UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 May 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates. Statement 2 is not correct. An increase in REER means that the country’s currency has appreciated not only in nominal terms but also adjusted for inflation. This could actually make exports more expensive and imports cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness. Statement 3 is true. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, it would lead to a higher increase in the nominal exchange rate (NEER) compared to the real exchange rate (REER), leading to a divergence between the two. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates. Statement 2 is not correct. An increase in REER means that the country’s currency has appreciated not only in nominal terms but also adjusted for inflation. This could actually make exports more expensive and imports cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness. Statement 3 is true. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, it would lead to a higher increase in the nominal exchange rate (NEER) compared to the real exchange rate (REER), leading to a divergence between the two. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
#### 1. Question
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
• An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
• An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
• An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
• An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates.
• Statement 2 is not correct. An increase in REER means that the country’s currency has appreciated not only in nominal terms but also adjusted for inflation. This could actually make exports more expensive and imports cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness.
• Statement 3 is true. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, it would lead to a higher increase in the nominal exchange rate (NEER) compared to the real exchange rate (REER), leading to a divergence between the two.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates.
• Statement 2 is not correct. An increase in REER means that the country’s currency has appreciated not only in nominal terms but also adjusted for inflation. This could actually make exports more expensive and imports cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness.
• Statement 3 is true. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, it would lead to a higher increase in the nominal exchange rate (NEER) compared to the real exchange rate (REER), leading to a divergence between the two.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is correct? (a) REER is a measure of the average exchange rate of a country's currency relative to a basket of foreign currencies, adjusted for inflation. (b) REER reflects only nominal exchange rate fluctuations without considering inflation. (c) REER is calculated by taking the ratio of a country's nominal exchange rate to its GDP. (d) REER is primarily used to measure the stability of a country's stock market. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure that takes into account both nominal exchange rate movements and relative price changes (inflation) between countries. Option A is correct because it accurately describes REER, emphasizing its adjustment for inflation to provide a more accurate reflection of a country’s international competitiveness. Option B is incorrect because it overlooks the crucial aspect of inflation adjustment in REER calculations. Option C is incorrect because REER is not calculated based on a country’s GDP but rather on a basket of foreign currencies. Option D is incorrect because REER is not related to measuring the stability of a country’s stock market; it focuses on the competitiveness of a country’s exports in international markets. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure that takes into account both nominal exchange rate movements and relative price changes (inflation) between countries. Option A is correct because it accurately describes REER, emphasizing its adjustment for inflation to provide a more accurate reflection of a country’s international competitiveness. Option B is incorrect because it overlooks the crucial aspect of inflation adjustment in REER calculations. Option C is incorrect because REER is not calculated based on a country’s GDP but rather on a basket of foreign currencies. Option D is incorrect because REER is not related to measuring the stability of a country’s stock market; it focuses on the competitiveness of a country’s exports in international markets. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
#### 2. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is correct?
• (a) REER is a measure of the average exchange rate of a country's currency relative to a basket of foreign currencies, adjusted for inflation.
• (b) REER reflects only nominal exchange rate fluctuations without considering inflation.
• (c) REER is calculated by taking the ratio of a country's nominal exchange rate to its GDP.
• (d) REER is primarily used to measure the stability of a country's stock market.
