UPSC Current Affairs Quiz :15 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the object 3I/Atlas, discovered by the ATLAS telescope in Chile. Statement-I: The discovery of 3I/Atlas is significant for understanding the composition of celestial bodies beyond our Solar System. Statement-II: 3I/Atlas follows a hyperbolic trajectory and possesses a velocity that is too high for it to be gravitationally captured by the Sun. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. As an interstellar object, 3I/Atlas originated from outside our solar system. Studying its chemical and physical makeup provides a rare, direct sample of material from a distant planetary system. This allows scientists to gain insights into the building blocks of alien worlds without having to travel there, offering invaluable clues about exoplanetary formation and evolution. Statement-II is also correct. The key evidence confirming 3I/Atlas’s interstellar origin is its trajectory and speed. Unlike objects native to our solar system which typically have elliptical orbits, 3I/Atlas follows a hyperbolic path—an open curve that indicates it will pass through our system only once. Its high velocity (~60 km/s) confirms that it is not gravitationally bound to our Sun and must have originated from another star system. Statement-II provides the direct reasoning for why 3I/Atlas is considered an interstellar object, which is the foundational reason for the significance mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. As an interstellar object, 3I/Atlas originated from outside our solar system. Studying its chemical and physical makeup provides a rare, direct sample of material from a distant planetary system. This allows scientists to gain insights into the building blocks of alien worlds without having to travel there, offering invaluable clues about exoplanetary formation and evolution. Statement-II is also correct. The key evidence confirming 3I/Atlas’s interstellar origin is its trajectory and speed. Unlike objects native to our solar system which typically have elliptical orbits, 3I/Atlas follows a hyperbolic path—an open curve that indicates it will pass through our system only once. Its high velocity (~60 km/s) confirms that it is not gravitationally bound to our Sun and must have originated from another star system. Statement-II provides the direct reasoning for why 3I/Atlas is considered an interstellar object, which is the foundational reason for the significance mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the object 3I/Atlas, discovered by the ATLAS telescope in Chile.

Statement-I: The discovery of 3I/Atlas is significant for understanding the composition of celestial bodies beyond our Solar System.

Statement-II: 3I/Atlas follows a hyperbolic trajectory and possesses a velocity that is too high for it to be gravitationally captured by the Sun.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. As an interstellar object, 3I/Atlas originated from outside our solar system. Studying its chemical and physical makeup provides a rare, direct sample of material from a distant planetary system. This allows scientists to gain insights into the building blocks of alien worlds without having to travel there, offering invaluable clues about exoplanetary formation and evolution.

• Statement-II is also correct. The key evidence confirming 3I/Atlas’s interstellar origin is its trajectory and speed. Unlike objects native to our solar system which typically have elliptical orbits, 3I/Atlas follows a hyperbolic path—an open curve that indicates it will pass through our system only once. Its high velocity (~60 km/s) confirms that it is not gravitationally bound to our Sun and must have originated from another star system.

Statement-II provides the direct reasoning for why 3I/Atlas is considered an interstellar object, which is the foundational reason for the significance mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Silent Salt Consumption Epidemic’ in India: The average salt consumption in both urban and rural India surpasses the World Health Organization’s recommended daily limit. The ICMR-NIE intervention program exclusively focuses on providing low-sodium salt substitutes to the general population in Punjab and Telangana. Excessive sodium intake is linked to a higher risk of non-communicable diseases such as hypertension and cardiovascular ailments. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The average salt consumption is 9.2g/day in urban India and 5.6g/day in rural areas. Both these figures are above the WHO’s recommended safe limit of 5g/day, highlighting a nationwide issue of excessive salt intake. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ICMR-NIE project is not just about providing substitutes. It is a three-year study focused on salt-reduction counselling and promoting low-sodium alternatives. Furthermore, the intervention specifically targets hypertensive individuals in Punjab and Telangana, not the general population, to study the impact on blood pressure. The approach is targeted and research-oriented, not a general distribution scheme. Statement 3 is correct. ‘Silent salt consumption epidemic’ is linked to a rising healthcare burden from non-communicable diseases (NCDs). High sodium intake is identified as a leading risk factor for hypertension, which in turn increases the risk of strokes, heart attacks, arterial stiffness, and chronic kidney disease. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The average salt consumption is 9.2g/day in urban India and 5.6g/day in rural areas. Both these figures are above the WHO’s recommended safe limit of 5g/day, highlighting a nationwide issue of excessive salt intake. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ICMR-NIE project is not just about providing substitutes. It is a three-year study focused on salt-reduction counselling and promoting low-sodium alternatives. Furthermore, the intervention specifically targets hypertensive individuals in Punjab and Telangana, not the general population, to study the impact on blood pressure. The approach is targeted and research-oriented, not a general distribution scheme. Statement 3 is correct. ‘Silent salt consumption epidemic’ is linked to a rising healthcare burden from non-communicable diseases (NCDs). High sodium intake is identified as a leading risk factor for hypertension, which in turn increases the risk of strokes, heart attacks, arterial stiffness, and chronic kidney disease.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Silent Salt Consumption Epidemic’ in India:

• The average salt consumption in both urban and rural India surpasses the World Health Organization’s recommended daily limit.

• The ICMR-NIE intervention program exclusively focuses on providing low-sodium salt substitutes to the general population in Punjab and Telangana.

• Excessive sodium intake is linked to a higher risk of non-communicable diseases such as hypertension and cardiovascular ailments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The average salt consumption is 9.2g/day in urban India and 5.6g/day in rural areas. Both these figures are above the WHO’s recommended safe limit of 5g/day, highlighting a nationwide issue of excessive salt intake.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ICMR-NIE project is not just about providing substitutes. It is a three-year study focused on salt-reduction counselling and promoting low-sodium alternatives. Furthermore, the intervention specifically targets hypertensive individuals in Punjab and Telangana, not the general population, to study the impact on blood pressure. The approach is targeted and research-oriented, not a general distribution scheme.

Statement 3 is correct. ‘Silent salt consumption epidemic’ is linked to a rising healthcare burden from non-communicable diseases (NCDs). High sodium intake is identified as a leading risk factor for hypertension, which in turn increases the risk of strokes, heart attacks, arterial stiffness, and chronic kidney disease.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s indigenous dengue vaccine, ‘DengiAll’: The vaccine is based on a strain originally developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). It is a tetravalent vaccine, designed to provide immunity against all four known serotypes of the dengue virus. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The vaccine is derived from the TV003/TV005 strain, which was originally developed by the S. National Institutes of Health (NIH), not the ICMR. The technology was licensed to Indian firms, including Panacea Biotec, for further development and trials. ICMR is the primary funder and scientific lead for the Indian trials but not the original developer of the strain. Statement 2 is correct. ‘DengiAll’ is a tetravalent vaccine. This means it is formulated to protect against all four distinct dengue virus serotypes (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4). This is a critical feature, as infection with one serotype does not confer long-term immunity to the others, and subsequent infections can sometimes lead to more severe disease. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The vaccine is derived from the TV003/TV005 strain, which was originally developed by the S. National Institutes of Health (NIH), not the ICMR. The technology was licensed to Indian firms, including Panacea Biotec, for further development and trials. ICMR is the primary funder and scientific lead for the Indian trials but not the original developer of the strain. Statement 2 is correct. ‘DengiAll’ is a tetravalent vaccine. This means it is formulated to protect against all four distinct dengue virus serotypes (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4). This is a critical feature, as infection with one serotype does not confer long-term immunity to the others, and subsequent infections can sometimes lead to more severe disease.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s indigenous dengue vaccine, ‘DengiAll’:

• The vaccine is based on a strain originally developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

• It is a tetravalent vaccine, designed to provide immunity against all four known serotypes of the dengue virus.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The vaccine is derived from the TV003/TV005 strain, which was originally developed by the S. National Institutes of Health (NIH), not the ICMR. The technology was licensed to Indian firms, including Panacea Biotec, for further development and trials. ICMR is the primary funder and scientific lead for the Indian trials but not the original developer of the strain.

