UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Regarding the geographical features of Armenia, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a landlocked country located in the South Caucasus region, bordering the Black Sea. The country’s terrain is predominantly mountainous, with its highest peak being the extinct volcano, Mount Aragats. Lake Sevan, a major geographical feature, is one of the largest freshwater alpine lakes in Eurasia. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Armenia’s topography is defined by its mountainous landscape, with an average elevation of 1,800 meters, and it lacks significant lowlands. Mount Aragats, an extinct volcanic peak, stands as its highest point at 4,090 meters. Furthermore, the Lake Sevan Basin is a critical geographical feature, as Lake Sevan is recognized as one of the largest high-altitude freshwater lakes in Eurasia, playing a vital role in the country’s hydrology and ecosystem. Statement 1 is incorrect. While Armenia is a landlocked transcontinental country in the South Caucasus region, it does not border the Black Sea. Its bordering nations are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. This landlocked position has significantly shaped its history, trade routes, and geopolitical relationships. Incorrect Solution: D Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Armenia’s topography is defined by its mountainous landscape, with an average elevation of 1,800 meters, and it lacks significant lowlands. Mount Aragats, an extinct volcanic peak, stands as its highest point at 4,090 meters. Furthermore, the Lake Sevan Basin is a critical geographical feature, as Lake Sevan is recognized as one of the largest high-altitude freshwater lakes in Eurasia, playing a vital role in the country’s hydrology and ecosystem. Statement 1 is incorrect. While Armenia is a landlocked transcontinental country in the South Caucasus region, it does not border the Black Sea. Its bordering nations are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. This landlocked position has significantly shaped its history, trade routes, and geopolitical relationships.

#### 1. Question

Regarding the geographical features of Armenia, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It is a landlocked country located in the South Caucasus region, bordering the Black Sea.

• The country’s terrain is predominantly mountainous, with its highest peak being the extinct volcano, Mount Aragats.

• Lake Sevan, a major geographical feature, is one of the largest freshwater alpine lakes in Eurasia.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Armenia’s topography is defined by its mountainous landscape, with an average elevation of 1,800 meters, and it lacks significant lowlands. Mount Aragats, an extinct volcanic peak, stands as its highest point at 4,090 meters.

• Furthermore, the Lake Sevan Basin is a critical geographical feature, as Lake Sevan is recognized as one of the largest high-altitude freshwater lakes in Eurasia, playing a vital role in the country’s hydrology and ecosystem.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Armenia is a landlocked transcontinental country in the South Caucasus region, it does not border the Black Sea. Its bordering nations are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. This landlocked position has significantly shaped its history, trade routes, and geopolitical relationships.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Virtual Museum of Stolen Cultural Objects: It was launched by UNESCO in collaboration with INTERPOL. The museum uses technologies like Artificial Intelligence and Virtual Reality to digitally recreate missing artifacts. The museum’s collection includes artifacts from post-colonial and recent trafficking incidents, but not items taken during the colonial era. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the initiative was launched by UNESCO and is a collaborative effort with international law enforcement, including INTERPOL, to combat illicit trafficking. This partnership leverages UNESCO’s cultural mandate and INTERPOL’s role in fighting transnational crime. Statement 2 is correct. The museum employs advanced digital technologies, including 3D modelling, artificial intelligence (AI), and virtual reality (VR). AI is particularly used to generate models for items that lack detailed visual records, making the virtual experience more interactive and comprehensive. Statement 3 is incorrect. The museum’s collection is not restricted by time period. In fact, India’s representation in the museum explicitly features two 9th-century sandstone sculptures from Chhattisgarh that were stolen during colonial-era looting. This demonstrates that the scope includes historical injustices from various periods. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the initiative was launched by UNESCO and is a collaborative effort with international law enforcement, including INTERPOL, to combat illicit trafficking. This partnership leverages UNESCO’s cultural mandate and INTERPOL’s role in fighting transnational crime. Statement 2 is correct. The museum employs advanced digital technologies, including 3D modelling, artificial intelligence (AI), and virtual reality (VR). AI is particularly used to generate models for items that lack detailed visual records, making the virtual experience more interactive and comprehensive. Statement 3 is incorrect. The museum’s collection is not restricted by time period. In fact, India’s representation in the museum explicitly features two 9th-century sandstone sculptures from Chhattisgarh that were stolen during colonial-era looting. This demonstrates that the scope includes historical injustices from various periods.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Virtual Museum of Stolen Cultural Objects:

• It was launched by UNESCO in collaboration with INTERPOL.

