UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 March 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association: It is a regional trade organization and free trade area. It operates independently of the European Union (EU). It currently has more than10 member countries. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (b) Explanation: Context: India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. What is EFTA? EFTA, the European Free Trade Association, is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1960 to promote free trade among its member states, which include Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. It operates independently of the European Union (EU). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/ Incorrect Ans : (b) Explanation: Context: India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024. What is EFTA? EFTA, the European Free Trade Association, is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1960 to promote free trade among its member states, which include Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. It operates independently of the European Union (EU). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association:

• It is a regional trade organization and free trade area. It operates independently of the European Union (EU). It currently has more than10 member countries.

• It is a regional trade organization and free trade area.

• It operates independently of the European Union (EU).

• It currently has more than10 member countries.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024.

• What is EFTA? EFTA, the European Free Trade Association, is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1960 to promote free trade among its member states, which include Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. It operates independently of the European Union (EU).

• EFTA, the European Free Trade Association, is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1960 to promote free trade among its member states, which include Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. It operates independently of the European Union (EU).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

Explanation:

• Context: India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points ‘Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement’ (TEPA) is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (a) Gulf Cooperation Council (b) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (d) European Free Trade Association Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is a trade agreement between India and the EFTA countries. It focuses on market access, investment promotion, Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and other trade-related aspects to enhance economic cooperation between India and the EFTA states. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is a trade agreement between India and the EFTA countries. It focuses on market access, investment promotion, Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and other trade-related aspects to enhance economic cooperation between India and the EFTA states. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

#### 2. Question

‘Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement’ (TEPA) is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

• (a) Gulf Cooperation Council

• (b) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

• (c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

• (d) European Free Trade Association

Explanation:

• The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is a trade agreement between India and the EFTA countries. It focuses on market access, investment promotion, Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and other trade-related aspects to enhance economic cooperation between India and the EFTA states.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/india-efta-trade-and-economic-partnership-agreement-tepa/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points What is the primary method for producing sponge iron? (a) Blast Furnace (b) Direct Reduction (c) Electric Arc Furnace (d) Open Hearth Furnace Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Sponge iron, also known as direct reduced iron (DRI), is primarily produced through the direct reduction of iron ore in the presence of a reducing agent such as natural gas or coal. This process occurs in a direct reduction furnace, where iron ore pellets or lump ore are heated at a temperature range of 800°C to 1050°C. The reducing agent reacts with the iron oxide in the ore, resulting in the reduction of iron oxide to metallic iron. This method is distinct from traditional iron-making processes like the blast furnace, electric arc furnace, or open hearth furnace, making option B the correct choice. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sponge-iron-industry/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Sponge iron, also known as direct reduced iron (DRI), is primarily produced through the direct reduction of iron ore in the presence of a reducing agent such as natural gas or coal. This process occurs in a direct reduction furnace, where iron ore pellets or lump ore are heated at a temperature range of 800°C to 1050°C. The reducing agent reacts with the iron oxide in the ore, resulting in the reduction of iron oxide to metallic iron. This method is distinct from traditional iron-making processes like the blast furnace, electric arc furnace, or open hearth furnace, making option B the correct choice. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sponge-iron-industry/

#### 3. Question

What is the primary method for producing sponge iron?

• (a) Blast Furnace

• (b) Direct Reduction

• (c) Electric Arc Furnace

• (d) Open Hearth Furnace

Explanation:

• Sponge iron, also known as direct reduced iron (DRI), is primarily produced through the direct reduction of iron ore in the presence of a reducing agent such as natural gas or coal. This process occurs in a direct reduction furnace, where iron ore pellets or lump ore are heated at a temperature range of 800°C to 1050°C. The reducing agent reacts with the iron oxide in the ore, resulting in the reduction of iron oxide to metallic iron. This method is distinct from traditional iron-making processes like the blast furnace, electric arc furnace, or open hearth furnace, making option B the correct choice.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sponge-iron-industry/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sponge-iron-industry/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President. The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party. The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/ Incorrect Ans : (a) Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party. The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President. The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.

• Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.

• The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution.

• The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Only statement 2 is correct.

• In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.

• The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.

• The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

Explanation:

• Only statement 2 is correct.

• In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.

• The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence. The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans : (b) Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and Immunities are disregarded, the offense is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House. The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/ Incorrect Ans : (b) Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and Immunities are disregarded, the offense is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege. A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House. The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion.

• It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence. The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.

• It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

• Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence.

• The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and

• Immunities are disregarded, the offense is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.

• A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.

• A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House.

• The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

Explanation:

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Immunities are disregarded, the offense is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.