Statement 2 is correct. ‘DengiAll’ is a tetravalent vaccine. This means it is formulated to protect against all four distinct dengue virus serotypes (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4). This is a critical feature, as infection with one serotype does not confer long-term immunity to the others, and subsequent infections can sometimes lead to more severe disease.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The recent India-Saudi fertilizer agreement is a short-term deal to manage immediate supply chain disruptions. The agreement’s primary focus is on the import of urea and potash fertilizers. The collaboration extends beyond trade to include joint research on alternative fertilizers suitable for Indian soil conditions. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The agreement is explicitly a long-term deal with a duration of five years, starting from FY 2025-26. This is intended to ensure a steady, predictable supply and enhance India’s long-term fertilizer stability, rather than just managing immediate, short-term issues. Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement specifically concerns the import of 1 million metric tonnes (MMT) of DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) fertilizer annually. While India imports various fertilizers, this particular deal is centered on DAP, a crucial phosphatic fertilizer. Statement 3 is correct. The significance of the agreement goes beyond a simple buyer-seller relationship. It includes a joint research agenda to collaborate on developing India-specific alternative fertilizers. This aims to improve soil health and crop productivity by creating customized solutions for India’s diverse agro-climatic zones, indicating a deeper strategic partnership. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The agreement is explicitly a long-term deal with a duration of five years, starting from FY 2025-26. This is intended to ensure a steady, predictable supply and enhance India’s long-term fertilizer stability, rather than just managing immediate, short-term issues. Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement specifically concerns the import of 1 million metric tonnes (MMT) of DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) fertilizer annually. While India imports various fertilizers, this particular deal is centered on DAP, a crucial phosphatic fertilizer. Statement 3 is correct. The significance of the agreement goes beyond a simple buyer-seller relationship. It includes a joint research agenda to collaborate on developing India-specific alternative fertilizers. This aims to improve soil health and crop productivity by creating customized solutions for India’s diverse agro-climatic zones, indicating a deeper strategic partnership.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The recent India-Saudi fertilizer agreement is a short-term deal to manage immediate supply chain disruptions.

• The agreement’s primary focus is on the import of urea and potash fertilizers.

• The collaboration extends beyond trade to include joint research on alternative fertilizers suitable for Indian soil conditions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The agreement is explicitly a long-term deal with a duration of five years, starting from FY 2025-26. This is intended to ensure a steady, predictable supply and enhance India’s long-term fertilizer stability, rather than just managing immediate, short-term issues.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The agreement specifically concerns the import of 1 million metric tonnes (MMT) of DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) fertilizer annually. While India imports various fertilizers, this particular deal is centered on DAP, a crucial phosphatic fertilizer.

Statement 3 is correct. The significance of the agreement goes beyond a simple buyer-seller relationship. It includes a joint research agenda to collaborate on developing India-specific alternative fertilizers. This aims to improve soil health and crop productivity by creating customized solutions for India’s diverse agro-climatic zones, indicating a deeper strategic partnership.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The influx of Chin refugees into Mizoram has strained local resources and raised security concerns. Statement-II: The Chin people share close ethnic and cultural ties with the Mizo people of Mizoram, which has historically facilitated their acceptance. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The arrival of over 4,000 refugees in a short period has placed a significant strain on the resources of host communities in Mizoram’s Champhai district. The villagers and civil bodies are now voicing concerns over this pressure. Furthermore, issues like illegal trade and the state’s attempt to identify non-citizens through a new Bill reflect rising security fears. Statement-II is also correct. The Chins are described as belonging to the broader Zo ethnic group, sharing deep ethnic, cultural, and linguistic alignment with the Mizo people. This kinship is a key reason why Mizoram has historically been a welcoming host, providing food, shelter, and support to the refugees, often driven by civil society and church groups. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The arrival of over 4,000 refugees in a short period has placed a significant strain on the resources of host communities in Mizoram’s Champhai district. The villagers and civil bodies are now voicing concerns over this pressure. Furthermore, issues like illegal trade and the state’s attempt to identify non-citizens through a new Bill reflect rising security fears. Statement-II is also correct. The Chins are described as belonging to the broader Zo ethnic group, sharing deep ethnic, cultural, and linguistic alignment with the Mizo people. This kinship is a key reason why Mizoram has historically been a welcoming host, providing food, shelter, and support to the refugees, often driven by civil society and church groups. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The influx of Chin refugees into Mizoram has strained local resources and raised security concerns.

Statement-II: The Chin people share close ethnic and cultural ties with the Mizo people of Mizoram, which has historically facilitated their acceptance.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. The arrival of over 4,000 refugees in a short period has placed a significant strain on the resources of host communities in Mizoram’s Champhai district. The villagers and civil bodies are now voicing concerns over this pressure. Furthermore, issues like illegal trade and the state’s attempt to identify non-citizens through a new Bill reflect rising security fears.

