UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 August 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban(PMAY-U) 2.0. The scheme targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans. The program focuses solely on new construction projects. Middle-income groups are not the beneficiaries under PMAY-U 2.0. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. The scheme, targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans for economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG). The program does not focus solely on new construction projects. It offers assistance for building, purchasing, or renting affordable housing, indicating a multi-faceted approach to addressing urban housing needs. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. The scheme, targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans for economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG). The program does not focus solely on new construction projects. It offers assistance for building, purchasing, or renting affordable housing, indicating a multi-faceted approach to addressing urban housing needs.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban(PMAY-U) 2.0.

• The scheme targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans.

• The program focuses solely on new construction projects.

• Middle-income groups are not the beneficiaries under PMAY-U 2.0.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

The scheme, targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans for economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG).

The program does not focus solely on new construction projects. It offers assistance for building, purchasing, or renting affordable housing, indicating a multi-faceted approach to addressing urban housing needs.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

The scheme, targets families with no permanent house and offers subsidies on home loans for economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG).

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is not an example of technological doping in sports? a) Speedo's LZR Racer swimsuits b) Wearable technology for performance data c) Nike's Vaporfly running shoes d) Traditional leather football boots Correct Solution: d) Traditional leather football boots do not represent technological doping in sports. Technological doping refers to the use of advanced technology to enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages. Examples like high-tech swimsuits, data-providing wearables, and advanced running shoes with performance-enhancing features fall under this category, while traditional equipment does not offer such technological advantages. Incorrect Solution: d) Traditional leather football boots do not represent technological doping in sports. Technological doping refers to the use of advanced technology to enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages. Examples like high-tech swimsuits, data-providing wearables, and advanced running shoes with performance-enhancing features fall under this category, while traditional equipment does not offer such technological advantages.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is not an example of technological doping in sports?

• a) Speedo's LZR Racer swimsuits

• b) Wearable technology for performance data

• c) Nike's Vaporfly running shoes

• d) Traditional leather football boots

• Solution: d)

Traditional leather football boots do not represent technological doping in sports. Technological doping refers to the use of advanced technology to enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages.

Examples like high-tech swimsuits, data-providing wearables, and advanced running shoes with performance-enhancing features fall under this category, while traditional equipment does not offer such technological advantages.

• Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Where is the Tungabhadra Dam located? a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Karnataka d) Kerala Correct Solution: c) The Tungabhadra Dam, also known as Pampa Sagar, is located in Hosapete, Ballari district of Karnataka. It is a multipurpose dam built across the Tungabhadra River. The dam was constructed in 1953 by Dr. Thirumalai Iyengar and has been a crucial part of the region’s infrastructure for over 70 years. Its location in Karnataka is significant for water management and flood control in both Karnataka and neighboring Andhra Pradesh, highlighting the interstate importance of this major hydraulic structure. Incorrect Solution: c) The Tungabhadra Dam, also known as Pampa Sagar, is located in Hosapete, Ballari district of Karnataka. It is a multipurpose dam built across the Tungabhadra River. The dam was constructed in 1953 by Dr. Thirumalai Iyengar and has been a crucial part of the region’s infrastructure for over 70 years. Its location in Karnataka is significant for water management and flood control in both Karnataka and neighboring Andhra Pradesh, highlighting the interstate importance of this major hydraulic structure.

#### 3. Question

Where is the Tungabhadra Dam located?

• a) Tamil Nadu

• b) Andhra Pradesh

• c) Karnataka

• Solution: c)

The Tungabhadra Dam, also known as Pampa Sagar, is located in Hosapete, Ballari district of Karnataka. It is a multipurpose dam built across the Tungabhadra River. The dam was constructed in 1953 by Dr. Thirumalai Iyengar and has been a crucial part of the region’s infrastructure for over 70 years. Its location in Karnataka is significant for water management and flood control in both Karnataka and neighboring Andhra Pradesh, highlighting the interstate importance of this major hydraulic structure.