• The museum uses technologies like Artificial Intelligence and Virtual Reality to digitally recreate missing artifacts.

• The museum’s collection includes artifacts from post-colonial and recent trafficking incidents, but not items taken during the colonial era.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct as the initiative was launched by UNESCO and is a collaborative effort with international law enforcement, including INTERPOL, to combat illicit trafficking. This partnership leverages UNESCO’s cultural mandate and INTERPOL’s role in fighting transnational crime.

• Statement 2 is correct. The museum employs advanced digital technologies, including 3D modelling, artificial intelligence (AI), and virtual reality (VR). AI is particularly used to generate models for items that lack detailed visual records, making the virtual experience more interactive and comprehensive.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The museum’s collection is not restricted by time period. In fact, India’s representation in the museum explicitly features two 9th-century sandstone sculptures from Chhattisgarh that were stolen during colonial-era looting. This demonstrates that the scope includes historical injustices from various periods.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: The mission’s primary goal is to achieve self-sufficiency in pulses production by eliminating imports entirely by the year 2027. It guarantees 100% Minimum Support Price (MSP) procurement for all major pulses, including gram (chana) and moong. The SATHI portal, launched as part of the mission, is designed for seed authentication, traceability, and inventory management. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Only the third statement is correct. A key technological intervention under the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses is the launch of the SATHI (Seed Authentication, Traceability & Holistic Inventory) portal. This digital platform is crucial for ensuring the quality of seeds provided to farmers by monitoring the entire seed lifecycle, from production to distribution, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability in the seed supply chain. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the mission aims for self-sufficiency and reducing import dependence, the stated goal is to achieve this by December 2027. The objective is to scale up production significantly, not necessarily to eliminate imports entirely in all pulse categories, as some specific types may still be needed to meet consumer demand. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission provides an assurance of 100% MSP procurement, but it is specifically for three key pulses: Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor. It does not extend to all major pulses like gram (chana) or moong under this particular provision. This targeted approach aims to stabilize prices and encourage production in these three import-dependent pulse varieties. Incorrect Solution: B Only the third statement is correct. A key technological intervention under the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses is the launch of the SATHI (Seed Authentication, Traceability & Holistic Inventory) portal. This digital platform is crucial for ensuring the quality of seeds provided to farmers by monitoring the entire seed lifecycle, from production to distribution, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability in the seed supply chain. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the mission aims for self-sufficiency and reducing import dependence, the stated goal is to achieve this by December 2027. The objective is to scale up production significantly, not necessarily to eliminate imports entirely in all pulse categories, as some specific types may still be needed to meet consumer demand. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission provides an assurance of 100% MSP procurement, but it is specifically for three key pulses: Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor. It does not extend to all major pulses like gram (chana) or moong under this particular provision. This targeted approach aims to stabilize prices and encourage production in these three import-dependent pulse varieties.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses:

• The mission’s primary goal is to achieve self-sufficiency in pulses production by eliminating imports entirely by the year 2027.

• It guarantees 100% Minimum Support Price (MSP) procurement for all major pulses, including gram (chana) and moong.