• Statement-II is also correct. The Chins are described as belonging to the broader Zo ethnic group, sharing deep ethnic, cultural, and linguistic alignment with the Mizo people. This kinship is a key reason why Mizoram has historically been a welcoming host, providing food, shelter, and support to the refugees, often driven by civil society and church groups.

However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Solution: B

However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR), consider the following statements: TATR is located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra and is part of the Western Ghats tiger landscape. The reserve was formed by merging the Tadoba National Park and the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary. The Andhari river is a key water source that flows through the reserve. The recent controversy surrounding TATR involves the approval of a bauxite mining project within its critical tiger corridor. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While TATR is correctly located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra, it falls under the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, not the Western Ghats. This landscape is a crucial habitat block for tigers in the heart of the country. Statement 2 is correct. The reserve’s full name reflects its history. It was established by merging the Tadoba National Park (created in 1955) and the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary (created in 1986) in the year 1995 to form a single, larger protected area for tigers. Statement 3 is correct. The key rivers supporting the reserve’s ecosystem, explicitly naming the Andhari river along with the Era river and Tadoba Lake. These water bodies are vital for the lush tropical deciduous forest and its diverse fauna. Statement 4 is incorrect. The controversy is about the approval of a coal mining project, specifically the Durgapur Opencast Mine by Western Coalfields Ltd., not a bauxite mining project. This project threatens the vital tiger corridor connecting TATR with other sanctuaries. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While TATR is correctly located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra, it falls under the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, not the Western Ghats. This landscape is a crucial habitat block for tigers in the heart of the country. Statement 2 is correct. The reserve’s full name reflects its history. It was established by merging the Tadoba National Park (created in 1955) and the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary (created in 1986) in the year 1995 to form a single, larger protected area for tigers. Statement 3 is correct. The key rivers supporting the reserve’s ecosystem, explicitly naming the Andhari river along with the Era river and Tadoba Lake. These water bodies are vital for the lush tropical deciduous forest and its diverse fauna. Statement 4 is incorrect. The controversy is about the approval of a coal mining project, specifically the Durgapur Opencast Mine by Western Coalfields Ltd., not a bauxite mining project. This project threatens the vital tiger corridor connecting TATR with other sanctuaries.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR), consider the following statements:

• TATR is located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra and is part of the Western Ghats tiger landscape.

• The reserve was formed by merging the Tadoba National Park and the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary.

• The Andhari river is a key water source that flows through the reserve.

• The recent controversy surrounding TATR involves the approval of a bauxite mining project within its critical tiger corridor.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While TATR is correctly located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra, it falls under the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, not the Western Ghats. This landscape is a crucial habitat block for tigers in the heart of the country.

• Statement 2 is correct. The reserve’s full name reflects its history. It was established by merging the Tadoba National Park (created in 1955) and the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary (created in 1986) in the year 1995 to form a single, larger protected area for tigers.

• Statement 3 is correct. The key rivers supporting the reserve’s ecosystem, explicitly naming the Andhari river along with the Era river and Tadoba Lake. These water bodies are vital for the lush tropical deciduous forest and its diverse fauna.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The controversy is about the approval of a coal mining project, specifically the Durgapur Opencast Mine by Western Coalfields Ltd., not a bauxite mining project. This project threatens the vital tiger corridor connecting TATR with other sanctuaries.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Constitutional mechanisms in India are designed to prevent the extreme concentration of wealth and economic power. Statement II: Article 39(c) of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the state to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth. Statement III: Article 38(2) empowers the central government to impose a wealth tax to directly redistribute assets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I puts forth a general principle about the Indian Constitution’s intent regarding economic justice. It is a correct assertion that the framework, particularly the Directive Principles, aims to build a more equitable society. Statement II correctly identifies a specific constitutional provision that gives substance to Statement I. Article 39(c), a key DPSP, explicitly states that the state shall direct its policy towards securing “that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.” This directly explains the constitutional mandate mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While Article 38(2) mandates the state to “minimise the inequalities in income” and opportunities, it does not prescribe the specific mechanism of a wealth tax. It is a guiding principle for policy, not a direct empowerment for a specific tax. The power to levy taxes is derived from other parts of the Constitution, and while a wealth tax could be a policy tool to achieve the goal of Article 38(2), the article itself does not sanction it. Therefore, only Statement II is a correct and direct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I puts forth a general principle about the Indian Constitution’s intent regarding economic justice. It is a correct assertion that the framework, particularly the Directive Principles, aims to build a more equitable society. Statement II correctly identifies a specific constitutional provision that gives substance to Statement I. Article 39(c), a key DPSP, explicitly states that the state shall direct its policy towards securing “that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.” This directly explains the constitutional mandate mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While Article 38(2) mandates the state to “minimise the inequalities in income” and opportunities, it does not prescribe the specific mechanism of a wealth tax. It is a guiding principle for policy, not a direct empowerment for a specific tax. The power to levy taxes is derived from other parts of the Constitution, and while a wealth tax could be a policy tool to achieve the goal of Article 38(2), the article itself does not sanction it. Therefore, only Statement II is a correct and direct explanation for Statement I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Constitutional mechanisms in India are designed to prevent the extreme concentration of wealth and economic power.

