UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best defines the technique of GPS spoofing? a) Sending false GPS signals to mislead a receiver’s location b) Scrambling internal software of GPS receivers to corrupt data c) Blocking satellite signals from reaching GPS receivers d) Using encrypted signals to prevent satellite tracking Correct Solution: A GPS spoofing is a cyberattack technique wherein fake GPS signals are transmitted to a target device or receiver, misleading it about its actual geographic location. Unlike jamming, which blocks or degrades signals, spoofing actively deceives the GPS receiver by making it lock onto artificial signals stronger than genuine satellite transmissions. These spoofed signals can cause incorrect location data to appear, potentially misleading aircraft, ships, autonomous vehicles, or even consumer apps like ride-sharing and navigation services. The danger is not just in misguidance but also in how spoofing can compromise safety, cause financial losses, or breach national security. Incorrect Solution: A GPS spoofing is a cyberattack technique wherein fake GPS signals are transmitted to a target device or receiver, misleading it about its actual geographic location. Unlike jamming, which blocks or degrades signals, spoofing actively deceives the GPS receiver by making it lock onto artificial signals stronger than genuine satellite transmissions. These spoofed signals can cause incorrect location data to appear, potentially misleading aircraft, ships, autonomous vehicles, or even consumer apps like ride-sharing and navigation services. The danger is not just in misguidance but also in how spoofing can compromise safety, cause financial losses, or breach national security.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best defines the technique of GPS spoofing?

• a) Sending false GPS signals to mislead a receiver’s location

• b) Scrambling internal software of GPS receivers to corrupt data

• c) Blocking satellite signals from reaching GPS receivers

• d) Using encrypted signals to prevent satellite tracking

Solution: A

• GPS spoofing is a cyberattack technique wherein fake GPS signals are transmitted to a target device or receiver, misleading it about its actual geographic location.

• Unlike jamming, which blocks or degrades signals, spoofing actively deceives the GPS receiver by making it lock onto artificial signals stronger than genuine satellite transmissions.

• These spoofed signals can cause incorrect location data to appear, potentially misleading aircraft, ships, autonomous vehicles, or even consumer apps like ride-sharing and navigation services.

• The danger is not just in misguidance but also in how spoofing can compromise safety, cause financial losses, or breach national security.

Solution: A

• GPS spoofing is a cyberattack technique wherein fake GPS signals are transmitted to a target device or receiver, misleading it about its actual geographic location.

• Unlike jamming, which blocks or degrades signals, spoofing actively deceives the GPS receiver by making it lock onto artificial signals stronger than genuine satellite transmissions.

• These spoofed signals can cause incorrect location data to appear, potentially misleading aircraft, ships, autonomous vehicles, or even consumer apps like ride-sharing and navigation services.

• The danger is not just in misguidance but also in how spoofing can compromise safety, cause financial losses, or breach national security.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following are characteristics of Type 5 Diabetes? It is an autoimmune disease affecting pancreatic beta cells. Nutritional rehabilitation plays a critical role in its treatment. It is frequently underdiagnosed due to overlapping symptoms with other diabetes types. It has a high prevalence among urban obese populations. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Type 5 Diabetes, also known as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct form often linked with protein-energy malnutrition, typically affecting individuals in low-income, rural, or resource-constrained settings. Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 1 Diabetes which involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, Type 5 is non-autoimmune and is often non-ketotic. It results from long-standing undernutrition that impairs pancreatic development and insulin secretion. Statement 2 is correct — Nutritional rehabilitation is central to managing Type 5, aiming to restore the body’s metabolic capacity through adequate intake of macronutrients and micronutrients, often accompanied by insulin therapy in some cases. Statement 3 is also correct — Due to overlapping symptoms with both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes (like early onset and non-obesity), it is frequently misdiagnosed or overlooked, leading to underreporting. Statement 4 is incorrect — Contrary to Type 2 diabetes, Type 5 is not associated with obesity or urban lifestyles but is more common in malnourished populations, especially in parts of Asia and Africa. Incorrect Solution: C Type 5 Diabetes, also known as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct form often linked with protein-energy malnutrition, typically affecting individuals in low-income, rural, or resource-constrained settings. Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 1 Diabetes which involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, Type 5 is non-autoimmune and is often non-ketotic. It results from long-standing undernutrition that impairs pancreatic development and insulin secretion. Statement 2 is correct — Nutritional rehabilitation is central to managing Type 5, aiming to restore the body’s metabolic capacity through adequate intake of macronutrients and micronutrients, often accompanied by insulin therapy in some cases. Statement 3 is also correct — Due to overlapping symptoms with both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes (like early onset and non-obesity), it is frequently misdiagnosed or overlooked, leading to underreporting. Statement 4 is incorrect — Contrary to Type 2 diabetes, Type 5 is not associated with obesity or urban lifestyles but is more common in malnourished populations, especially in parts of Asia and Africa.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following are characteristics of Type 5 Diabetes?