• Solution: c)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Kerala’s Jewish communities 1. Most Kerala Jews remained in Kerala after Israel’s formation. 2. Malabar Jews trace origins to King Solomon’s era. 3. Recently Kerla witnessed the death of the last Paradesi Jewish woman. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Since the 1950s, which coincides with the formation of Israel in 1948, most Kerala Jews have migrated to Israel. Only a handful of Malabar and Paradesi Jews remain in Kerala today. STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Malabar Jews, one of the two main Jewish communities in Kerala, claim their ancestry dates back to the time of King Solomon, which would be around the 10th century BCE. This long-standing historical connection is part of their community’s oral tradition and identity. STATEMENT 3 EXPLANATION :: This event marks a significant moment in the community’s history, symbolizing the near-extinction of a once-thriving group. The Paradesi Jews, who migrated from the Iberian Peninsula in the 15th and 16th centuries, were a distinct community in Kerala. Their dwindling numbers reflect broader trends of Jewish migration from India, particularly to Israel since the 1950s. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Since the 1950s, which coincides with the formation of Israel in 1948, most Kerala Jews have migrated to Israel. Only a handful of Malabar and Paradesi Jews remain in Kerala today. STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Malabar Jews, one of the two main Jewish communities in Kerala, claim their ancestry dates back to the time of King Solomon, which would be around the 10th century BCE. This long-standing historical connection is part of their community’s oral tradition and identity. STATEMENT 3 EXPLANATION :: This event marks a significant moment in the community’s history, symbolizing the near-extinction of a once-thriving group. The Paradesi Jews, who migrated from the Iberian Peninsula in the 15th and 16th centuries, were a distinct community in Kerala. Their dwindling numbers reflect broader trends of Jewish migration from India, particularly to Israel since the 1950s.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Kerala’s Jewish communities 1. Most Kerala Jews remained in Kerala after Israel’s formation. 2. Malabar Jews trace origins to King Solomon’s era. 3. Recently Kerla witnessed the death of the last Paradesi Jewish woman.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Since the 1950s, which coincides with the formation of Israel in 1948, most Kerala Jews have migrated to Israel. Only a handful of Malabar and Paradesi Jews remain in Kerala today.

STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Malabar Jews, one of the two main Jewish communities in Kerala, claim their ancestry dates back to the time of King Solomon, which would be around the 10th century BCE. This long-standing historical connection is part of their community’s oral tradition and identity.

STATEMENT 3 EXPLANATION :: This event marks a significant moment in the community’s history, symbolizing the near-extinction of a once-thriving group. The Paradesi Jews, who migrated from the Iberian Peninsula in the 15th and 16th centuries, were a distinct community in Kerala. Their dwindling numbers reflect broader trends of Jewish migration from India, particularly to Israel since the 1950s.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Preventive detention laws in India STATEMENT 1: Article 22(7) of the Constitution of India allows extended preventive detention. STATEMENT 2: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act permits preventive detention. Which of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only STATEMENT 1 b) Only STATEMENT 2 c) BOTH STATEMENTS d) Neither statements Correct Solution: c) STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Article 22(7) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws extending preventive detention beyond three months under specific circumstances, classes of cases, or for particular categories of persons. STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for preventive detention. It is one of the stringent anti-terror laws in India that provides for detention without immediate trial for national security reasons. Incorrect Solution: c) STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Article 22(7) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws extending preventive detention beyond three months under specific circumstances, classes of cases, or for particular categories of persons. STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for preventive detention. It is one of the stringent anti-terror laws in India that provides for detention without immediate trial for national security reasons.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Preventive detention laws in India STATEMENT 1: Article 22(7) of the Constitution of India allows extended preventive detention. STATEMENT 2: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act permits preventive detention. Which of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only STATEMENT 1

• b) Only STATEMENT 2

• c) BOTH STATEMENTS

• d) Neither statements

• Solution: c)

STATEMENT 1 EXPLANATION :: Article 22(7) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws extending preventive detention beyond three months under specific circumstances, classes of cases, or for particular categories of persons.

STATEMENT 2 EXPLANATION :: The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act indeed allows for preventive detention. It is one of the stringent anti-terror laws in India that provides for detention without immediate trial for national security reasons.