Statement II: Article 39(c) of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the state to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth.

Statement III: Article 38(2) empowers the central government to impose a wealth tax to directly redistribute assets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I puts forth a general principle about the Indian Constitution’s intent regarding economic justice. It is a correct assertion that the framework, particularly the Directive Principles, aims to build a more equitable society.

• Statement II correctly identifies a specific constitutional provision that gives substance to Statement I. Article 39(c), a key DPSP, explicitly states that the state shall direct its policy towards securing “that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.” This directly explains the constitutional mandate mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement III is incorrect. While Article 38(2) mandates the state to “minimise the inequalities in income” and opportunities, it does not prescribe the specific mechanism of a wealth tax. It is a guiding principle for policy, not a direct empowerment for a specific tax. The power to levy taxes is derived from other parts of the Constitution, and while a wealth tax could be a policy tool to achieve the goal of Article 38(2), the article itself does not sanction it.

Therefore, only Statement II is a correct and direct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: C

Therefore, only Statement II is a correct and direct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the health impacts and policy response to high salt intake in India: The risk associated with high salt intake is often underestimated by the public due to the delayed onset of symptoms. Switching to low-sodium salt substitutes, which replace sodium chloride with potassium or magnesium salts, can have a significant positive impact on blood pressure. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The salt epidemic as “Silent in Nature,” noting that symptoms appear only after prolonged exposure. This delayed manifestation leads to the public largely underestimating the risk of a gradual sodium overload, making it a “silent” health crisis. Statement 2 is correct. The scientific insight that a switch to low-sodium salt, which often replaces a portion of sodium chloride (NaCl) with potassium or magnesium salts, can significantly reduce blood pressure (by an average of 7/4 mmHg). This offers a tangible and effective public health intervention. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The salt epidemic as “Silent in Nature,” noting that symptoms appear only after prolonged exposure. This delayed manifestation leads to the public largely underestimating the risk of a gradual sodium overload, making it a “silent” health crisis. Statement 2 is correct. The scientific insight that a switch to low-sodium salt, which often replaces a portion of sodium chloride (NaCl) with potassium or magnesium salts, can significantly reduce blood pressure (by an average of 7/4 mmHg). This offers a tangible and effective public health intervention.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following regarding the health impacts and policy response to high salt intake in India:

• The risk associated with high salt intake is often underestimated by the public due to the delayed onset of symptoms.

• Switching to low-sodium salt substitutes, which replace sodium chloride with potassium or magnesium salts, can have a significant positive impact on blood pressure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The salt epidemic as “Silent in Nature,” noting that symptoms appear only after prolonged exposure. This delayed manifestation leads to the public largely underestimating the risk of a gradual sodium overload, making it a “silent” health crisis.

