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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 15 April 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Taiwan Strait. Assertion (A): The Taiwan Strait is increasingly militarised due to U.S. and Chinese naval activity. Reason (R): Both U.S and China treat the Strait as sovereign territory under exclusive jurisdiction. Which of the following is correct? a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is correct but R is incorrect d) A is incorrect but R is correct Correct Solution: c) Assertion is correct. The Taiwan Strait is a military flashpoint, with U.S. patrols, Chinese naval drills, and airspace incursions increasing. Reason is incorrect. While China claims extended control, the U.S. and allies reject that, considering it international waters. Both do not treat it as sovereign territory—only China attempts to assert such jurisdiction, while U.S. asserts freedom of navigation under UNCLOS. Incorrect Solution: c) Assertion is correct. The Taiwan Strait is a military flashpoint, with U.S. patrols, Chinese naval drills, and airspace incursions increasing. Reason is incorrect. While China claims extended control, the U.S. and allies reject that, considering it international waters. Both do not treat it as sovereign territory—only China attempts to assert such jurisdiction, while U.S. asserts freedom of navigation under UNCLOS.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Taiwan Strait.

Assertion (A): The Taiwan Strait is increasingly militarised due to U.S. and Chinese naval activity. Reason (R): Both U.S and China treat the Strait as sovereign territory under exclusive jurisdiction.

Which of the following is correct?

• a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

• b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

• c) A is correct but R is incorrect

• d) A is incorrect but R is correct

Solution: c)

• Assertion is correct. The Taiwan Strait is a military flashpoint, with U.S. patrols, Chinese naval drills, and airspace incursions increasing.

• Reason is incorrect. While China claims extended control, the U.S. and allies reject that, considering it international waters.

• Both do not treat it as sovereign territory—only China attempts to assert such jurisdiction, while U.S. asserts freedom of navigation under UNCLOS.

Solution: c)

• Assertion is correct. The Taiwan Strait is a military flashpoint, with U.S. patrols, Chinese naval drills, and airspace incursions increasing.

• Reason is incorrect. While China claims extended control, the U.S. and allies reject that, considering it international waters.

• Both do not treat it as sovereign territory—only China attempts to assert such jurisdiction, while U.S. asserts freedom of navigation under UNCLOS.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best explains why translocation of One-Horned Rhinoceros is a conservation priority in India? a) To prevent competition between rhinos and elephants in Kaziranga b) To reduce grazing pressure on grasslands in Terai and Brahmaputra floodplains c) To increase ecotourism potential across national parks in semi-arid zones d) To distribute the population more evenly and mitigate extinction risk from localized threats Correct Solution: d) India’s One-Horned Rhinoceros population is heavily concentrated in a few parks, notably Kaziranga (over 2,600 rhinos) and Pobitora (with the highest density). This population clustering increases risks from floods, disease outbreaks, poaching, or habitat degradation. The National Rhino Conservation Action Plan promotes translocation to new or historic habitats across five states, ensuring genetic diversification, reduced anthropogenic conflict, and resilience against ecological or manmade disasters. This is not for tourism or elephant competition, but for risk mitigation and landscape-level conservation. Incorrect Solution: d) India’s One-Horned Rhinoceros population is heavily concentrated in a few parks, notably Kaziranga (over 2,600 rhinos) and Pobitora (with the highest density). This population clustering increases risks from floods, disease outbreaks, poaching, or habitat degradation. The National Rhino Conservation Action Plan promotes translocation to new or historic habitats across five states, ensuring genetic diversification, reduced anthropogenic conflict, and resilience against ecological or manmade disasters. This is not for tourism or elephant competition, but for risk mitigation and landscape-level conservation.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements best explains why translocation of One-Horned Rhinoceros is a conservation priority in India?