• A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/sc-judgement-on-rajya-sabha-elections/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the President’s rule that is imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution. It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state. Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within a stipulated time. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Conext: R. Bommai case completes 30 years The S.R. Bommai case (involving 9 judge bench) refers to the legal battle initiated by S.R. Bommai, the former Chief Minister of Karnataka after his government was dismissed in 1989 under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case, which concluded in 1994, resulted in a landmark Supreme Court verdict that restricted the arbitrary dismissal of state governments by outlining specific guidelines. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report). A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/s-r-bommai-case-completes-30-years/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Conext: R. Bommai case completes 30 years The S.R. Bommai case (involving 9 judge bench) refers to the legal battle initiated by S.R. Bommai, the former Chief Minister of Karnataka after his government was dismissed in 1989 under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case, which concluded in 1994, resulted in a landmark Supreme Court verdict that restricted the arbitrary dismissal of state governments by outlining specific guidelines. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report). A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/s-r-bommai-case-completes-30-years/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the President’s rule that is imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution.

• It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state. Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within a stipulated time.

• It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state.

• Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within a stipulated time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Conext: R. Bommai case completes 30 years The S.R. Bommai case (involving 9 judge bench) refers to the legal battle initiated by S.R. Bommai, the former Chief Minister of Karnataka after his government was dismissed in 1989 under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case, which concluded in 1994, resulted in a landmark Supreme Court verdict that restricted the arbitrary dismissal of state governments by outlining specific guidelines.

• The S.R. Bommai case (involving 9 judge bench) refers to the legal battle initiated by S.R. Bommai, the former Chief Minister of Karnataka after his government was dismissed in 1989 under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case, which concluded in 1994, resulted in a landmark Supreme Court verdict that restricted the arbitrary dismissal of state governments by outlining specific guidelines.

• Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

• Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report).

• A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/s-r-bommai-case-completes-30-years/

Explanation:

• Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/s-r-bommai-case-completes-30-years/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points ‘Democracy Report 2024’ is released by (a) Democracy Institute (b) V-Dem Institute (c) International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (d) None of the above Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India, downgraded to an “electoral autocracy” in 2018, has further declined to become “one of the worst autocracies,” according to the ‘Democracy Report 2024’ by the V-Dem Institute. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/democracy-report-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India, downgraded to an “electoral autocracy” in 2018, has further declined to become “one of the worst autocracies,” according to the ‘Democracy Report 2024’ by the V-Dem Institute. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/democracy-report-2024/

#### 7. Question

‘Democracy Report 2024’ is released by

• (a) Democracy Institute

• (b) V-Dem Institute

• (c) International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance

• (d) None of the above

Explanation:

• Context: India, downgraded to an “electoral autocracy” in 2018, has further declined to become “one of the worst autocracies,” according to the ‘Democracy Report 2024’ by the V-Dem Institute.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/democracy-report-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/democracy-report-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). It is a statutory body. It is under the jurisdiction of RBI. It is tasked with licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is not correct. Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) exercising powers under the Insurance Act, 1938 and IRDA Act, 1999, has framed regulations (IRDAI (Protection of Policyholders’ Interests and Allied Matters of Insurers) Regulations, 2024) consolidating 8 separate regulations into a unified framework. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/irdai-new-regulation/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is not correct. Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) exercising powers under the Insurance Act, 1938 and IRDA Act, 1999, has framed regulations (IRDAI (Protection of Policyholders’ Interests and Allied Matters of Insurers) Regulations, 2024) consolidating 8 separate regulations into a unified framework. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/irdai-new-regulation/

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

• It is a statutory body. It is under the jurisdiction of RBI. It is tasked with licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.

• It is a statutory body.

• It is under the jurisdiction of RBI.

• It is tasked with licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 2 is not correct.

• Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) exercising powers under the Insurance Act, 1938 and IRDA Act, 1999, has framed regulations (IRDAI (Protection of Policyholders’ Interests and Allied Matters of Insurers) Regulations, 2024) consolidating 8 separate regulations into a unified framework.

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (founded 1999; HQ: Hyderabad) is a statutory body (under the IRDA Act 1999) and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/irdai-new-regulation/

Explanation:

• Statement 2 is not correct.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/irdai-new-regulation/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following food products: Gobi manchurian Potato wedges Butter chicken Pomegranate juice Cotton candies How many of the food products mentioned above were prepared with the unauthorized addition of “Rhodamine B,” a coloring agent? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Karnataka bans harmful dyes in Gobi Manchurian, cotton candy, imposing imprisonment of up to seven years and fines of up to Rs 10 lakh for violators. Rhodamine B is usually “illegally” added to preparations such as gobhi manchurian, potato wedges, butter chicken, pomegranate juice, ice-creams produced in small scale, or cotton candies. Chemicals banned: Chemical Description Colour Produced Tartrazine Can induce allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. Yellow Sunset Yellow Can cause allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. Yellow Carmoisine May lead to skin rashes and respiratory allergies. Red Rhodamine B Considered carcinogenic; commonly used in textile dyeing and the paper industry. Pink Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/karnataka-bans-harmful-dyes/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Karnataka bans harmful dyes in Gobi Manchurian, cotton candy, imposing imprisonment of up to seven years and fines of up to Rs 10 lakh for violators. Rhodamine B is usually “illegally” added to preparations such as gobhi manchurian, potato wedges, butter chicken, pomegranate juice, ice-creams produced in small scale, or cotton candies. Chemicals banned: Chemical Description Colour Produced Tartrazine Can induce allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. Yellow Sunset Yellow Can cause allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. Yellow Carmoisine May lead to skin rashes and respiratory allergies. Red Rhodamine B Considered carcinogenic; commonly used in textile dyeing and the paper industry. Pink Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/karnataka-bans-harmful-dyes/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following food products:

• Gobi manchurian Potato wedges Butter chicken Pomegranate juice Cotton candies

• Gobi manchurian

• Potato wedges

• Butter chicken

• Pomegranate juice

• Cotton candies

How many of the food products mentioned above were prepared with the unauthorized addition of “Rhodamine B,” a coloring agent?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Explanation:

• Context: Karnataka bans harmful dyes in Gobi Manchurian, cotton candy, imposing imprisonment of up to seven years and fines of up to Rs 10 lakh for violators. Rhodamine B is usually “illegally” added to preparations such as gobhi manchurian, potato wedges, butter chicken, pomegranate juice, ice-creams produced in small scale, or cotton candies.

• Rhodamine B is usually “illegally” added to preparations such as gobhi manchurian, potato wedges, butter chicken, pomegranate juice, ice-creams produced in small scale, or cotton candies.

• Chemicals banned:

Chemical | Description | Colour Produced

Tartrazine | Can induce allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. | Yellow

Sunset Yellow | Can cause allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. | Yellow

Carmoisine | May lead to skin rashes and respiratory allergies. | Red

Rhodamine B | Considered carcinogenic; commonly used in textile dyeing and the paper industry. | Pink

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/karnataka-bans-harmful-dyes/

Explanation:

• Rhodamine B is usually “illegally” added to preparations such as gobhi manchurian, potato wedges, butter chicken, pomegranate juice, ice-creams produced in small scale, or cotton candies.

• Chemicals banned:

Chemical | Description | Colour Produced

Tartrazine | Can induce allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. | Yellow

Sunset Yellow | Can cause allergic or pseudo-allergic reactions. | Yellow

Carmoisine | May lead to skin rashes and respiratory allergies. | Red

Rhodamine B | Considered carcinogenic; commonly used in textile dyeing and the paper industry. | Pink

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/karnataka-bans-harmful-dyes/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Blue Leaders alliance: It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility(GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation. Its primary aim is to spotlight and secure the critical benefits that nature provides to humanity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction took place in Belgium recently. What is the Blue Leaders alliance? It is a coalition of 24 countries advocating for urgent action to address the threats facing the global ocean, including the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other challenges. Key members include Belgium, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Germany, Italy etc. India is not a member, but it endorsed the treaty’s implementation at the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration in 2023 Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/blue-leaders-alliance/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction took place in Belgium recently. What is the Blue Leaders alliance? It is a coalition of 24 countries advocating for urgent action to address the threats facing the global ocean, including the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other challenges. Key members include Belgium, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Germany, Italy etc. India is not a member, but it endorsed the treaty’s implementation at the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration in 2023 Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/blue-leaders-alliance/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Blue Leaders alliance:

• It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility(GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation. Its primary aim is to spotlight and secure the critical benefits that nature provides to humanity.

• It was founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility(GEF), Minderoo Foundation and Rob & Melani Walton Foundation.

• Its primary aim is to spotlight and secure the critical benefits that nature provides to humanity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction took place in Belgium recently.

• What is the Blue Leaders alliance? It is a coalition of 24 countries advocating for urgent action to address the threats facing the global ocean, including the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other challenges. Key members include Belgium, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Germany, Italy etc. India is not a member, but it endorsed the treaty’s implementation at the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration in 2023

• It is a coalition of 24 countries advocating for urgent action to address the threats facing the global ocean, including the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other challenges.

• Key members include Belgium, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Germany, Italy etc. India is not a member, but it endorsed the treaty’s implementation at the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration in 2023

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/blue-leaders-alliance/

Explanation:

• Context: The Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction took place in Belgium recently.

• It is a coalition of 24 countries advocating for urgent action to address the threats facing the global ocean, including the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other challenges.

• Key members include Belgium, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Germany, Italy etc. India is not a member, but it endorsed the treaty’s implementation at the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration in 2023

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/13/blue-leaders-alliance/

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