Explanation:
• The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure that takes into account both nominal exchange rate movements and relative price changes (inflation) between countries. Option A is correct because it accurately describes REER, emphasizing its adjustment for inflation to provide a more accurate reflection of a country’s international competitiveness. Option B is incorrect because it overlooks the crucial aspect of inflation adjustment in REER calculations. Option C is incorrect because REER is not calculated based on a country’s GDP but rather on a basket of foreign currencies. Option D is incorrect because REER is not related to measuring the stability of a country’s stock market; it focuses on the competitiveness of a country’s exports in international markets.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
Explanation:
• The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure that takes into account both nominal exchange rate movements and relative price changes (inflation) between countries. Option A is correct because it accurately describes REER, emphasizing its adjustment for inflation to provide a more accurate reflection of a country’s international competitiveness. Option B is incorrect because it overlooks the crucial aspect of inflation adjustment in REER calculations. Option C is incorrect because REER is not calculated based on a country’s GDP but rather on a basket of foreign currencies. Option D is incorrect because REER is not related to measuring the stability of a country’s stock market; it focuses on the competitiveness of a country’s exports in international markets.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points What is the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)? (a) A maritime zone where coastal states have exclusive rights to exploit and manage natural resources. (b) A region designated for military exercises by coastal states. (c) An area where international fishing vessels have unrestricted access. (d) A zone where foreign vessels have priority access to marine resources. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a maritime zone established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It extends up to 200 nautical miles from the coastal baseline of a country. Within this zone, the coastal state has exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage both living and non-living resources. These rights include fishing, oil and gas extraction, and other economic activities. Other countries’ vessels enjoy freedom of navigation through the EEZ, but they must comply with the coastal state’s laws and regulations regarding resource exploitation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the nature and purpose of the Exclusive Economic Zone. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/freshwater-under-the-ocean-bed/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a maritime zone established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It extends up to 200 nautical miles from the coastal baseline of a country. Within this zone, the coastal state has exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage both living and non-living resources. These rights include fishing, oil and gas extraction, and other economic activities. Other countries’ vessels enjoy freedom of navigation through the EEZ, but they must comply with the coastal state’s laws and regulations regarding resource exploitation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the nature and purpose of the Exclusive Economic Zone. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/freshwater-under-the-ocean-bed/
#### 3. Question
What is the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
• (a) A maritime zone where coastal states have exclusive rights to exploit and manage natural resources.
• (b) A region designated for military exercises by coastal states.
• (c) An area where international fishing vessels have unrestricted access.
• (d) A zone where foreign vessels have priority access to marine resources.
Explanation:
• The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a maritime zone established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It extends up to 200 nautical miles from the coastal baseline of a country. Within this zone, the coastal state has exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage both living and non-living resources. These rights include fishing, oil and gas extraction, and other economic activities. Other countries’ vessels enjoy freedom of navigation through the EEZ, but they must comply with the coastal state’s laws and regulations regarding resource exploitation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the nature and purpose of the Exclusive Economic Zone.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/freshwater-under-the-ocean-bed/
Explanation:
• The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a maritime zone established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It extends up to 200 nautical miles from the coastal baseline of a country. Within this zone, the coastal state has exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage both living and non-living resources. These rights include fishing, oil and gas extraction, and other economic activities. Other countries’ vessels enjoy freedom of navigation through the EEZ, but they must comply with the coastal state’s laws and regulations regarding resource exploitation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the nature and purpose of the Exclusive Economic Zone.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/freshwater-under-the-ocean-bed/
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Foot Rot Disease: The causative agent of Foot Rot Disease is typically a fungal pathogen. It is transmitted through airborne spores. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has developed a biocontrol agent, Trichoderma asperellum, to manage foot rot disease in Basmati rice crops. About Foot Rot Disease: It is a fungal disease affecting Basmati rice crops, primarily at the seedling stage. Caused by Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen. Spreads through the plant root, leading to stem base colonization. Symptoms include pale yellowing, elongation, drying, and eventual death of seedlings. Current treatments involve chemical fungicides like Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb), harmful to soil and consumers. Trichoderma asperellum: Biocontrol agent offering a non-chemical alternative, aiding disease management while minimizing environmental harm. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/foot-rot-disease/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has developed a biocontrol agent, Trichoderma asperellum, to manage foot rot disease in Basmati rice crops. About Foot Rot Disease: It is a fungal disease affecting Basmati rice crops, primarily at the seedling stage. Caused by Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen. Spreads through the plant root, leading to stem base colonization. Symptoms include pale yellowing, elongation, drying, and eventual death of seedlings. Current treatments involve chemical fungicides like Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb), harmful to soil and consumers. Trichoderma asperellum: Biocontrol agent offering a non-chemical alternative, aiding disease management while minimizing environmental harm. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/foot-rot-disease/
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements about Foot Rot Disease:
• The causative agent of Foot Rot Disease is typically a fungal pathogen. It is transmitted through airborne spores.