• The SATHI portal, launched as part of the mission, is designed for seed authentication, traceability, and inventory management.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Only the third statement is correct. A key technological intervention under the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses is the launch of the SATHI (Seed Authentication, Traceability & Holistic Inventory) portal. This digital platform is crucial for ensuring the quality of seeds provided to farmers by monitoring the entire seed lifecycle, from production to distribution, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability in the seed supply chain.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the mission aims for self-sufficiency and reducing import dependence, the stated goal is to achieve this by December 2027. The objective is to scale up production significantly, not necessarily to eliminate imports entirely in all pulse categories, as some specific types may still be needed to meet consumer demand.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission provides an assurance of 100% MSP procurement, but it is specifically for three key pulses: Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor. It does not extend to all major pulses like gram (chana) or moong under this particular provision. This targeted approach aims to stabilize prices and encourage production in these three import-dependent pulse varieties.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following were key agenda items at the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit? Supervising a hostage and detainee exchange between Israel and Hamas. Establishing an international consortium for the post-war reconstruction of Gaza. Outlining a framework for a permanent two-state solution based on the 1967 borders. Creating a regional dialogue mechanism involving Arab nations in future conflict mediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C The primary and immediate objectives of the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit were focused on de-escalation, humanitarian relief, and regional stability. The key agenda items included: Hostage Exchange Oversight: A crucial part of the summit was to oversee the implementation of the U.S.-mediated agreement for the release of Israeli hostages in exchange for Palestinian detainees and prisoners. Reconstruction Plan: The summit aimed to establish an international consortium to plan and fund the massive task of rebuilding Gaza following the conflict, addressing the immense humanitarian and infrastructure crisis. Regional Dialogue Mechanism: A forward-looking goal was to create a framework that would formally involve other Arab nations in future conflict mediation efforts, aiming to build a more sustainable regional security architecture. Statement 3 is not explicitly mentioned as a primary agenda item of this specific summit. While the two-state solution is a long-standing framework for peace, the immediate focus of the Sharm El-Sheikh summit was on consolidating the ceasefire, addressing the humanitarian crisis, and establishing short-to-medium-term stability mechanisms, rather than negotiating the final status issues of a two-state solution. Incorrect Solution: C The primary and immediate objectives of the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit were focused on de-escalation, humanitarian relief, and regional stability. The key agenda items included: Hostage Exchange Oversight: A crucial part of the summit was to oversee the implementation of the U.S.-mediated agreement for the release of Israeli hostages in exchange for Palestinian detainees and prisoners. Reconstruction Plan: The summit aimed to establish an international consortium to plan and fund the massive task of rebuilding Gaza following the conflict, addressing the immense humanitarian and infrastructure crisis. Regional Dialogue Mechanism: A forward-looking goal was to create a framework that would formally involve other Arab nations in future conflict mediation efforts, aiming to build a more sustainable regional security architecture. Statement 3 is not explicitly mentioned as a primary agenda item of this specific summit. While the two-state solution is a long-standing framework for peace, the immediate focus of the Sharm El-Sheikh summit was on consolidating the ceasefire, addressing the humanitarian crisis, and establishing short-to-medium-term stability mechanisms, rather than negotiating the final status issues of a two-state solution.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following were key agenda items at the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit?

• Supervising a hostage and detainee exchange between Israel and Hamas.

• Establishing an international consortium for the post-war reconstruction of Gaza.

• Outlining a framework for a permanent two-state solution based on the 1967 borders.

• Creating a regional dialogue mechanism involving Arab nations in future conflict mediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

The primary and immediate objectives of the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit were focused on de-escalation, humanitarian relief, and regional stability.

The key agenda items included:

• Hostage Exchange Oversight: A crucial part of the summit was to oversee the implementation of the U.S.-mediated agreement for the release of Israeli hostages in exchange for Palestinian detainees and prisoners.

• Reconstruction Plan: The summit aimed to establish an international consortium to plan and fund the massive task of rebuilding Gaza following the conflict, addressing the immense humanitarian and infrastructure crisis.

• Regional Dialogue Mechanism: A forward-looking goal was to create a framework that would formally involve other Arab nations in future conflict mediation efforts, aiming to build a more sustainable regional security architecture.

Statement 3 is not explicitly mentioned as a primary agenda item of this specific summit. While the two-state solution is a long-standing framework for peace, the immediate focus of the Sharm El-Sheikh summit was on consolidating the ceasefire, addressing the humanitarian crisis, and establishing short-to-medium-term stability mechanisms, rather than negotiating the final status issues of a two-state solution.

Solution: C

The primary and immediate objectives of the Sharm El-Sheikh Peace Summit were focused on de-escalation, humanitarian relief, and regional stability.