• It is an autoimmune disease affecting pancreatic beta cells.

• Nutritional rehabilitation plays a critical role in its treatment.

• It is frequently underdiagnosed due to overlapping symptoms with other diabetes types.

• It has a high prevalence among urban obese populations.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• Type 5 Diabetes, also known as Malnutrition-Related Diabetes Mellitus (MRDM), is a distinct form often linked with protein-energy malnutrition, typically affecting individuals in low-income, rural, or resource-constrained settings.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because, unlike Type 1 Diabetes which involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, Type 5 is non-autoimmune and is often non-ketotic. It results from long-standing undernutrition that impairs pancreatic development and insulin secretion.

• Statement 2 is correct — Nutritional rehabilitation is central to managing Type 5, aiming to restore the body’s metabolic capacity through adequate intake of macronutrients and micronutrients, often accompanied by insulin therapy in some cases.

• Statement 3 is also correct — Due to overlapping symptoms with both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes (like early onset and non-obesity), it is frequently misdiagnosed or overlooked, leading to underreporting.

• Statement 4 is incorrect — Contrary to Type 2 diabetes, Type 5 is not associated with obesity or urban lifestyles but is more common in malnourished populations, especially in parts of Asia and Africa.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Supercapacitors: Supercapacitors charge and discharge at a slower rate than solid-state batteries. They have lower power density compared to hydrogen fuel cells. Supercapacitors are ideal for applications needing quick energy bursts. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Supercapacitors are known for their very high charge and discharge rates, significantly faster than solid-state batteries or even conventional lithium-ion batteries. This rapid responsiveness makes them highly suitable for applications requiring instantaneous energy delivery, though they can’t store as much energy per unit weight. Statement 2 is also incorrect: While hydrogen fuel cells have higher energy density (the amount of energy stored), their power density (how fast that energy can be delivered) is generally lower than that of supercapacitors. Supercapacitors outperform in power delivery, whereas hydrogen fuel cells are suited for sustained energy over longer periods. Statement 3 is correct: Supercapacitors are ideal for quick energy bursts, making them invaluable in applications such as regenerative braking in metro trains, camera flashes, UPS systems, and power backup for servers. Their ability to rapidly absorb and release energy, combined with high cycle life, makes them crucial in short-duration, high-power scenarios. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Supercapacitors are known for their very high charge and discharge rates, significantly faster than solid-state batteries or even conventional lithium-ion batteries. This rapid responsiveness makes them highly suitable for applications requiring instantaneous energy delivery, though they can’t store as much energy per unit weight. Statement 2 is also incorrect: While hydrogen fuel cells have higher energy density (the amount of energy stored), their power density (how fast that energy can be delivered) is generally lower than that of supercapacitors. Supercapacitors outperform in power delivery, whereas hydrogen fuel cells are suited for sustained energy over longer periods. Statement 3 is correct: Supercapacitors are ideal for quick energy bursts, making them invaluable in applications such as regenerative braking in metro trains, camera flashes, UPS systems, and power backup for servers. Their ability to rapidly absorb and release energy, combined with high cycle life, makes them crucial in short-duration, high-power scenarios.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Supercapacitors:

• Supercapacitors charge and discharge at a slower rate than solid-state batteries.

• They have lower power density compared to hydrogen fuel cells.

• Supercapacitors are ideal for applications needing quick energy bursts.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Supercapacitors are known for their very high charge and discharge rates, significantly faster than solid-state batteries or even conventional lithium-ion batteries. This rapid responsiveness makes them highly suitable for applications requiring instantaneous energy delivery, though they can’t store as much energy per unit weight.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect: While hydrogen fuel cells have higher energy density (the amount of energy stored), their power density (how fast that energy can be delivered) is generally lower than that of supercapacitors. Supercapacitors outperform in power delivery, whereas hydrogen fuel cells are suited for sustained energy over longer periods.

