Reservation is there only in the Lok Sabha. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes. Under the provision of Article 341, first list of SCs in relation to a states/UT is to be issued by a notified Order of the President after consulting concerned state Government. But the clause (2) of Article 341 envisages that, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Castes can be effected through an Act of Parliament. Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the SC list under Article 341 of the Constitution. Statement 3: Reservation is there only in the Lok Sabha. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes. Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the Scheduled Castes (SC) list. There is provision for the reservation of Scheduled Castes both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

• Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes.

• Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the Scheduled Castes (SC) list.

• There is provision for the reservation of Scheduled Castes both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes.

• Under the provision of Article 341, first list of SCs in relation to a states/UT is to be issued by a notified Order of the President after consulting concerned state Government.

• But the clause (2) of Article 341 envisages that, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Castes can be effected through an Act of Parliament.

• Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the SC list under Article 341 of the Constitution.

• Statement 3: Reservation is there only in the Lok Sabha.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

Explanation:

• Article 341 of the Constitution provides certain privileges and concessions to the members of Scheduled Castes.

• Under the provision of Article 341, first list of SCs in relation to a states/UT is to be issued by a notified Order of the President after consulting concerned state Government.

• But the clause (2) of Article 341 envisages that, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Castes can be effected through an Act of Parliament.

• Parliament alone is vested with the power to include or exclude any entry in the SC list under Article 341 of the Constitution.

• Statement 3: Reservation is there only in the Lok Sabha.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/sub-classification-within-scs-and-sts/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI): It is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under the Companies Act 2013. It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India. It is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (b) Explanation: Context: CNAP, or Calling Name Presentation, is a proposed Caller ID service by TRAI to reduce incessant spam and Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC). The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India. It consists of a chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/calling-name-presentation-cnap/ Incorrect Ans : (b) Explanation: Context: CNAP, or Calling Name Presentation, is a proposed Caller ID service by TRAI to reduce incessant spam and Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC). The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India. It consists of a chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/calling-name-presentation-cnap/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):

• It is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under the Companies Act 2013. It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India. It is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

• It is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under the Companies Act 2013.

• It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India.

• It is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: CNAP, or Calling Name Presentation, is a proposed Caller ID service by TRAI to reduce incessant spam and Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC).

• The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India.

• It consists of a chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

• TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/calling-name-presentation-cnap/

Explanation:

• Context: CNAP, or Calling Name Presentation, is a proposed Caller ID service by TRAI to reduce incessant spam and Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC).

• It consists of a chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

• TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/14/calling-name-presentation-cnap/

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