The key agenda items included:

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Durand Line, established in the late 19th century, has been a persistent source of tension between Afghanistan and Pakistan. Statement II: The line was drawn without due consideration for the ethnic and tribal affiliations of the Pashtun people, effectively dividing their communities across two nations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a fundamental explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I accurately reflects the historical reality that the Durand Line has been a major point of contention since its inception. Afghanistan has never officially recognized its legality, leading to diplomatic disputes and cross-border conflicts with Pakistan, which inherited the line from British India. The recent clashes are a continuation of this long-standing instability. Statement-II correctly identifies the core reason for the dispute’s persistence. The border was demarcated based on the geopolitical interests of British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan, largely ignoring the ethnographic landscape. It arbitrarily divided the Pashtun-dominated region, splitting tribes, clans, and families. This division fueled the rise of the “Pashtunistan” movement—an ethno-nationalist call for an independent state—and has created a porous, difficult-to-govern frontier where tribal loyalties often transcend the international border. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a fundamental explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I accurately reflects the historical reality that the Durand Line has been a major point of contention since its inception. Afghanistan has never officially recognized its legality, leading to diplomatic disputes and cross-border conflicts with Pakistan, which inherited the line from British India. The recent clashes are a continuation of this long-standing instability. Statement-II correctly identifies the core reason for the dispute’s persistence. The border was demarcated based on the geopolitical interests of British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan, largely ignoring the ethnographic landscape. It arbitrarily divided the Pashtun-dominated region, splitting tribes, clans, and families. This division fueled the rise of the “Pashtunistan” movement—an ethno-nationalist call for an independent state—and has created a porous, difficult-to-govern frontier where tribal loyalties often transcend the international border.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Durand Line, established in the late 19th century, has been a persistent source of tension between Afghanistan and Pakistan.

Statement II: The line was drawn without due consideration for the ethnic and tribal affiliations of the Pashtun people, effectively dividing their communities across two nations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a fundamental explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I accurately reflects the historical reality that the Durand Line has been a major point of contention since its inception. Afghanistan has never officially recognized its legality, leading to diplomatic disputes and cross-border conflicts with Pakistan, which inherited the line from British India. The recent clashes are a continuation of this long-standing instability.

Statement-II correctly identifies the core reason for the dispute’s persistence. The border was demarcated based on the geopolitical interests of British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan, largely ignoring the ethnographic landscape. It arbitrarily divided the Pashtun-dominated region, splitting tribes, clans, and families. This division fueled the rise of the “Pashtunistan” movement—an ethno-nationalist call for an independent state—and has created a porous, difficult-to-govern frontier where tribal loyalties often transcend the international border.

Solution: A

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a fundamental explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Purple Fest 2025: Statement I: It is a global inclusion festival, aimed at celebrating diversity and promoting accessibility for persons with disabilities (PwDs). Statement II: The theme for the 2025 edition was “Inclusion as a Movement.” Statement III: One of its major objectives is to foster empathy-based awareness and encourage the adoption of universal design in public infrastructure. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them support Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them supports Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that supports Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I accurately defines the event: the International Purple Fest is a global platform hosted in Goa dedicated to the empowerment and inclusion of Persons with Disabilities. It serves as a confluence of ideas, policy discussions, and cultural celebrations centered around PwDs. Statement II correctly identifies the theme for the 2025 edition as “Inclusion as a Movement.” This theme supports the festival’s identity in Statement I by framing inclusion not as a static goal but as an ongoing, dynamic societal effort that requires continuous participation and momentum. Statement III correctly outlines a primary aim of the festival: to move beyond mere compliance and foster a deeper, empathy-based understanding of the challenges faced by PwDs. Promoting universal design in public spaces is a practical application of this aim, directly contributing to the festival’s mission of creating an accessible and inclusive society as mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and directly elaborate on the nature and purpose of the festival described in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I accurately defines the event: the International Purple Fest is a global platform hosted in Goa dedicated to the empowerment and inclusion of Persons with Disabilities. It serves as a confluence of ideas, policy discussions, and cultural celebrations centered around PwDs. Statement II correctly identifies the theme for the 2025 edition as “Inclusion as a Movement.” This theme supports the festival’s identity in Statement I by framing inclusion not as a static goal but as an ongoing, dynamic societal effort that requires continuous participation and momentum. Statement III correctly outlines a primary aim of the festival: to move beyond mere compliance and foster a deeper, empathy-based understanding of the challenges faced by PwDs. Promoting universal design in public spaces is a practical application of this aim, directly contributing to the festival’s mission of creating an accessible and inclusive society as mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and directly elaborate on the nature and purpose of the festival described in Statement I.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Purple Fest 2025:

Statement I: It is a global inclusion festival, aimed at celebrating diversity and promoting accessibility for persons with disabilities (PwDs).

Statement II: The theme for the 2025 edition was “Inclusion as a Movement.”