• Statement 3 is correct: Supercapacitors are ideal for quick energy bursts, making them invaluable in applications such as regenerative braking in metro trains, camera flashes, UPS systems, and power backup for servers. Their ability to rapidly absorb and release energy, combined with high cycle life, makes them crucial in short-duration, high-power scenarios.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following was not a journal associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? a) Janata b) Samatha c) Mooknayak d) Prabuddha Bharat Correct Solution: D Dr. Ambedkar was associated with multiple influential journals, including Mooknayak (1920), Bahishkrit Bharat (1927), Samatha (1929), and Janata (1930). These platforms were crucial in voicing Dalit issues and advocating for social reforms. However, Prabuddha Bharat was a journal founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1896, not Ambedkar. It focused on Vedantic philosophy and national revival. Incorrect Solution: D Dr. Ambedkar was associated with multiple influential journals, including Mooknayak (1920), Bahishkrit Bharat (1927), Samatha (1929), and Janata (1930). These platforms were crucial in voicing Dalit issues and advocating for social reforms. However, Prabuddha Bharat was a journal founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1896, not Ambedkar. It focused on Vedantic philosophy and national revival.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following was not a journal associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

• b) Samatha

• c) Mooknayak

• d) Prabuddha Bharat

Solution: D

Dr. Ambedkar was associated with multiple influential journals, including Mooknayak (1920), Bahishkrit Bharat (1927), Samatha (1929), and Janata (1930). These platforms were crucial in voicing Dalit issues and advocating for social reforms.

However, Prabuddha Bharat was a journal founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1896, not Ambedkar. It focused on Vedantic philosophy and national revival.

Solution: D

However, Prabuddha Bharat was a journal founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1896, not Ambedkar. It focused on Vedantic philosophy and national revival.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which conservation status is NOT applicable to the Red Panda? a) Listed in Appendix I of CITES b) Protected under Schedule I of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 c) Listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List d) Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List Correct Solution: D The Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to a rapidly declining population caused by habitat fragmentation, poaching, and the degradation of bamboo forests, which are its primary food source. This categorization reflects a very high risk of extinction in the wild. In India, it is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting or trade. Globally, it is also listed in Appendix I of CITES, indicating that international trade of the species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances, such as for scientific research, and requires both export and import permits. Option (d) is incorrect because it inaccurately assigns the Vulnerable status to the Red Panda, which is a lower risk category than Endangered, and thus does not reflect the current severity of its conservation status. Incorrect Solution: D The Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to a rapidly declining population caused by habitat fragmentation, poaching, and the degradation of bamboo forests, which are its primary food source. This categorization reflects a very high risk of extinction in the wild. In India, it is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting or trade. Globally, it is also listed in Appendix I of CITES, indicating that international trade of the species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances, such as for scientific research, and requires both export and import permits. Option (d) is incorrect because it inaccurately assigns the Vulnerable status to the Red Panda, which is a lower risk category than Endangered, and thus does not reflect the current severity of its conservation status.

#### 5. Question

Which conservation status is NOT applicable to the Red Panda?

• a) Listed in Appendix I of CITES

• b) Protected under Schedule I of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

• c) Listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List

• d) Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List

Solution: D

• The Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to a rapidly declining population caused by habitat fragmentation, poaching, and the degradation of bamboo forests, which are its primary food source. This categorization reflects a very high risk of extinction in the wild.

• In India, it is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting or trade.

• Globally, it is also listed in Appendix I of CITES, indicating that international trade of the species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances, such as for scientific research, and requires both export and import permits.

• Option (d) is incorrect because it inaccurately assigns the Vulnerable status to the Red Panda, which is a lower risk category than Endangered, and thus does not reflect the current severity of its conservation status.