• a) To prevent competition between rhinos and elephants in Kaziranga

• b) To reduce grazing pressure on grasslands in Terai and Brahmaputra floodplains

• c) To increase ecotourism potential across national parks in semi-arid zones

• d) To distribute the population more evenly and mitigate extinction risk from localized threats

Solution: d)

• India’s One-Horned Rhinoceros population is heavily concentrated in a few parks, notably Kaziranga (over 2,600 rhinos) and Pobitora (with the highest density).

• This population clustering increases risks from floods, disease outbreaks, poaching, or habitat degradation.

• The National Rhino Conservation Action Plan promotes translocation to new or historic habitats across five states, ensuring genetic diversification, reduced anthropogenic conflict, and resilience against ecological or manmade disasters.

• This is not for tourism or elephant competition, but for risk mitigation and landscape-level conservation.

Solution: d)

• India’s One-Horned Rhinoceros population is heavily concentrated in a few parks, notably Kaziranga (over 2,600 rhinos) and Pobitora (with the highest density).

• This population clustering increases risks from floods, disease outbreaks, poaching, or habitat degradation.

• The National Rhino Conservation Action Plan promotes translocation to new or historic habitats across five states, ensuring genetic diversification, reduced anthropogenic conflict, and resilience against ecological or manmade disasters.

• This is not for tourism or elephant competition, but for risk mitigation and landscape-level conservation.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the accommodative policy stance and its fiscal-monetary linkages: Accommodative stance supports fiscal consolidation by reducing interest expenditure. It can trigger crowding out of private investment by raising interest rates. It is maintained only during revenue surplus years by the government. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. By lowering bond yields and borrowing costs, accommodative stance reduces interest payments on public debt, aiding fiscal management. Statement 2 is incorrect. Crowding out happens under tight monetary policy, not accommodative. Statement 3 is incorrect. Fiscal deficits are often high during accommodative periods; the stance is not contingent on revenue surplus. What is an Accommodative Stance? An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system. When is it Adopted? When economic growth slows or is below potential. When inflation is low or within target range. During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment. In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties. Objectives of the Accommodative Stance: Promote credit flow and private investment. Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital. Revive demand in the economy. Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors. Tools Used by RBI under Accommodative Stance: Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks. Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity. Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity. Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending. Implications on the Indian Economy: Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth. Reduces interest burden on borrowers. May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists. If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee. Supports employment generation in the short term. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. By lowering bond yields and borrowing costs, accommodative stance reduces interest payments on public debt, aiding fiscal management. Statement 2 is incorrect. Crowding out happens under tight monetary policy, not accommodative. Statement 3 is incorrect. Fiscal deficits are often high during accommodative periods; the stance is not contingent on revenue surplus. What is an Accommodative Stance? An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system. When is it Adopted? When economic growth slows or is below potential. When inflation is low or within target range. During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment. In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties. Objectives of the Accommodative Stance: Promote credit flow and private investment. Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital. Revive demand in the economy. Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors. Tools Used by RBI under Accommodative Stance: Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks. Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity. Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity. Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending. Implications on the Indian Economy: Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth. Reduces interest burden on borrowers. May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists. If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee. Supports employment generation in the short term.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following regarding the accommodative policy stance and its fiscal-monetary linkages:

• Accommodative stance supports fiscal consolidation by reducing interest expenditure.

• It can trigger crowding out of private investment by raising interest rates.

• It is maintained only during revenue surplus years by the government.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct. By lowering bond yields and borrowing costs, accommodative stance reduces interest payments on public debt, aiding fiscal management.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Crowding out happens under tight monetary policy, not accommodative.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Fiscal deficits are often high during accommodative periods; the stance is not contingent on revenue surplus.

• What is an Accommodative Stance? An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system.

• An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system.

• When is it Adopted?

• When economic growth slows or is below potential. When inflation is low or within target range. During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment. In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties.

• When economic growth slows or is below potential.

• When inflation is low or within target range.

• During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment.

• In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties.