Statement III: One of its major objectives is to foster empathy-based awareness and encourage the adoption of universal design in public infrastructure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them support Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them supports Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that supports Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I accurately defines the event: the International Purple Fest is a global platform hosted in Goa dedicated to the empowerment and inclusion of Persons with Disabilities. It serves as a confluence of ideas, policy discussions, and cultural celebrations centered around PwDs.

• Statement II correctly identifies the theme for the 2025 edition as “Inclusion as a Movement.” This theme supports the festival’s identity in Statement I by framing inclusion not as a static goal but as an ongoing, dynamic societal effort that requires continuous participation and momentum.

• Statement III correctly outlines a primary aim of the festival: to move beyond mere compliance and foster a deeper, empathy-based understanding of the challenges faced by PwDs. Promoting universal design in public spaces is a practical application of this aim, directly contributing to the festival’s mission of creating an accessible and inclusive society as mentioned in Statement I.

• Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and directly elaborate on the nature and purpose of the festival described in Statement I.

Solution: A

• Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and directly elaborate on the nature and purpose of the festival described in Statement I.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Armenia’s recent entry into the IUCN is significant for its biodiversity conservation. In this context, consider the following statements about Armenia: Its soils are rich in volcanic minerals, supporting agriculture despite the rocky, mountainous terrain. The country’s river systems, such as the Aras and Hrazdan, are primarily used for navigation and trade. The Caucasian leopard and the Bezoar goat are endemic species that are thriving due to successful conservation programs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Only the first statement is correct. Armenia’s geology is heavily influenced by volcanic activity. This has resulted in soils that are rich in essential minerals like nitrogen, potash, and phosphates. Despite the challenging mountainous and rocky terrain, these fertile soils have enabled the development of agriculture, particularly in the highland areas, making it a key feature of its physical geography. Statement 2 is incorrect. While rivers like the Aras and Hrazdan are vital to the country, their primary importance lies in hydropower generation and irrigation for agriculture. The steep gradients and mountainous nature of the terrain make them generally unsuitable for large-scale navigation or trade. Statement 3 is incorrect. Species like Critically Endangered Caucasian leopard and the endemic Bezoar goat are found in Armenia. These species face significant threats, and their conservation is a major challenge that Armenia’s membership in the IUCN is expected to help address. Their presence highlights the country’s rich biodiversity, but also the urgent need for enhanced protection measures. Incorrect Solution: A Only the first statement is correct. Armenia’s geology is heavily influenced by volcanic activity. This has resulted in soils that are rich in essential minerals like nitrogen, potash, and phosphates. Despite the challenging mountainous and rocky terrain, these fertile soils have enabled the development of agriculture, particularly in the highland areas, making it a key feature of its physical geography. Statement 2 is incorrect. While rivers like the Aras and Hrazdan are vital to the country, their primary importance lies in hydropower generation and irrigation for agriculture. The steep gradients and mountainous nature of the terrain make them generally unsuitable for large-scale navigation or trade. Statement 3 is incorrect. Species like Critically Endangered Caucasian leopard and the endemic Bezoar goat are found in Armenia. These species face significant threats, and their conservation is a major challenge that Armenia’s membership in the IUCN is expected to help address. Their presence highlights the country’s rich biodiversity, but also the urgent need for enhanced protection measures.

#### 7. Question

Armenia’s recent entry into the IUCN is significant for its biodiversity conservation. In this context, consider the following statements about Armenia:

• Its soils are rich in volcanic minerals, supporting agriculture despite the rocky, mountainous terrain.

• The country’s river systems, such as the Aras and Hrazdan, are primarily used for navigation and trade.