Solution: D

• In India, it is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting or trade.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Ecomark Scheme: The scheme mandates the use of accurate environmental labelling to avoid misleading sustainability claims. It encourages manufacturers to adopt resource-efficient and eco-friendly production methods. The implementation of the scheme is managed by NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Environment. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Ecomark Scheme is an eco-labelling initiative introduced by the Government of India to help consumers identify products that have minimal environmental impact throughout their life cycle. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme promotes accurate environmental labeling, ensuring that manufacturers do not mislead consumers with false or vague sustainability claims. Transparency in labeling allows consumers to make informed choices based on genuine environmental criteria. Statement 2 is also correct: One of the scheme’s key objectives is to encourage resource-efficient and environmentally friendly production processes. It aims to reduce the ecological footprint of consumer goods by incentivizing producers to follow sustainable practices, including energy and water conservation, waste minimization, and use of biodegradable materials. Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not managed by NITI Aayog or the Ministry of Environment. Instead, it is jointly implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). BIS sets the product-specific criteria, while CPCB handles the environmental standards and coordination. Incorrect Solution: A The Ecomark Scheme is an eco-labelling initiative introduced by the Government of India to help consumers identify products that have minimal environmental impact throughout their life cycle. Statement 1 is correct: The scheme promotes accurate environmental labeling, ensuring that manufacturers do not mislead consumers with false or vague sustainability claims. Transparency in labeling allows consumers to make informed choices based on genuine environmental criteria. Statement 2 is also correct: One of the scheme’s key objectives is to encourage resource-efficient and environmentally friendly production processes. It aims to reduce the ecological footprint of consumer goods by incentivizing producers to follow sustainable practices, including energy and water conservation, waste minimization, and use of biodegradable materials. Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not managed by NITI Aayog or the Ministry of Environment. Instead, it is jointly implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). BIS sets the product-specific criteria, while CPCB handles the environmental standards and coordination.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Ecomark Scheme:

• The scheme mandates the use of accurate environmental labelling to avoid misleading sustainability claims.

• It encourages manufacturers to adopt resource-efficient and eco-friendly production methods.

• The implementation of the scheme is managed by NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Environment.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Ecomark Scheme is an eco-labelling initiative introduced by the Government of India to help consumers identify products that have minimal environmental impact throughout their life cycle.

• Statement 1 is correct: The scheme promotes accurate environmental labeling, ensuring that manufacturers do not mislead consumers with false or vague sustainability claims. Transparency in labeling allows consumers to make informed choices based on genuine environmental criteria.

• Statement 2 is also correct: One of the scheme’s key objectives is to encourage resource-efficient and environmentally friendly production processes. It aims to reduce the ecological footprint of consumer goods by incentivizing producers to follow sustainable practices, including energy and water conservation, waste minimization, and use of biodegradable materials.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme is not managed by NITI Aayog or the Ministry of Environment. Instead, it is jointly implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). BIS sets the product-specific criteria, while CPCB handles the environmental standards and coordination.

Solution: A

The Ecomark Scheme is an eco-labelling initiative introduced by the Government of India to help consumers identify products that have minimal environmental impact throughout their life cycle.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the evolutionary importance of microRNA: MicroRNAs have played a crucial role in genetic evolution for millions of years. Abnormal activity of microRNAs is associated with various developmental disorders. MicroRNAs are only involved in regulating genes during the early stages of embryonic development. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small non-coding RNAs that have played an evolutionary role for millions of years, particularly in regulating gene expression in multicellular organisms. They have contributed to the diversification of gene networks, aiding complex traits and adaptive evolution. Statement 2 is correct: Numerous studies have shown that dysregulation of microRNA activity is linked to a wide array of developmental disorders and diseases, including cancer, cardiovascular conditions, and neurological issues. This underscores their crucial role in maintaining normal physiological function. Statement 3 is incorrect: While microRNAs are important during embryogenesis, their role is not limited to early development. They function throughout life, controlling processes like cell proliferation, apoptosis, differentiation, immunity, and aging. Therefore, stating that their involvement is only during embryonic development is inaccurate. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small non-coding RNAs that have played an evolutionary role for millions of years, particularly in regulating gene expression in multicellular organisms. They have contributed to the diversification of gene networks, aiding complex traits and adaptive evolution. Statement 2 is correct: Numerous studies have shown that dysregulation of microRNA activity is linked to a wide array of developmental disorders and diseases, including cancer, cardiovascular conditions, and neurological issues. This underscores their crucial role in maintaining normal physiological function. Statement 3 is incorrect: While microRNAs are important during embryogenesis, their role is not limited to early development. They function throughout life, controlling processes like cell proliferation, apoptosis, differentiation, immunity, and aging. Therefore, stating that their involvement is only during embryonic development is inaccurate.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the evolutionary importance of microRNA:

• MicroRNAs have played a crucial role in genetic evolution for millions of years.