• Objectives of the Accommodative Stance:

• Promote credit flow and private investment. Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital. Revive demand in the economy. Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors.

• Promote credit flow and private investment.

• Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital.

• Revive demand in the economy.

• Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors.

• Tools Used by RBI under Accommodative Stance:

• Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks. Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity. Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity. Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending.

• Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks.

• Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity.

• Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates.

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity.

• Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending.

• Implications on the Indian Economy:

• Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth. Reduces interest burden on borrowers. May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists. If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee. Supports employment generation in the short term.

• Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth.

• Reduces interest burden on borrowers.

• May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists.

• If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee.

• Supports employment generation in the short term.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct. By lowering bond yields and borrowing costs, accommodative stance reduces interest payments on public debt, aiding fiscal management.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Crowding out happens under tight monetary policy, not accommodative.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Fiscal deficits are often high during accommodative periods; the stance is not contingent on revenue surplus.

• What is an Accommodative Stance? An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system.

• An accommodative stance is a monetary policy approach adopted by central banks like the RBI to stimulate economic activity. It generally involves keeping interest rates low and ensuring ample liquidity in the system.

• When is it Adopted?

• When economic growth slows or is below potential. When inflation is low or within target range. During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment. In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties.

• When economic growth slows or is below potential.

• When inflation is low or within target range.

• During periods needing boosts in consumption, investment, and employment.

• In response to financial shocks or global economic uncertainties.

• Objectives of the Accommodative Stance:

• Promote credit flow and private investment. Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital. Revive demand in the economy. Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors.

• Promote credit flow and private investment.

• Encourage borrowing and spending by lowering the cost of capital.

• Revive demand in the economy.

• Ensure liquidity support to stressed sectors.

• Tools Used by RBI under Accommodative Stance:

• Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks. Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity. Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity. Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending.

• Reducing Repo Rate: Lowers borrowing cost for commercial banks.

• Open Market Operations (OMOs): RBI purchases government securities to inject liquidity.

• Long-Term Repo Operations (LTROs): Provide longer-term liquidity at low rates.

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) adjustments: Temporarily reduce CRR to enhance bank liquidity.

• Moral Suasion & Regulatory Forbearance: RBI nudges banks to increase lending.

• Implications on the Indian Economy:

• Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth. Reduces interest burden on borrowers. May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists. If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee. Supports employment generation in the short term.

• Boosts consumption and investment, driving GDP growth.

• Reduces interest burden on borrowers.

• May lead to asset price inflation if excess liquidity persists.

• If prolonged, it may fuel inflationary pressures and weaken the rupee.

• Supports employment generation in the short term.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following are correct about Mahatma Jyotiba Phule’s contributions? He coined the term “Dalit” and was the first to use it for oppressed communities. He founded India’s first school for girls and was opposed to widow remarriage. He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association and wrote Gulamgiri. He advocated using military labor for rural infrastructure development. Select the correct answer code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Jyotiba Phule was the first leader to use the term “Dalit” for oppressed communities, laying the foundation for anti-caste movements. He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association with Narayan Meghaji Lokhande for workers’ rights and authored Gulamgiri, a powerful critique of caste oppression. He also proposed the use of military labor for building bunds and dams to alleviate rural distress. Statement 2 is incorrect—Phule supported widow remarriage and established orphanages for widows’ children. He also founded India’s first school for girls in 1848 along with Savitribai Phule. Incorrect Solution: c) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Jyotiba Phule was the first leader to use the term “Dalit” for oppressed communities, laying the foundation for anti-caste movements. He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association with Narayan Meghaji Lokhande for workers’ rights and authored Gulamgiri, a powerful critique of caste oppression. He also proposed the use of military labor for building bunds and dams to alleviate rural distress. Statement 2 is incorrect—Phule supported widow remarriage and established orphanages for widows’ children. He also founded India’s first school for girls in 1848 along with Savitribai Phule.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following are correct about Mahatma Jyotiba Phule’s contributions?