• Solution: c)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Geneva Conventions and their scope. Excludes protection for wounded soldiers at sea. Cover treatment of prisoners of war. Protects civilians from inhumane treatment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Geneva Conventions are a set of international treaties that establish legal standards for humanitarian treatment during war. They form the core of international humanitarian law (IHL) and aim to limit the suffering of people who are not or no longer participating in hostilities, such as civilians, wounded soldiers, and prisoners of war. Adoption and History: The first Geneva Convention was adopted in 1864 to protect wounded soldiers on the battlefield. The current four Geneva Conventions were adopted on August 12, 1949, after World War II, to address the horrors of the war and provide comprehensive protection in armed conflicts. The Four Conventions: First Geneva Convention: Protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war. Second Geneva Convention: Extends protection to wounded, sick, and shipwrecked military personnel at sea. Third Geneva Convention: Focuses on the treatment of prisoners of war. Fourth Geneva Convention: Protects civilians, including those in occupied territories, from inhumane treatment. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Geneva Conventions are a set of international treaties that establish legal standards for humanitarian treatment during war. They form the core of international humanitarian law (IHL) and aim to limit the suffering of people who are not or no longer participating in hostilities, such as civilians, wounded soldiers, and prisoners of war. Adoption and History: The first Geneva Convention was adopted in 1864 to protect wounded soldiers on the battlefield. The current four Geneva Conventions were adopted on August 12, 1949, after World War II, to address the horrors of the war and provide comprehensive protection in armed conflicts. The Four Conventions: First Geneva Convention: Protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war. Second Geneva Convention: Extends protection to wounded, sick, and shipwrecked military personnel at sea. Third Geneva Convention: Focuses on the treatment of prisoners of war. Fourth Geneva Convention: Protects civilians, including those in occupied territories, from inhumane treatment.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Geneva Conventions and their scope.

• Excludes protection for wounded soldiers at sea.

• Cover treatment of prisoners of war.

• Protects civilians from inhumane treatment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Geneva Conventions are a set of international treaties that establish legal standards for humanitarian treatment during war. They form the core of international humanitarian law (IHL) and aim to limit the suffering of people who are not or no longer participating in hostilities, such as civilians, wounded soldiers, and prisoners of war.

Adoption and History:

The first Geneva Convention was adopted in 1864 to protect wounded soldiers on the battlefield.

The current four Geneva Conventions were adopted on August 12, 1949, after World War II, to address the horrors of the war and provide comprehensive protection in armed conflicts.

The Four Conventions:

• First Geneva Convention: Protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war.

• Second Geneva Convention: Extends protection to wounded, sick, and shipwrecked military personnel at sea.

• Third Geneva Convention: Focuses on the treatment of prisoners of war.

• Fourth Geneva Convention: Protects civilians, including those in occupied territories, from inhumane treatment.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Adoption and History:

The first Geneva Convention was adopted in 1864 to protect wounded soldiers on the battlefield.

The current four Geneva Conventions were adopted on August 12, 1949, after World War II, to address the horrors of the war and provide comprehensive protection in armed conflicts.

The Four Conventions:

• First Geneva Convention: Protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war.

• Second Geneva Convention: Extends protection to wounded, sick, and shipwrecked military personnel at sea.

• Third Geneva Convention: Focuses on the treatment of prisoners of war.

• Fourth Geneva Convention: Protects civilians, including those in occupied territories, from inhumane treatment.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Wearable technology in sports is primarily used to: a) Enhance the physical strength of athletes b) Directly influence an athlete’s physical capabilities c) Replace traditional training methods d) Monitor and analyze performance data Correct Solution: d) There is a growing concern about “technological doping” in professional sports, where advancements in technology enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages. The term gained attention when Speedo’s LZR Racer swimsuits, developed with NASA, led to 13 world records in 2008 before being banned. Wearable technology, now used by around 500 million people globally, provides athletes with data to improve performance,but it raises questions about whether improvements are due to the technology or a placebo effect. For instance, new running shoes like Nike’s Vaporflys, which helped Eliud Kipchoge break the two-hour marathon record, have sparked debates about their fairness. Despite outperforming other shoes, the exact biomechanical reasons for their superiority remain unclear. Incorrect Solution: d) There is a growing concern about “technological doping” in professional sports, where advancements in technology enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages. The term gained attention when Speedo’s LZR Racer swimsuits, developed with NASA, led to 13 world records in 2008 before being banned. Wearable technology, now used by around 500 million people globally, provides athletes with data to improve performance,but it raises questions about whether improvements are due to the technology or a placebo effect. For instance, new running shoes like Nike’s Vaporflys, which helped Eliud Kipchoge break the two-hour marathon record, have sparked debates about their fairness. Despite outperforming other shoes, the exact biomechanical reasons for their superiority remain unclear.