• Abnormal activity of microRNAs is associated with various developmental disorders.

• MicroRNAs are only involved in regulating genes during the early stages of embryonic development.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small non-coding RNAs that have played an evolutionary role for millions of years, particularly in regulating gene expression in multicellular organisms. They have contributed to the diversification of gene networks, aiding complex traits and adaptive evolution.

• Statement 2 is correct: Numerous studies have shown that dysregulation of microRNA activity is linked to a wide array of developmental disorders and diseases, including cancer, cardiovascular conditions, and neurological issues. This underscores their crucial role in maintaining normal physiological function.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While microRNAs are important during embryogenesis, their role is not limited to early development. They function throughout life, controlling processes like cell proliferation, apoptosis, differentiation, immunity, and aging. Therefore, stating that their involvement is only during embryonic development is inaccurate.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory: The MACE Observatory is located in the Himalayas, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world. The primary objective of the MACE project is to study cosmic rays using radio waves. The observatory was developed indigenously by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) with support from Indian institutions. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Only statement 2 is incorrect. The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory is a landmark scientific installation located in Hanle, Ladakh, at an altitude of 4,300 meters, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world. This location provides ideal atmospheric conditions with minimal light pollution and dry air, crucial for observing high-energy cosmic phenomena. The main goal of MACE is not to study cosmic rays using radio waves but to detect very high-energy gamma rays from astrophysical sources like supernova remnants, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei using Cherenkov imaging technique. This technology captures the faint light produced when gamma rays interact with Earth’s atmosphere, generating particle showers. Importantly, MACE is an example of indigenous scientific capability; it was developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in collaboration with other Indian organizations such as the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL). Incorrect Solution: B Only statement 2 is incorrect. The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory is a landmark scientific installation located in Hanle, Ladakh, at an altitude of 4,300 meters, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world. This location provides ideal atmospheric conditions with minimal light pollution and dry air, crucial for observing high-energy cosmic phenomena. The main goal of MACE is not to study cosmic rays using radio waves but to detect very high-energy gamma rays from astrophysical sources like supernova remnants, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei using Cherenkov imaging technique. This technology captures the faint light produced when gamma rays interact with Earth’s atmosphere, generating particle showers. Importantly, MACE is an example of indigenous scientific capability; it was developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in collaboration with other Indian organizations such as the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory:

• The MACE Observatory is located in the Himalayas, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world.

• The primary objective of the MACE project is to study cosmic rays using radio waves.

• The observatory was developed indigenously by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) with support from Indian institutions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Only statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory is a landmark scientific installation located in Hanle, Ladakh, at an altitude of 4,300 meters, making it the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world. This location provides ideal atmospheric conditions with minimal light pollution and dry air, crucial for observing high-energy cosmic phenomena.

• The main goal of MACE is not to study cosmic rays using radio waves but to detect very high-energy gamma rays from astrophysical sources like supernova remnants, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei using Cherenkov imaging technique.

• This technology captures the faint light produced when gamma rays interact with Earth’s atmosphere, generating particle showers.

• Importantly, MACE is an example of indigenous scientific capability; it was developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in collaboration with other Indian organizations such as the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).

Solution: B

Only statement 2 is incorrect.

• This technology captures the faint light produced when gamma rays interact with Earth’s atmosphere, generating particle showers.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the conservation efforts of the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park: The zoo plays a central role in the conservation and breeding of red pandas in India. The zoo’s genetic resource facility is primarily focused on tropical species. It is recognized by the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) for its contributions to wildlife conservation. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park is actively involved in the conservation and breeding of red pandas, contributing significantly to their population in captivity and in the wild. Statement 2 is incorrect. The zoo’s genetic resource facility focuses on preserving genetic material of endangered species, particularly those adapted to alpine and high-altitude ecosystems, rather than tropical species. Statement 3 is correct. The zoo is recognized by the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) for its contributions to wildlife conservation, particularly for species like the snow leopard and red panda. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park is actively involved in the conservation and breeding of red pandas, contributing significantly to their population in captivity and in the wild. Statement 2 is incorrect. The zoo’s genetic resource facility focuses on preserving genetic material of endangered species, particularly those adapted to alpine and high-altitude ecosystems, rather than tropical species. Statement 3 is correct. The zoo is recognized by the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) for its contributions to wildlife conservation, particularly for species like the snow leopard and red panda.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the conservation efforts of the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park:

• The zoo plays a central role in the conservation and breeding of red pandas in India.