• He coined the term “Dalit” and was the first to use it for oppressed communities.

• He founded India’s first school for girls and was opposed to widow remarriage.

• He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association and wrote Gulamgiri.

• He advocated using military labor for rural infrastructure development.

Select the correct answer code:

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

• Jyotiba Phule was the first leader to use the term “Dalit” for oppressed communities, laying the foundation for anti-caste movements.

• He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association with Narayan Meghaji Lokhande for workers’ rights and authored Gulamgiri, a powerful critique of caste oppression.

• He also proposed the use of military labor for building bunds and dams to alleviate rural distress.

• Statement 2 is incorrect—Phule supported widow remarriage and established orphanages for widows’ children.

• He also founded India’s first school for girls in 1848 along with Savitribai Phule.

Solution: c)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

• Jyotiba Phule was the first leader to use the term “Dalit” for oppressed communities, laying the foundation for anti-caste movements.

• He co-founded the Bombay Millhands Association with Narayan Meghaji Lokhande for workers’ rights and authored Gulamgiri, a powerful critique of caste oppression.

• He also proposed the use of military labor for building bunds and dams to alleviate rural distress.

• Statement 2 is incorrect—Phule supported widow remarriage and established orphanages for widows’ children.

• He also founded India’s first school for girls in 1848 along with Savitribai Phule.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following are thematic pillars used in the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Report 2022–23 to evaluate panchayat performance? Health and Nutrition Biodiversity and Sustainable Livelihoods Governance and Capacity Building Global Trade Competitiveness Select the correct option: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) all four Correct Solution: a) The PAI uses nine SDG-aligned themes, including: Health, Nutrition, Water and Sanitation (SDG 3 & 6) Livelihoods, Environment & Biodiversity (SDG 13 & 15) Governance, Capacity Building and Institutional Development (SDG 16 & 17) Global trade competitiveness is not a panchayat-level metric and hence not part of this index, which is geared toward grassroots developmental indicators, not macroeconomic parameters. About Panchayat Advancement Index Report (PAI): What is it? A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India. Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level. Launched by: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India. Objective: To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level. To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India. Criteria and Indicators Used Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional). Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF). Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs. Nine Key Thematic Areas: Incorrect Solution: a) The PAI uses nine SDG-aligned themes, including: Health, Nutrition, Water and Sanitation (SDG 3 & 6) Livelihoods, Environment & Biodiversity (SDG 13 & 15) Governance, Capacity Building and Institutional Development (SDG 16 & 17) Global trade competitiveness is not a panchayat-level metric and hence not part of this index, which is geared toward grassroots developmental indicators, not macroeconomic parameters. About Panchayat Advancement Index Report (PAI): What is it? A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India. Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level. Launched by: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India. Objective: To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level. To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India. Criteria and Indicators Used Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional). Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF). Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs. Nine Key Thematic Areas:

#### 5. Question

Which of the following are thematic pillars used in the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Report 2022–23 to evaluate panchayat performance?

• Health and Nutrition

• Biodiversity and Sustainable Livelihoods

• Governance and Capacity Building

• Global Trade Competitiveness

Select the correct option:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• d) all four

Solution: a)

The PAI uses nine SDG-aligned themes, including:

• Health, Nutrition, Water and Sanitation (SDG 3 & 6)

• Livelihoods, Environment & Biodiversity (SDG 13 & 15)

• Governance, Capacity Building and Institutional Development (SDG 16 & 17) Global trade competitiveness is not a panchayat-level metric and hence not part of this index, which is geared toward grassroots developmental indicators, not macroeconomic parameters.

About Panchayat Advancement Index Report (PAI):

• What is it?

• A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India. Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level.

• A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India.

• Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level.

• Launched by: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India.

• Objective:

• To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level. To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India.

• To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level.

• To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India.

• Criteria and Indicators Used

• Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional). Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF). Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs.

• Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional).

• Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF).

• Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs.

• Nine Key Thematic Areas:

Solution: a)

The PAI uses nine SDG-aligned themes, including:

• Health, Nutrition, Water and Sanitation (SDG 3 & 6)

• Livelihoods, Environment & Biodiversity (SDG 13 & 15)

• Governance, Capacity Building and Institutional Development (SDG 16 & 17) Global trade competitiveness is not a panchayat-level metric and hence not part of this index, which is geared toward grassroots developmental indicators, not macroeconomic parameters.

About Panchayat Advancement Index Report (PAI):

• What is it?

• A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India. Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level.

• A multi-sectoral, composite index that assesses the holistic progress and performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India.

• Designed to evaluate localised achievements on nine Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the grassroots level.

• Launched by: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India.

• Objective:

• To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level. To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India.

• To enable data-driven governance at the panchayat level.

• To help stakeholders identify development gaps and promote evidence-based policy interventions in rural India.

• Criteria and Indicators Used

• Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional). Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF). Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs.

• Based on 435 unique indicators (331 mandatory + 104 optional).

• Drawn from 566 unique data points aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF).

• Data collected and validated from 2,16,285 panchayats; validation pending for 11,712 GPs from 5 states/UTs.

• Nine Key Thematic Areas:

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID). Statement I: NaBFID is expected to play a key role in India’s green infrastructure transformation. Statement II: It was established to refinance state budgets for welfare expenditures. Which of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement I is correct—NaBFID is a cornerstone institution in India’s infrastructure development plan, particularly in sectors like clean energy, water supply, and sustainable transport. Statement II is incorrect—NaBFID’s mandate is not to refinance state budgets or fund social welfare expenditures. That falls under schemes like GST compensation or finance commission grants. NaBFID instead supports project-specific infrastructure funding, helping de-risk large projects and crowd-in private capital. About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development): What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India. Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021. Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI). Objectives: Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance. Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets. Accelerate sustainable economic development. Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water. Key Features: Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support. Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years). Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB. NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement I is correct—NaBFID is a cornerstone institution in India’s infrastructure development plan, particularly in sectors like clean energy, water supply, and sustainable transport. Statement II is incorrect—NaBFID’s mandate is not to refinance state budgets or fund social welfare expenditures. That falls under schemes like GST compensation or finance commission grants. NaBFID instead supports project-specific infrastructure funding, helping de-risk large projects and crowd-in private capital. About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development): What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India. Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021. Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI). Objectives: Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance. Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets. Accelerate sustainable economic development. Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water. Key Features: Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support. Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years). Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB. NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID).

Statement I: NaBFID is expected to play a key role in India’s green infrastructure transformation. Statement II: It was established to refinance state budgets for welfare expenditures.

Which of the following is correct?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

• Statement I is correct—NaBFID is a cornerstone institution in India’s infrastructure development plan, particularly in sectors like clean energy, water supply, and sustainable transport.

• Statement II is incorrect—NaBFID’s mandate is not to refinance state budgets or fund social welfare expenditures. That falls under schemes like GST compensation or finance commission grants. NaBFID instead supports project-specific infrastructure funding, helping de-risk large projects and crowd-in private capital.

About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development):

• What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India.

• Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021.

• Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).

Objectives:

• Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance.

• Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets.

• Accelerate sustainable economic development.

• Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water.

Key Features:

• Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support.

• Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years).

• Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB.

• NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects.

Solution: c)

• Statement I is correct—NaBFID is a cornerstone institution in India’s infrastructure development plan, particularly in sectors like clean energy, water supply, and sustainable transport.

• Statement II is incorrect—NaBFID’s mandate is not to refinance state budgets or fund social welfare expenditures. That falls under schemes like GST compensation or finance commission grants. NaBFID instead supports project-specific infrastructure funding, helping de-risk large projects and crowd-in private capital.

About NaBFID (National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development):

• What it is: A Development Finance Institution (DFI) dedicated to funding long-term infrastructure projects across India.

