UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the aftermath of the Santhal Rebellion: The leaders of the rebellion, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were exiled to the Andaman Islands. The British government created a separate administrative unit called the Santhal Parganas. The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was enacted to prevent the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region. Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising. Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region. Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the aftermath of the Santhal Rebellion:

• The leaders of the rebellion, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were exiled to the Andaman Islands.

• The British government created a separate administrative unit called the Santhal Parganas.

• The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was enacted to prevent the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British. The leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, were captured and killed in 1856, not exiled. Their execution marked the end of the uprising.

• Statement 2 is correct. Recognizing that the rebellion was a direct result of administrative and economic exploitation, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, which created the separate administrative district of Santhal Parganas. This was done to provide a more direct and focused system of governance for the region.

• Statement 3 is correct. As a direct consequence and a crucial reform measure, the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was eventually enacted (the first version in 1876, with later amendments). Its primary objective was to protect the land rights of the Santhals by restricting the sale and transfer of their lands to non-tribals, addressing a core cause of the rebellion.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the reasonable restrictions on the Right to Free Speech under the Indian Constitution: The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are explicitly mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution. Any restriction imposed must be subjected to judicial review to determine its reasonableness. The term ‘public order’ as a ground for restriction was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression. The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order. Incorrect Solution: D The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression. The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the reasonable restrictions on the Right to Free Speech under the Indian Constitution:

• The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are explicitly mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

• Any restriction imposed must be subjected to judicial review to determine its reasonableness.

• The term ‘public order’ as a ground for restriction was added through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. The Constitution itself provides for the imposition of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) on specific grounds. These grounds include the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.

• The Supreme Court, in cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, has repeatedly affirmed that any such restriction must be reasonable and is subject to judicial scrutiny. This ensures that the executive or legislature cannot impose arbitrary curbs on free expression.

• The ground of ‘public order’ was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951. This was a response to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, where it was held that unless a law restricting speech directly threatens the security of the state, it cannot be deemed constitutional. The amendment broadened the scope for restrictions to include the interest of public order.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems, consider the following statements: Statement I: FGD systems are primarily designed to capture and remove Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the flue gases of coal-fired thermal power plants. Statement II: The installation of FGD systems helps in mitigating the formation of secondary PM2.5 pollutants, which are a major component of air pollution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents. Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze. Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents. Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze. Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems, consider the following statements:

Statement I: FGD systems are primarily designed to capture and remove Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the flue gases of coal-fired thermal power plants.

Statement II: The installation of FGD systems helps in mitigating the formation of secondary PM2.5 pollutants, which are a major component of air pollution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I accurately describes the primary function of a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) system, which is a critical pollution control technology for thermal power plants that burn coal. Its main purpose is to scrub Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) from the exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere, often using a limestone slurry or other chemical sorbents.

• Statement-II correctly explains a key environmental benefit of installing FGDs. SO₂ released into the atmosphere can undergo chemical reactions to form sulphate aerosols, which are a significant contributor to the formation of secondary PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5). These fine particles are a major health hazard and a primary component of smog and regional haze.

• Therefore, by removing SO₂ at the source (as stated in Statement-I), FGD systems directly prevent the atmospheric reactions that lead to the creation of secondary PM2.5 (as explained in Statement-II). This makes Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the following protected areas with the state they are primarily located in: List-I (Protected Area) List-II (State) A. Nagarahole National Park 1. Odisha B. Valmiki Tiger Reserve 2. Uttar Pradesh C. Dudhwa National Park 3. Karnataka D. Similipal National Park 4. Bihar Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: B Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses. Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal. Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park. Incorrect Solution: B Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses. Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal. Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

#### 4. Question

Match the following protected areas with the state they are primarily located in:

List-I (Protected Area) | List-II (State)

A. Nagarahole National Park | 1. Odisha

B. Valmiki Tiger Reserve | 2. Uttar Pradesh

C. Dudhwa National Park | 3. Karnataka

D. Similipal National Park | 4. Bihar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

• (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

• (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

• (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Solution: B

• Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

• Valmiki Tiger Reserve, the only tiger reserve in the state, is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar, bordering Nepal. It has been identified as a potential site for the translocation of one-horned rhinoceroses.