#### 7. Question

Wearable technology in sports is primarily used to:

• a) Enhance the physical strength of athletes

• b) Directly influence an athlete’s physical capabilities

• c) Replace traditional training methods

• d) Monitor and analyze performance data

Solution: d)

• There is a growing concern about “technological doping” in professional sports, where advancements in technology enhance an athlete’s performance beyond their natural capabilities, potentially creating unfair advantages.

• The term gained attention when Speedo’s LZR Racer swimsuits, developed with NASA, led to 13 world records in 2008 before being banned.

• Wearable technology, now used by around 500 million people globally, provides athletes with data to improve performance,but it raises questions about whether improvements are due to the technology or a placebo effect.

• For instance, new running shoes like Nike’s Vaporflys, which helped Eliud Kipchoge break the two-hour marathon record, have sparked debates about their fairness. Despite outperforming other shoes, the exact biomechanical reasons for their superiority remain unclear.

Solution: d)

• The term gained attention when Speedo’s LZR Racer swimsuits, developed with NASA, led to 13 world records in 2008 before being banned.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What must be done before establishing a new institution or increasing admission capacity in allied and healthcare professions as per the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021? a) Obtain permission from the National Commission b) Submit an application to the local government c) Seek approval from the Ministry of Health d) Obtain permission from the State Council Correct Solution: d) What is the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021? It is a legislative framework aimed at regulating and standardizing education and practices in the allied and healthcare professions. The Act establishes the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, which is responsible for setting policies, maintaining a central register of professionals, ensuring uniformity in qualifications, and overseeing professional conduct. Permission for Establishment of Institutions Prior permission from the State Council is required to establish a new institution, open new courses, increase admission capacity, or admit a new batch of students. Failure to obtain permission means the qualification granted will not be recognized under the Bill. Incorrect Solution: d) What is the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021? It is a legislative framework aimed at regulating and standardizing education and practices in the allied and healthcare professions. The Act establishes the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, which is responsible for setting policies, maintaining a central register of professionals, ensuring uniformity in qualifications, and overseeing professional conduct. Permission for Establishment of Institutions Prior permission from the State Council is required to establish a new institution, open new courses, increase admission capacity, or admit a new batch of students. Failure to obtain permission means the qualification granted will not be recognized under the Bill.

#### 8. Question

What must be done before establishing a new institution or increasing admission capacity in allied and healthcare professions as per the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021?

• a) Obtain permission from the National Commission

• b) Submit an application to the local government

• c) Seek approval from the Ministry of Health

• d) Obtain permission from the State Council

Solution: d)

What is the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021?

It is a legislative framework aimed at regulating and standardizing education and practices in the allied and healthcare professions. The Act establishes the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, which is responsible for setting policies, maintaining a central register of professionals, ensuring uniformity in qualifications, and overseeing professional conduct.

Permission for Establishment of Institutions | Prior permission from the State Council is required to establish a new institution, open new courses, increase admission capacity, or admit a new batch of students.

Failure to obtain permission means the qualification granted will not be recognized under the Bill.

Solution: d)

What is the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, 2021?

Failure to obtain permission means the qualification granted will not be recognized under the Bill.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points What benefit is provided under the PM Mudra Yojana for prompt repayment of Shishu loans? a) A reduction in loan tenure b) Additional funding for expansion c) An interest subvention of 2% d) A higher loan limit Correct Solution: c) Steps taken to improve the scheme udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans Incorrect Solution: c) Steps taken to improve the scheme udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans

#### 9. Question

What benefit is provided under the PM Mudra Yojana for prompt repayment of Shishu loans?

• a) A reduction in loan tenure

• b) Additional funding for expansion

• c) An interest subvention of 2%

• d) A higher loan limit

Solution: c)

Steps taken to improve the scheme | udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Match the following Pradhan Mantri schemes with their corresponding ministries or departments: COLUMN 1 1. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana 2. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana COLUMN 2 A. Ministry of Finance B. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas C. Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs Select the option with correct matching pairs below. a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C Correct Solution: a) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched by the Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Incorrect Solution: a) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched by the Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

#### 10. Question

Match the following Pradhan Mantri schemes with their corresponding ministries or departments: COLUMN 1 1. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana 2. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana

COLUMN 2 A. Ministry of Finance B. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas C. Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Select the option with correct matching pairs below.

• a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

• b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

• c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

• d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

• Solution: a)

Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched by the Ministry of Finance. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

• Solution: a)

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