• Established under: NaBFID Act, 2021.

• Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).

Objectives:

• Fill gaps in long-term non-recourse infrastructure finance.

• Support growth of India’s bond and derivatives markets.

• Accelerate sustainable economic development.

• Strengthen the ecosystem for project financing in clean energy, transport, and water.

Key Features:

• Capital base to be scaled to ₹1 trillion with institutional support.

• Focus on medium to long-term funds (1–5+ years).

• Plans joint research, workshops, and capacity building with global partners like NDB.

• NaBFID promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs) and ensures financial viability of infrastructure projects.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The legal foundation of the New Development Bank (NDB) was established through which of the following agreements? a) Delhi Declaration, 2012 b) Fortaleza Declaration, 2014 c) BRICS Durban Communique, 2013 d) Shanghai Charter on Development, 2015 Correct Solution: b) The Fortaleza Declaration, adopted at the 6th BRICS Summit in 2014 in Brazil, provided the legal basis for establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). While the idea was first proposed during the 2012 Delhi Summit, and later discussed in Durban (2013), it was the Fortaleza Summit that finalized the Articles of Agreement, authorized capital contributions, and outlined the institutional design. The NDB formally came into existence in July 2015 and began operations from Shanghai, China. Incorrect Solution: b) The Fortaleza Declaration, adopted at the 6th BRICS Summit in 2014 in Brazil, provided the legal basis for establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). While the idea was first proposed during the 2012 Delhi Summit, and later discussed in Durban (2013), it was the Fortaleza Summit that finalized the Articles of Agreement, authorized capital contributions, and outlined the institutional design. The NDB formally came into existence in July 2015 and began operations from Shanghai, China.

#### 7. Question

The legal foundation of the New Development Bank (NDB) was established through which of the following agreements?

• a) Delhi Declaration, 2012

• b) Fortaleza Declaration, 2014

• c) BRICS Durban Communique, 2013

• d) Shanghai Charter on Development, 2015

Solution: b)

• The Fortaleza Declaration, adopted at the 6th BRICS Summit in 2014 in Brazil, provided the legal basis for establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).

• While the idea was first proposed during the 2012 Delhi Summit, and later discussed in Durban (2013), it was the Fortaleza Summit that finalized the Articles of Agreement, authorized capital contributions, and outlined the institutional design.

• The NDB formally came into existence in July 2015 and began operations from Shanghai, China.

Solution: b)

• The Fortaleza Declaration, adopted at the 6th BRICS Summit in 2014 in Brazil, provided the legal basis for establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).

• While the idea was first proposed during the 2012 Delhi Summit, and later discussed in Durban (2013), it was the Fortaleza Summit that finalized the Articles of Agreement, authorized capital contributions, and outlined the institutional design.

• The NDB formally came into existence in July 2015 and began operations from Shanghai, China.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The Mahadayi River originates in which of the following protected areas? a) Anshi National Park b) Kali Tiger Reserve c) Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary d) Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary Correct Solution: d) The Mahadayi River, also known as the Mandovi River in Goa, originates from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Belagavi district, Karnataka. This sanctuary lies within the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot. The river travels approximately 111 km, flowing through Karnataka (35 km), Maharashtra (1 km), and Goa (45 km), before merging into the Arabian Sea. Bhimgad’s ecological significance lies not just in being the river’s origin but also in being a rich zone for endemic flora and fauna. Incorrect Solution: d) The Mahadayi River, also known as the Mandovi River in Goa, originates from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Belagavi district, Karnataka. This sanctuary lies within the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot. The river travels approximately 111 km, flowing through Karnataka (35 km), Maharashtra (1 km), and Goa (45 km), before merging into the Arabian Sea. Bhimgad’s ecological significance lies not just in being the river’s origin but also in being a rich zone for endemic flora and fauna.

#### 8. Question

The Mahadayi River originates in which of the following protected areas?