• Dudhwa National Park, a major protected area, is located in the Terai belt of Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the existing habitats for the one-horned rhinoceros in India outside of Assam and West Bengal.

• Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

Solution: B

• Nagarahole National Park is a prominent Tiger Reserve located in the Kodagu and Mysuru districts of Karnataka. It is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

• Similipal National Park, recently notified, is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is famous for its melanistic tigers and is the state’s largest national park.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech in India: Statement I: The Constitution of India guarantees the absolute and unrestricted right to freedom of speech and expression to all its citizens. Statement II: The judiciary has the power to review the legislative and executive actions that restrict free speech. Statement III: The freedom of the press is explicitly mentioned and guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong. Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action. Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong. Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action. Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech in India:

Statement I: The Constitution of India guarantees the absolute and unrestricted right to freedom of speech and expression to all its citizens.

Statement II: The judiciary has the power to review the legislative and executive actions that restrict free speech.

Statement III: The freedom of the press is explicitly mentioned and guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute. Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, public order, decency, morality, etc. The use of the word “absolute” makes this statement factually wrong.

• Statement II is correct. The concept of “reasonable restrictions” implies that any limitation imposed by the state must be fair and not arbitrary. The Indian judiciary has consistently held that it has the power of judicial review to determine whether a particular restriction is reasonable. The landmark case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, which struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, is a prime example of this power in action.

• Statement III is incorrect. While the freedom of the press is considered a fundamental right, it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 19(1)(a). It is an implied right, derived from the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court affirmed this in the case of Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras, holding that freedom of the press is a cornerstone of democracy and is included within the guarantee of free speech.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans): It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List due to the illegal pet trade. Its natural habitat includes arid and semi-arid regions such as thorn scrub forests and grasslands in India and Sri Lanka. It is granted the highest level of legal protection in India under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade. Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade. Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans):

• It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List due to the illegal pet trade.

• Its natural habitat includes arid and semi-arid regions such as thorn scrub forests and grasslands in India and Sri Lanka.

• It is granted the highest level of legal protection in India under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Star Tortoise faces significant threats from the illegal exotic pet trade, which has led to a major population decline. However, its current status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Vulnerable’, not ‘Critically Endangered’. Its status was uplisted to Appendix I of CITES to curb international trade.

• Statement 2 is correct. This species is well-adapted to dry environments. Its natural habitat consists of arid and semi-arid landscapes, including thorn scrub forests, semi-deserts, and grasslands. Its geographical distribution spans across Northwest India, parts of South India, and Sri Lanka.

• Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing the severe threat posed by illegal trade and habitat loss, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted the highest level of legal protection in India. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, making its poaching, possession, or trade a serious criminal offense.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Grey Hornbill: It is the smallest of all Asian hornbill species. The species is endemic to the Western Ghats and is known for the prominent casque on its bill. It is legally protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The bird adapts well to human-modified landscapes like coffee and areca nut plantations, provided there is sufficient canopy cover. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I. Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I. Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Grey Hornbill:

• It is the smallest of all Asian hornbill species.

• The species is endemic to the Western Ghats and is known for the prominent casque on its bill.

• It is legally protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• The bird adapts well to human-modified landscapes like coffee and areca nut plantations, provided there is sufficient canopy cover.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is endemic to the Western Ghats, a key feature of the Malabar Grey Hornbill is that it lacks the prominent casque (a hollow or spongy structure on the upper mandible of the bill) that is characteristic of many other larger hornbill species.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not Schedule I. Schedule IV provides protection, but it is a lower level of protection compared to the highest degree afforded to species in Schedule I.

• Statement 4 is correct. This species shows a degree of adaptability and is found not only in evergreen forests but also in human-modified habitats like coffee, rubber, and areca nut plantations. However, their presence in these areas is contingent on the availability of dense canopy cover and suitable nesting trees.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Malabar Grey Hornbill is the smallest of the Asian hornbill species, which is one of its distinguishing characteristics.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the principles and conventions related to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India: The Chief Justice of India can be appointed for a second term, subject to Presidential discretion. The principle of seniority is a constitutional mandate for appointing the Chief Justice. The principle of seniority has evolved as a convention and is guided by the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP). How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge. Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge. Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the principles and conventions related to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India:

• The Chief Justice of India can be appointed for a second term, subject to Presidential discretion.