• The Caucasian leopard and the Bezoar goat are endemic species that are thriving due to successful conservation programs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Only the first statement is correct. Armenia’s geology is heavily influenced by volcanic activity. This has resulted in soils that are rich in essential minerals like nitrogen, potash, and phosphates. Despite the challenging mountainous and rocky terrain, these fertile soils have enabled the development of agriculture, particularly in the highland areas, making it a key feature of its physical geography.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While rivers like the Aras and Hrazdan are vital to the country, their primary importance lies in hydropower generation and irrigation for agriculture. The steep gradients and mountainous nature of the terrain make them generally unsuitable for large-scale navigation or trade.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Species like Critically Endangered Caucasian leopard and the endemic Bezoar goat are found in Armenia. These species face significant threats, and their conservation is a major challenge that Armenia’s membership in the IUCN is expected to help address. Their presence highlights the country’s rich biodiversity, but also the urgent need for enhanced protection measures.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s Biosphere Reserves and Ramsar Sites: India has more Biosphere Reserves included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves than Ramsar sites. The number of Ramsar sites in India has more than tripled between 2012 and 2025. India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. As of 2025, India has 18 designated Biosphere Reserves, of which 13 are part of UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). In contrast, India has 93 Ramsar sites. Thus, the number of Ramsar sites is significantly higher than the number of Biosphere Reserves in the WNBR. Statement 2 is correct. There has been a remarkable increase in the number of Ramsar sites in India in recent years. The number grew from 26 in 2012 to 93 in 2025, which is more than a threefold increase. This reflects the country’s enhanced focus on wetland conservation. Statement 3 is also correct. With 93 sites, India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, placing it in a leadership position in wetland conservation in the continent. Globally, India ranks third after the United Kingdom and Mexico. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. As of 2025, India has 18 designated Biosphere Reserves, of which 13 are part of UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). In contrast, India has 93 Ramsar sites. Thus, the number of Ramsar sites is significantly higher than the number of Biosphere Reserves in the WNBR. Statement 2 is correct. There has been a remarkable increase in the number of Ramsar sites in India in recent years. The number grew from 26 in 2012 to 93 in 2025, which is more than a threefold increase. This reflects the country’s enhanced focus on wetland conservation. Statement 3 is also correct. With 93 sites, India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, placing it in a leadership position in wetland conservation in the continent. Globally, India ranks third after the United Kingdom and Mexico.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s Biosphere Reserves and Ramsar Sites:

• India has more Biosphere Reserves included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves than Ramsar sites.

• The number of Ramsar sites in India has more than tripled between 2012 and 2025.

• India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. As of 2025, India has 18 designated Biosphere Reserves, of which 13 are part of UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). In contrast, India has 93 Ramsar sites. Thus, the number of Ramsar sites is significantly higher than the number of Biosphere Reserves in the WNBR.

• Statement 2 is correct. There has been a remarkable increase in the number of Ramsar sites in India in recent years. The number grew from 26 in 2012 to 93 in 2025, which is more than a threefold increase. This reflects the country’s enhanced focus on wetland conservation.

• Statement 3 is also correct. With 93 sites, India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, placing it in a leadership position in wetland conservation in the continent. Globally, India ranks third after the United Kingdom and Mexico.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the flora of the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) The reserve is home to a significant number of endemic plant species. (b) The flora includes many medicinal plants that are important for the Sowa Rigpa tradition. (c) The vegetation is dominated by large coniferous forests. (d) The floral diversity includes herbs, shrubs, and tree species adapted to the cold arid conditions. Correct Solution: C The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region, has a unique and specialized flora adapted to its extreme climatic conditions. Statement (a) is correct as the reserve harbors 14 endemic plant species, which are found nowhere else in the world. Statement (b) is also correct. The region’s flora is rich in medicinal plants, with 47 species being vital for the traditional Sowa Rigpa (Amchi) system of healing, which is practiced by the local communities. Statement (d) is also correct. The floral diversity comprises 655 herbs, 41 shrubs, and 17 tree species, all of which have adapted to survive in the cold and dry desert environment. Statement (c) is incorrect. The term “cold desert” itself suggests a landscape with sparse vegetation. The terrain is characterized by windswept plateaus and glacial valleys, and the vegetation is primarily composed of alpine steppe and dry alpine scrub. It is not dominated by large coniferous forests, which are typically found at lower altitudes with higher precipitation. Incorrect Solution: C The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region, has a unique and specialized flora adapted to its extreme climatic conditions. Statement (a) is correct as the reserve harbors 14 endemic plant species, which are found nowhere else in the world. Statement (b) is also correct. The region’s flora is rich in medicinal plants, with 47 species being vital for the traditional Sowa Rigpa (Amchi) system of healing, which is practiced by the local communities. Statement (d) is also correct. The floral diversity comprises 655 herbs, 41 shrubs, and 17 tree species, all of which have adapted to survive in the cold and dry desert environment. Statement (c) is incorrect. The term “cold desert” itself suggests a landscape with sparse vegetation. The terrain is characterized by windswept plateaus and glacial valleys, and the vegetation is primarily composed of alpine steppe and dry alpine scrub. It is not dominated by large coniferous forests, which are typically found at lower altitudes with higher precipitation.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the flora of the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, which of the following statements is incorrect?