• a) Anshi National Park

• b) Kali Tiger Reserve

• c) Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary

• d) Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary

Solution: d)

• The Mahadayi River, also known as the Mandovi River in Goa, originates from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Belagavi district, Karnataka. This sanctuary lies within the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot.

• The river travels approximately 111 km, flowing through Karnataka (35 km), Maharashtra (1 km), and Goa (45 km), before merging into the Arabian Sea.

• Bhimgad’s ecological significance lies not just in being the river’s origin but also in being a rich zone for endemic flora and fauna.

Solution: d)

• The Mahadayi River, also known as the Mandovi River in Goa, originates from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Belagavi district, Karnataka. This sanctuary lies within the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot.

• The river travels approximately 111 km, flowing through Karnataka (35 km), Maharashtra (1 km), and Goa (45 km), before merging into the Arabian Sea.

• Bhimgad’s ecological significance lies not just in being the river’s origin but also in being a rich zone for endemic flora and fauna.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following are functions or outcomes targeted under Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM)? Enhancing the utilisation of irrigation potential already created Replacing large dams with decentralized rooftop water harvesting Promoting water-saving practices through Farmer Producer Organisations Encouraging youth engagement in agriculture through digital irrigation technologies Select the correct option: a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) all four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. A core objective of M-CADWM is to increase the utilisation of irrigation potential (UIP) from large projects already constructed under older schemes. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rooftop water harvesting is a decentralised urban water management method—not a replacement for large-scale irrigation structures. Statement 3 is correct. FPOs and PACS are integrated with Water User Societies to promote efficient community-level irrigation and dissemination of best practices. Statement 4 is correct. The scheme aims to attract rural youth by integrating IoT, SCADA, and precision irrigation tools, thereby bridging agriculture with digital careers. About Modernisation of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM): What it is? A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies. Launched in: April 2025 (originally initiated as Command Area Development Programme in 1974–75) Aim: To increase the utilisation of created irrigation potential, enhance water use efficiency on farms, and promote sustainable agricultural practices. Key Features: Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. A core objective of M-CADWM is to increase the utilisation of irrigation potential (UIP) from large projects already constructed under older schemes. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rooftop water harvesting is a decentralised urban water management method—not a replacement for large-scale irrigation structures. Statement 3 is correct. FPOs and PACS are integrated with Water User Societies to promote efficient community-level irrigation and dissemination of best practices. Statement 4 is correct. The scheme aims to attract rural youth by integrating IoT, SCADA, and precision irrigation tools, thereby bridging agriculture with digital careers. About Modernisation of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM): What it is? A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies. Launched in: April 2025 (originally initiated as Command Area Development Programme in 1974–75) Aim: To increase the utilisation of created irrigation potential, enhance water use efficiency on farms, and promote sustainable agricultural practices. Key Features: Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices

#### 9. Question

Which of the following are functions or outcomes targeted under Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM)?

• Enhancing the utilisation of irrigation potential already created

• Replacing large dams with decentralized rooftop water harvesting

• Promoting water-saving practices through Farmer Producer Organisations

• Encouraging youth engagement in agriculture through digital irrigation technologies

Select the correct option:

• a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) all four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. A core objective of M-CADWM is to increase the utilisation of irrigation potential (UIP) from large projects already constructed under older schemes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Rooftop water harvesting is a decentralised urban water management method—not a replacement for large-scale irrigation structures.

• Statement 3 is correct. FPOs and PACS are integrated with Water User Societies to promote efficient community-level irrigation and dissemination of best practices.

• Statement 4 is correct. The scheme aims to attract rural youth by integrating IoT, SCADA, and precision irrigation tools, thereby bridging agriculture with digital careers.

About Modernisation of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM):

• What it is? A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies.

• A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies.

• Launched in: April 2025 (originally initiated as Command Area Development Programme in 1974–75)

• Aim: To increase the utilisation of created irrigation potential, enhance water use efficiency on farms, and promote sustainable agricultural practices.