• The principle of seniority is a constitutional mandate for appointing the Chief Justice.

• The principle of seniority has evolved as a convention and is guided by the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge. Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT an example of non-kinetic warfare? a) Cyberattacks targeting a nation’s power grid. b) Bombing a military installation to destroy communication infrastructure. c) Spreading disinformation to manipulate public opinion during elections. d) Jamming satellite communications to disrupt a country’s defense systems. Correct Solution: B Bombing a military installation is an example of kinetic warfare, which involves physical combat and destruction through traditional military tactics. In contrast, non-kinetic warfare encompasses tactics like cyberattacks, disinformation, psychological manipulation, and electronic jamming, all of which can disrupt a nation’s critical infrastructure or public sentiment without direct physical confrontation. The example of bombing, while targeting communication infrastructure, still involves physical destruction, making it a kinetic tactic. Incorrect Solution: B Bombing a military installation is an example of kinetic warfare, which involves physical combat and destruction through traditional military tactics. In contrast, non-kinetic warfare encompasses tactics like cyberattacks, disinformation, psychological manipulation, and electronic jamming, all of which can disrupt a nation’s critical infrastructure or public sentiment without direct physical confrontation. The example of bombing, while targeting communication infrastructure, still involves physical destruction, making it a kinetic tactic.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is NOT an example of non-kinetic warfare?

• a) Cyberattacks targeting a nation’s power grid.

• b) Bombing a military installation to destroy communication infrastructure.

• c) Spreading disinformation to manipulate public opinion during elections.

• d) Jamming satellite communications to disrupt a country’s defense systems.

Solution: B

Bombing a military installation is an example of kinetic warfare, which involves physical combat and destruction through traditional military tactics. In contrast, non-kinetic warfare encompasses tactics like cyberattacks, disinformation, psychological manipulation, and electronic jamming, all of which can disrupt a nation’s critical infrastructure or public sentiment without direct physical confrontation.

The example of bombing, while targeting communication infrastructure, still involves physical destruction, making it a kinetic tactic.

Solution: B

The example of bombing, while targeting communication infrastructure, still involves physical destruction, making it a kinetic tactic.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms: The Bahmani kingdom was known for its religious tolerance and patronage of various faiths. The Vijayanagar kingdom fell in the 17th century mainly due to invasions by the Mughal Empire. Gulbarga served as the capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was shifted to Bidar. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the Bahmani kingdom was indeed known for its relatively tolerant policies toward different religions, including Hinduism and Islam. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Vijayanagar kingdom faced significant challenges and eventually fell due to a combination of internal strife and the Deccan Sultanates’ coalition in the 16th century, the Mughal Empire’s direct involvement in its decline is overstated. Statement 3 is also correct; Gulbarga was the initial capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was moved to Bidar. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the Bahmani kingdom was indeed known for its relatively tolerant policies toward different religions, including Hinduism and Islam. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Vijayanagar kingdom faced significant challenges and eventually fell due to a combination of internal strife and the Deccan Sultanates’ coalition in the 16th century, the Mughal Empire’s direct involvement in its decline is overstated. Statement 3 is also correct; Gulbarga was the initial capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was moved to Bidar.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms:

• The Bahmani kingdom was known for its religious tolerance and patronage of various faiths.

• The Vijayanagar kingdom fell in the 17th century mainly due to invasions by the Mughal Empire.

• Gulbarga served as the capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was shifted to Bidar.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; the Bahmani kingdom was indeed known for its relatively tolerant policies toward different religions, including Hinduism and Islam.

Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Vijayanagar kingdom faced significant challenges and eventually fell due to a combination of internal strife and the Deccan Sultanates’ coalition in the 16th century, the Mughal Empire’s direct involvement in its decline is overstated.

Statement 3 is also correct; Gulbarga was the initial capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was moved to Bidar.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; the Bahmani kingdom was indeed known for its relatively tolerant policies toward different religions, including Hinduism and Islam.

Statement 3 is also correct; Gulbarga was the initial capital of the Bahmani kingdom before it was moved to Bidar.

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