• (a) The reserve is home to a significant number of endemic plant species.

• (b) The flora includes many medicinal plants that are important for the Sowa Rigpa tradition.

• (c) The vegetation is dominated by large coniferous forests.

• (d) The floral diversity includes herbs, shrubs, and tree species adapted to the cold arid conditions.

Solution: C

• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region, has a unique and specialized flora adapted to its extreme climatic conditions.

• Statement (a) is correct as the reserve harbors 14 endemic plant species, which are found nowhere else in the world.

• Statement (b) is also correct. The region’s flora is rich in medicinal plants, with 47 species being vital for the traditional Sowa Rigpa (Amchi) system of healing, which is practiced by the local communities.

• Statement (d) is also correct. The floral diversity comprises 655 herbs, 41 shrubs, and 17 tree species, all of which have adapted to survive in the cold and dry desert environment.

• Statement (c) is incorrect. The term “cold desert” itself suggests a landscape with sparse vegetation. The terrain is characterized by windswept plateaus and glacial valleys, and the vegetation is primarily composed of alpine steppe and dry alpine scrub. It is not dominated by large coniferous forests, which are typically found at lower altitudes with higher precipitation.

Solution: C

• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region, has a unique and specialized flora adapted to its extreme climatic conditions.

• Statement (a) is correct as the reserve harbors 14 endemic plant species, which are found nowhere else in the world.

• Statement (d) is also correct. The floral diversity comprises 655 herbs, 41 shrubs, and 17 tree species, all of which have adapted to survive in the cold and dry desert environment.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025: These rules are the first legally binding emission reduction targets for specific industrial sectors in India. The rules mandate the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to issue tradable carbon credit certificates to compliant industries. The compliance mechanism under these rules is exclusively applicable to large-scale industries, with a complete exemption for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The GEI Target Rules, 2025, notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, establish India’s first legally binding emission intensity reduction targets for specific high-emission sectors like cement, aluminium, pulp and paper, and chlor-alkali. This marks a significant shift from previous voluntary or energy-efficiency-based schemes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The authority to issue carbon credit certificates to industries that over-comply with their targets lies with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the mandated body for imposing and overseeing the recovery of “environmental compensation” (penalties) from non-compliant units. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules are applied to a specific list of 282 high-emission industrial units across four sectors (aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper). While this initial list overwhelmingly consists of large-scale units and effectively excludes most MSMEs, the compliance mechanism is not defined by a “complete exemption for MSMEs” in its broad sense. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The GEI Target Rules, 2025, notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, establish India’s first legally binding emission intensity reduction targets for specific high-emission sectors like cement, aluminium, pulp and paper, and chlor-alkali. This marks a significant shift from previous voluntary or energy-efficiency-based schemes. Statement 2 is incorrect. The authority to issue carbon credit certificates to industries that over-comply with their targets lies with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the mandated body for imposing and overseeing the recovery of “environmental compensation” (penalties) from non-compliant units. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules are applied to a specific list of 282 high-emission industrial units across four sectors (aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper). While this initial list overwhelmingly consists of large-scale units and effectively excludes most MSMEs, the compliance mechanism is not defined by a “complete exemption for MSMEs” in its broad sense.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025:

• These rules are the first legally binding emission reduction targets for specific industrial sectors in India.

• The rules mandate the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to issue tradable carbon credit certificates to compliant industries.

• The compliance mechanism under these rules is exclusively applicable to large-scale industries, with a complete exemption for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The GEI Target Rules, 2025, notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, establish India’s first legally binding emission intensity reduction targets for specific high-emission sectors like cement, aluminium, pulp and paper, and chlor-alkali. This marks a significant shift from previous voluntary or energy-efficiency-based schemes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The authority to issue carbon credit certificates to industries that over-comply with their targets lies with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the mandated body for imposing and overseeing the recovery of “environmental compensation” (penalties) from non-compliant units.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules are applied to a specific list of 282 high-emission industrial units across four sectors (aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper). While this initial list overwhelmingly consists of large-scale units and effectively excludes most MSMEs, the compliance mechanism is not defined by a “complete exemption for MSMEs” in its broad sense.

Solution: A

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