• The zoo’s genetic resource facility is primarily focused on tropical species.

• It is recognized by the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) for its contributions to wildlife conservation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park is actively involved in the conservation and breeding of red pandas, contributing significantly to their population in captivity and in the wild.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The zoo’s genetic resource facility focuses on preserving genetic material of endangered species, particularly those adapted to alpine and high-altitude ecosystems, rather than tropical species.

• Statement 3 is correct. The zoo is recognized by the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) for its contributions to wildlife conservation, particularly for species like the snow leopard and red panda.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Why are Pluto and Charon often referred to as a “double dwarf planet system”? a) Due to the close size and mass ratio between Pluto and Charon. b) Due to their similar compositions of methane and nitrogen. c) Because both are located in the asteroid belt. d) Because Charon is more massive than Pluto. Correct Solution: A Pluto and Charon are referred to as a “double dwarf planet system” primarily due to their unusual size and mass ratio. Unlike most planetary systems where the moon orbits close to the planet’s center, Charon is about 50% the diameter of Pluto and has more than 12% of Pluto’s mass, making it one of the largest moon-to-planet ratios in the solar system. This significant mass results in the barycenter, or the center of mass around which both bodies orbit, lying outside Pluto’s surface—a rare trait among planet-moon systems. This configuration leads scientists to view Pluto and Charon more as a binary or “double dwarf planet” system rather than the traditional primary-satellite relationship. Their orbital dynamic is a striking example of gravitational balance in the outer solar system, especially within the Kuiper Belt. Incorrect Solution: A Pluto and Charon are referred to as a “double dwarf planet system” primarily due to their unusual size and mass ratio. Unlike most planetary systems where the moon orbits close to the planet’s center, Charon is about 50% the diameter of Pluto and has more than 12% of Pluto’s mass, making it one of the largest moon-to-planet ratios in the solar system. This significant mass results in the barycenter, or the center of mass around which both bodies orbit, lying outside Pluto’s surface—a rare trait among planet-moon systems. This configuration leads scientists to view Pluto and Charon more as a binary or “double dwarf planet” system rather than the traditional primary-satellite relationship. Their orbital dynamic is a striking example of gravitational balance in the outer solar system, especially within the Kuiper Belt.

#### 10. Question

Why are Pluto and Charon often referred to as a “double dwarf planet system”?

• a) Due to the close size and mass ratio between Pluto and Charon.

• b) Due to their similar compositions of methane and nitrogen.

• c) Because both are located in the asteroid belt.

• d) Because Charon is more massive than Pluto.

Solution: A

• Pluto and Charon are referred to as a “double dwarf planet system” primarily due to their unusual size and mass ratio.

• Unlike most planetary systems where the moon orbits close to the planet’s center, Charon is about 50% the diameter of Pluto and has more than 12% of Pluto’s mass, making it one of the largest moon-to-planet ratios in the solar system.

• This significant mass results in the barycenter, or the center of mass around which both bodies orbit, lying outside Pluto’s surface—a rare trait among planet-moon systems.

• This configuration leads scientists to view Pluto and Charon more as a binary or “double dwarf planet” system rather than the traditional primary-satellite relationship.

• Their orbital dynamic is a striking example of gravitational balance in the outer solar system, especially within the Kuiper Belt.

Solution: A

• Pluto and Charon are referred to as a “double dwarf planet system” primarily due to their unusual size and mass ratio.

• This significant mass results in the barycenter, or the center of mass around which both bodies orbit, lying outside Pluto’s surface—a rare trait among planet-moon systems.

• This configuration leads scientists to view Pluto and Charon more as a binary or “double dwarf planet” system rather than the traditional primary-satellite relationship.

• Their orbital dynamic is a striking example of gravitational balance in the outer solar system, especially within the Kuiper Belt.

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