• The causative agent of Foot Rot Disease is typically a fungal pathogen.
• It is transmitted through airborne spores.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has developed a biocontrol agent, Trichoderma asperellum, to manage foot rot disease in Basmati rice crops.
• About Foot Rot Disease: It is a fungal disease affecting Basmati rice crops, primarily at the seedling stage. Caused by Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen. Spreads through the plant root, leading to stem base colonization. Symptoms include pale yellowing, elongation, drying, and eventual death of seedlings. Current treatments involve chemical fungicides like Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb), harmful to soil and consumers.
• Trichoderma asperellum: Biocontrol agent offering a non-chemical alternative, aiding disease management while minimizing environmental harm.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/foot-rot-disease/
Explanation:
• Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has developed a biocontrol agent, Trichoderma asperellum, to manage foot rot disease in Basmati rice crops.
• About Foot Rot Disease: It is a fungal disease affecting Basmati rice crops, primarily at the seedling stage. Caused by Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen. Spreads through the plant root, leading to stem base colonization. Symptoms include pale yellowing, elongation, drying, and eventual death of seedlings. Current treatments involve chemical fungicides like Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb), harmful to soil and consumers.
• Trichoderma asperellum: Biocontrol agent offering a non-chemical alternative, aiding disease management while minimizing environmental harm.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/foot-rot-disease/
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points AlphaFold 3, sometimes mentioned in the news, is a (a) new software for predicting protein structures with unprecedented accuracy. (b) robotic device used for protein crystallization. (c) gene-editing tool used for modifying DNA sequences. (d) vaccine developed for COVID-19. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: AlphaFold is an AI tool by Google’s DeepMind to predict protein folding since 2018. It aims to understand 3D protein shapes, crucial for biology and health. Versions like AlphaFold 3 offer about 80% accuracy and model DNA, RNA, and more. Protein folding is vital for biological function and disease understanding. While AlphaFold aids drug development, its limitations include a lack of explanation for protein folding and restricted access. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/alphafold-3/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: AlphaFold is an AI tool by Google’s DeepMind to predict protein folding since 2018. It aims to understand 3D protein shapes, crucial for biology and health. Versions like AlphaFold 3 offer about 80% accuracy and model DNA, RNA, and more. Protein folding is vital for biological function and disease understanding. While AlphaFold aids drug development, its limitations include a lack of explanation for protein folding and restricted access. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/alphafold-3/
#### 5. Question
AlphaFold 3, sometimes mentioned in the news, is a
• (a) new software for predicting protein structures with unprecedented accuracy.
• (b) robotic device used for protein crystallization.
• (c) gene-editing tool used for modifying DNA sequences.
• (d) vaccine developed for COVID-19.
Explanation:
• AlphaFold is an AI tool by Google’s DeepMind to predict protein folding since 2018. It aims to understand 3D protein shapes, crucial for biology and health. Versions like AlphaFold 3 offer about 80% accuracy and model DNA, RNA, and more. Protein folding is vital for biological function and disease understanding. While AlphaFold aids drug development, its limitations include a lack of explanation for protein folding and restricted access.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/alphafold-3/
Explanation:
• AlphaFold is an AI tool by Google’s DeepMind to predict protein folding since 2018. It aims to understand 3D protein shapes, crucial for biology and health. Versions like AlphaFold 3 offer about 80% accuracy and model DNA, RNA, and more. Protein folding is vital for biological function and disease understanding. While AlphaFold aids drug development, its limitations include a lack of explanation for protein folding and restricted access.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/alphafold-3/
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to new COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, consider the following statements: FLiRT is less transmissible than previous variants. FLiRT is associated with milder symptoms compared to other variants. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: New COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, have emerged in India. FLiRT is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. It is characterized by increased transmissibility and the ability to potentially evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue and digestive issues with a heightened transmission rate. FLiRT demands stringent precautions. While KP.2 is more infectious than its predecessor, JN.1, it has shown lower overall infectivity. Symptoms are similar to the JN.1 variant, including sore throat, runny nose, coughing, and fever. Safety measures such as wearing masks, practising hand hygiene, and maintaining physical distancing remain crucial to prevent the spread of these variants and mitigate the impact of the pandemic. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/flirt/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: New COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, have emerged in India. FLiRT is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. It is characterized by increased transmissibility and the ability to potentially evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue and digestive issues with a heightened transmission rate. FLiRT demands stringent precautions. While KP.2 is more infectious than its predecessor, JN.1, it has shown lower overall infectivity. Symptoms are similar to the JN.1 variant, including sore throat, runny nose, coughing, and fever. Safety measures such as wearing masks, practising hand hygiene, and maintaining physical distancing remain crucial to prevent the spread of these variants and mitigate the impact of the pandemic. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/flirt/
#### 6. Question
With reference to new COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, consider the following statements:
• FLiRT is less transmissible than previous variants. FLiRT is associated with milder symptoms compared to other variants.