Statement 2 is correct. The scientific insight that a switch to low-sodium salt, which often replaces a portion of sodium chloride (NaCl) with potassium or magnesium salts, can significantly reduce blood pressure (by an average of 7/4 mmHg). This offers a tangible and effective public health intervention.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The approval for the Durgapur Opencast Mine is contentious primarily because: (a) It violates the core area guidelines of Project Tiger, permitting mining within the Tadoba National Park itself. (b) It sets a precedent for diverting forest land for non-forest purposes without any financial compensation for wildlife management. (c) The Wildlife Management Plan proposed by the Wildlife Institute of India was deemed inadequate by the National Board for Wildlife. (d) The project is located within a critical tiger corridor that facilitates gene flow between separate wildlife sanctuaries. Correct Solution: D The primary source of ecological concern is the mine’s location. The project lies “within a vital tiger corridor connecting three key reserves” and is “crucial for tiger movement and gene flow.” This corridor links Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve with Kanhargaon and Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuaries. Disrupting such a corridor can isolate tiger populations, leading to genetic bottlenecks and increased human-wildlife conflict. This makes option (d) the most accurate reason for the controversy. Incorrect Solution: D The primary source of ecological concern is the mine’s location. The project lies “within a vital tiger corridor connecting three key reserves” and is “crucial for tiger movement and gene flow.” This corridor links Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve with Kanhargaon and Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuaries. Disrupting such a corridor can isolate tiger populations, leading to genetic bottlenecks and increased human-wildlife conflict. This makes option (d) the most accurate reason for the controversy.

#### 9. Question

The approval for the Durgapur Opencast Mine is contentious primarily because:

• (a) It violates the core area guidelines of Project Tiger, permitting mining within the Tadoba National Park itself.

• (b) It sets a precedent for diverting forest land for non-forest purposes without any financial compensation for wildlife management.

• (c) The Wildlife Management Plan proposed by the Wildlife Institute of India was deemed inadequate by the National Board for Wildlife.

• (d) The project is located within a critical tiger corridor that facilitates gene flow between separate wildlife sanctuaries.

Solution: D

The primary source of ecological concern is the mine’s location. The project lies “within a vital tiger corridor connecting three key reserves” and is “crucial for tiger movement and gene flow.” This corridor links Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve with Kanhargaon and Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuaries. Disrupting such a corridor can isolate tiger populations, leading to genetic bottlenecks and increased human-wildlife conflict. This makes option (d) the most accurate reason for the controversy.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following objectives of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme: To scale up research and development primarily in the public sector and government laboratories. To establish a dedicated Deep-Tech Fund of Funds to support innovation in frontier technologies. To encourage the development of projects with high Technology Readiness Levels (TRLs). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The RDI Scheme’s explicit and primary objective is to catalyze and scale up R&D and innovation in the private sector. While public sector research is important, this particular scheme is designed to address the funding gap and risk aversion in private R&D investment. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme includes the establishment of a Deep-Tech Fund of Funds (FoF). This is a strategic component aimed at channeling capital into high-risk, high-reward frontier technology areas like AI, semiconductors, quantum computing, and biotechnology. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a clear focus on translating research into market-ready products. By prioritizing projects with higher TRLs, it aims to support innovations that have already demonstrated feasibility and are closer to commercialization, thus ensuring a tangible return on investment and faster economic impact. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The RDI Scheme’s explicit and primary objective is to catalyze and scale up R&D and innovation in the private sector. While public sector research is important, this particular scheme is designed to address the funding gap and risk aversion in private R&D investment. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme includes the establishment of a Deep-Tech Fund of Funds (FoF). This is a strategic component aimed at channeling capital into high-risk, high-reward frontier technology areas like AI, semiconductors, quantum computing, and biotechnology. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a clear focus on translating research into market-ready products. By prioritizing projects with higher TRLs, it aims to support innovations that have already demonstrated feasibility and are closer to commercialization, thus ensuring a tangible return on investment and faster economic impact.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following objectives of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme:

• To scale up research and development primarily in the public sector and government laboratories.

• To establish a dedicated Deep-Tech Fund of Funds to support innovation in frontier technologies.

• To encourage the development of projects with high Technology Readiness Levels (TRLs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The RDI Scheme’s explicit and primary objective is to catalyze and scale up R&D and innovation in the private sector. While public sector research is important, this particular scheme is designed to address the funding gap and risk aversion in private R&D investment.

• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme includes the establishment of a Deep-Tech Fund of Funds (FoF). This is a strategic component aimed at channeling capital into high-risk, high-reward frontier technology areas like AI, semiconductors, quantum computing, and biotechnology.

• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has a clear focus on translating research into market-ready products. By prioritizing projects with higher TRLs, it aims to support innovations that have already demonstrated feasibility and are closer to commercialization, thus ensuring a tangible return on investment and faster economic impact.

Solution: D

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