• Key Features:

• Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices

• Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms

• Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring

• Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability

• Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies

• Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. A core objective of M-CADWM is to increase the utilisation of irrigation potential (UIP) from large projects already constructed under older schemes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Rooftop water harvesting is a decentralised urban water management method—not a replacement for large-scale irrigation structures.

• Statement 3 is correct. FPOs and PACS are integrated with Water User Societies to promote efficient community-level irrigation and dissemination of best practices.

• Statement 4 is correct. The scheme aims to attract rural youth by integrating IoT, SCADA, and precision irrigation tools, thereby bridging agriculture with digital careers.

About Modernisation of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM):

• What it is? A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies.

• A newly reformulated sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focusing on the modernisation of irrigation networks using digital and pressure irrigation technologies.

• Launched in: April 2025 (originally initiated as Command Area Development Programme in 1974–75)

• Aim: To increase the utilisation of created irrigation potential, enhance water use efficiency on farms, and promote sustainable agricultural practices.

• Key Features:

• Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices

• Develops underground pressurised piped irrigation systems for water delivery up to 1-hectare farms

• Employs Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems and Internet of Things technologies for real-time water accounting and monitoring

• Transfers irrigation asset management to Water User Societies to ensure sustainability

• Facilitates partnerships of Water User Societies with Farmer Producer Organisations and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies

• Aims to attract rural youth to agriculture through modern water management practices

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following are features of Blue Category industries under India’s environmental regulation regime? They must not generate any hazardous waste or toxic effluents. They receive automatic environmental clearance under the EIA Notification, 2006. They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Their classification is intended to support India’s Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Blue Category industries are defined by non-hazardous operations and minimal air/water pollution, meaning they should not produce toxic effluents or hazardous waste, a core inclusion criterion. They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which empowers CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to implement zoning, consent, and classification. Their classification also supports implementation of Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016, promoting reuse, segregation, composting, biomethanation, and recovery. However, Statement 2 is incorrect—automatic environmental clearance is not granted to Blue Category industries. Though less polluting, they must still obtain Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO), albeit with relaxed timelines. Incorrect Solution: c) Blue Category industries are defined by non-hazardous operations and minimal air/water pollution, meaning they should not produce toxic effluents or hazardous waste, a core inclusion criterion. They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which empowers CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to implement zoning, consent, and classification. Their classification also supports implementation of Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016, promoting reuse, segregation, composting, biomethanation, and recovery. However, Statement 2 is incorrect—automatic environmental clearance is not granted to Blue Category industries. Though less polluting, they must still obtain Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO), albeit with relaxed timelines.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following are features of Blue Category industries under India’s environmental regulation regime?

• They must not generate any hazardous waste or toxic effluents.

• They receive automatic environmental clearance under the EIA Notification, 2006.

• They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• Their classification is intended to support India’s Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• Blue Category industries are defined by non-hazardous operations and minimal air/water pollution, meaning they should not produce toxic effluents or hazardous waste, a core inclusion criterion.

• They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which empowers CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to implement zoning, consent, and classification.

• Their classification also supports implementation of Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016, promoting reuse, segregation, composting, biomethanation, and recovery.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect—automatic environmental clearance is not granted to Blue Category industries.

• Though less polluting, they must still obtain Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO), albeit with relaxed timelines.

Solution: c)

• Blue Category industries are defined by non-hazardous operations and minimal air/water pollution, meaning they should not produce toxic effluents or hazardous waste, a core inclusion criterion.

• They are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which empowers CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) to implement zoning, consent, and classification.

• Their classification also supports implementation of Sustainable Waste Management Rules, 2016, promoting reuse, segregation, composting, biomethanation, and recovery.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect—automatic environmental clearance is not granted to Blue Category industries.

• Though less polluting, they must still obtain Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO), albeit with relaxed timelines.

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