• FLiRT is less transmissible than previous variants.
• FLiRT is associated with milder symptoms compared to other variants.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Context: New COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, have emerged in India.
• FLiRT is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. It is characterized by increased transmissibility and the ability to potentially evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue and digestive issues with a heightened transmission rate. FLiRT demands stringent precautions.
• While KP.2 is more infectious than its predecessor, JN.1, it has shown lower overall infectivity. Symptoms are similar to the JN.1 variant, including sore throat, runny nose, coughing, and fever. Safety measures such as wearing masks, practising hand hygiene, and maintaining physical distancing remain crucial to prevent the spread of these variants and mitigate the impact of the pandemic.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/flirt/
Explanation:
• Context: New COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, have emerged in India.
• FLiRT is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. It is characterized by increased transmissibility and the ability to potentially evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue and digestive issues with a heightened transmission rate. FLiRT demands stringent precautions.
• While KP.2 is more infectious than its predecessor, JN.1, it has shown lower overall infectivity. Symptoms are similar to the JN.1 variant, including sore throat, runny nose, coughing, and fever. Safety measures such as wearing masks, practising hand hygiene, and maintaining physical distancing remain crucial to prevent the spread of these variants and mitigate the impact of the pandemic.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/flirt/
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: All parts of Oleander are safe for consumption. Oleander is a drought-tolerant plant. Oleander is not toxic to humans and animals. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. Context: Kerala temples ban oleander flower offerings following a woman’s suspected poisoning death from consuming oleander leaves. Oleander is a poisonous plant known scientifically as Nerium oleander. It contains toxic compounds throughout its parts, including leaves and flowers. Ingestion of oleander can lead to symptoms such as vomiting, nausea, bloody diarrhoea, and irregular heart rhythm. They are fast-growing evergreen shrubs or small trees native to Europe and Asia. In Kerala, they are also called arali and kanaveeram. Oleander is tolerant to heat, drought, wind, air pollution, salt, and poor soil. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/oleander-flowers/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. Context: Kerala temples ban oleander flower offerings following a woman’s suspected poisoning death from consuming oleander leaves. Oleander is a poisonous plant known scientifically as Nerium oleander. It contains toxic compounds throughout its parts, including leaves and flowers. Ingestion of oleander can lead to symptoms such as vomiting, nausea, bloody diarrhoea, and irregular heart rhythm. They are fast-growing evergreen shrubs or small trees native to Europe and Asia. In Kerala, they are also called arali and kanaveeram. Oleander is tolerant to heat, drought, wind, air pollution, salt, and poor soil. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/oleander-flowers/
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements:
• All parts of Oleander are safe for consumption. Oleander is a drought-tolerant plant. Oleander is not toxic to humans and animals.
• All parts of Oleander are safe for consumption.
• Oleander is a drought-tolerant plant.
• Oleander is not toxic to humans and animals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Only statement 2 is correct.
• Context: Kerala temples ban oleander flower offerings following a woman’s suspected poisoning death from consuming oleander leaves.
• Oleander is a poisonous plant known scientifically as Nerium oleander. It contains toxic compounds throughout its parts, including leaves and flowers. Ingestion of oleander can lead to symptoms such as vomiting, nausea, bloody diarrhoea, and irregular heart rhythm.
• They are fast-growing evergreen shrubs or small trees native to Europe and Asia. In Kerala, they are also called arali and kanaveeram. Oleander is tolerant to heat, drought, wind, air pollution, salt, and poor soil.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/oleander-flowers/
Explanation:
• Only statement 2 is correct.
• Context: Kerala temples ban oleander flower offerings following a woman’s suspected poisoning death from consuming oleander leaves.
• Oleander is a poisonous plant known scientifically as Nerium oleander. It contains toxic compounds throughout its parts, including leaves and flowers. Ingestion of oleander can lead to symptoms such as vomiting, nausea, bloody diarrhoea, and irregular heart rhythm.
• They are fast-growing evergreen shrubs or small trees native to Europe and Asia. In Kerala, they are also called arali and kanaveeram. Oleander is tolerant to heat, drought, wind, air pollution, salt, and poor soil.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/oleander-flowers/
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (a) Fishing cat (b) Orangutan (c) Otter (d) Sloth bear Correct Ans; (b) Explanation: Orangutans, the only great apes found outside of Africa, inhabit Sumatra and Borneo in Southeast Asia. They prefer tropical forests, particularly in river valleys and floodplains. With an extremely low reproductive rate, their populations are highly vulnerable. All three species are classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. They have been observed as using sticks for fishing out bugs from bark. Researchers have also spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects from a hole in a tree in the wild. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/orangutan-diplomacy/ Incorrect Ans; (b) Explanation: Orangutans, the only great apes found outside of Africa, inhabit Sumatra and Borneo in Southeast Asia. They prefer tropical forests, particularly in river valleys and floodplains. With an extremely low reproductive rate, their populations are highly vulnerable. All three species are classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. They have been observed as using sticks for fishing out bugs from bark. Researchers have also spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects from a hole in a tree in the wild. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/orangutan-diplomacy/
#### 8. Question
Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
• (a) Fishing cat
• (b) Orangutan
• (d) Sloth bear
Explanation:
• Orangutans, the only great apes found outside of Africa, inhabit Sumatra and Borneo in Southeast Asia. They prefer tropical forests, particularly in river valleys and floodplains. With an extremely low reproductive rate, their populations are highly vulnerable. All three species are classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• They have been observed as using sticks for fishing out bugs from bark. Researchers have also spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects from a hole in a tree in the wild.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/orangutan-diplomacy/
Explanation:
• Orangutans, the only great apes found outside of Africa, inhabit Sumatra and Borneo in Southeast Asia. They prefer tropical forests, particularly in river valleys and floodplains. With an extremely low reproductive rate, their populations are highly vulnerable. All three species are classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• They have been observed as using sticks for fishing out bugs from bark. Researchers have also spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects from a hole in a tree in the wild.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/orangutan-diplomacy/
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world. Sundarbans mangrove forest is not home to any endangered species. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal. Features: Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem. Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world. It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve. It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal. Features: Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem. Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world. It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve. It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world. Sundarbans mangrove forest is not home to any endangered species.
• Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
• Sundarbans mangrove forest is not home to any endangered species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
• Features: Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem. Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world. It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve. It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers
• Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem.
• Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
• It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve.
• It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
Explanation:
• Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
• Features: Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem. Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world. It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve. It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers
• Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem.
• Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
• It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland, Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve.
• It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In which of the following states is Sundarbans National Park located? (a) Odisha (b) Assam (c) West Bengal (d) Meghalaya Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Sundarbans National Park is a national park in West Bengal, India, and core part of tiger reserve and biosphere reserve. It is part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta and adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Sundarbans National Park is a national park in West Bengal, India, and core part of tiger reserve and biosphere reserve. It is part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta and adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
#### 10. Question
In which of the following states is Sundarbans National Park located?
• (a) Odisha
• (c) West Bengal
• (d) Meghalaya
Explanation:
• The Sundarbans National Park is a national park in West Bengal, India, and core part of tiger reserve and biosphere reserve. It is part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta and adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
Explanation:
• The Sundarbans National Park is a national park in West Bengal, India, and core part of tiger reserve and biosphere reserve. It is part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta and adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
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