UPSC Current Affairs Quiz :14 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha Military Landscapes of India, a UNESCO World Heritage Site: The site comprises a network of forts exclusively located within the state of Maharashtra. These forts were primarily developed under the military vision of Shivaji Maharaj and utilized natural topography for defense. The architectural style of these forts is uniform, reflecting a single, centralized Maratha design philosophy. The inscription was granted under UNESCO criteria that recognize both architectural ingenuity and the cultural continuity of a military tradition. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The network of 12 forts includes Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu, in addition to the 11 forts in Maharashtra. This detail is crucial for understanding the geographical spread and influence of the Maratha empire. Statement 2 is correct. The forts reflect Shivaji Maharaj’s military vision and were known for their adaptability and command over diverse terrains, using natural landscapes for protection. This highlights the strategic genius behind their construction. Statement 3 is incorrect. The forts are characterized by adaptive design and were built with local materials and regional architecture. This indicates diversity in style, not uniformity, reflecting pragmatic construction adapted to varied environments (hills, islands, forests). Statement 4 is correct. The site was recognized under UNESCO Criteria (iv) and (vi). Criterion (iv) relates to outstanding examples of architecture or technology, while Criterion (vi) relates to being directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, ideas, or beliefs. This confirms recognition for both architectural and cultural value. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The network of 12 forts includes Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu, in addition to the 11 forts in Maharashtra. This detail is crucial for understanding the geographical spread and influence of the Maratha empire. Statement 2 is correct. The forts reflect Shivaji Maharaj’s military vision and were known for their adaptability and command over diverse terrains, using natural landscapes for protection. This highlights the strategic genius behind their construction. Statement 3 is incorrect. The forts are characterized by adaptive design and were built with local materials and regional architecture. This indicates diversity in style, not uniformity, reflecting pragmatic construction adapted to varied environments (hills, islands, forests). Statement 4 is correct. The site was recognized under UNESCO Criteria (iv) and (vi). Criterion (iv) relates to outstanding examples of architecture or technology, while Criterion (vi) relates to being directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, ideas, or beliefs. This confirms recognition for both architectural and cultural value.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha Military Landscapes of India, a UNESCO World Heritage Site:

• The site comprises a network of forts exclusively located within the state of Maharashtra.

• These forts were primarily developed under the military vision of Shivaji Maharaj and utilized natural topography for defense.

• The architectural style of these forts is uniform, reflecting a single, centralized Maratha design philosophy.

• The inscription was granted under UNESCO criteria that recognize both architectural ingenuity and the cultural continuity of a military tradition.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The network of 12 forts includes Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu, in addition to the 11 forts in Maharashtra. This detail is crucial for understanding the geographical spread and influence of the Maratha empire.

• Statement 2 is correct. The forts reflect Shivaji Maharaj’s military vision and were known for their adaptability and command over diverse terrains, using natural landscapes for protection. This highlights the strategic genius behind their construction.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The forts are characterized by adaptive design and were built with local materials and regional architecture. This indicates diversity in style, not uniformity, reflecting pragmatic construction adapted to varied environments (hills, islands, forests).

• Statement 4 is correct. The site was recognized under UNESCO Criteria (iv) and (vi). Criterion (iv) relates to outstanding examples of architecture or technology, while Criterion (vi) relates to being directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, ideas, or beliefs. This confirms recognition for both architectural and cultural value.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the following Maratha forts with their corresponding geographical feature. Fort Geographical Feature A. Sindhudurg 1. Hill-Forest Fort B. Pratapgad 2. Island Fort C. Gingee 3. Hill Fort Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-3, B-1, C-2 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-2, B-3, C-1 (d) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: D Sindhudurg is an Island Fort, surrounded by the Arabian Sea. Hence, A matches with 2. Pratapgad is classified as a hill-forest fort, integrating both types of terrain for its defense. Hence, B matches with 1. Gingee, located in Tamil Nadu, is a prime example of a Hill Fort, built upon rugged hill terrain. Hence, C matches with 3. Incorrect Solution: D Sindhudurg is an Island Fort, surrounded by the Arabian Sea. Hence, A matches with 2. Pratapgad is classified as a hill-forest fort, integrating both types of terrain for its defense. Hence, B matches with 1. Gingee, located in Tamil Nadu, is a prime example of a Hill Fort, built upon rugged hill terrain. Hence, C matches with 3.

#### 2. Question

Match the following Maratha forts with their corresponding geographical feature.

Fort | Geographical Feature

A. Sindhudurg | 1. Hill-Forest Fort

B. Pratapgad | 2. Island Fort

C. Gingee | 3. Hill Fort

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2

• (c) A-2, B-3, C-1

• (d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: D

• Sindhudurg is an Island Fort, surrounded by the Arabian Sea. Hence, A matches with 2.

• Pratapgad is classified as a hill-forest fort, integrating both types of terrain for its defense. Hence, B matches with 1.

• Gingee, located in Tamil Nadu, is a prime example of a Hill Fort, built upon rugged hill terrain. Hence, C matches with 3.

Solution: D

• Sindhudurg is an Island Fort, surrounded by the Arabian Sea. Hence, A matches with 2.

• Pratapgad is classified as a hill-forest fort, integrating both types of terrain for its defense. Hence, B matches with 1.

• Gingee, located in Tamil Nadu, is a prime example of a Hill Fort, built upon rugged hill terrain. Hence, C matches with 3.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India, consider the following statements: India is the country with the highest number of World Heritage Sites in the Asia-Pacific region. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the sole agency responsible for the management of all World Heritage Sites in India. A site must be on a country’s Tentative List before it can be nominated for inscription as a World Heritage Site. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. India ranks 2nd in the Asia-Pacific region, just behind China. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI is the nodal agency for heritage management and proposals, which implies it plays a central coordinating role. However, it is not the sole agency responsible for all sites. Other bodies, such as state archaeology departments, trusts, and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (for natural sites), are also involved in the management of different sites. Statement 3 is correct. The process of inscription on the World Heritage List requires a site to first be included in the country’s Tentative List. This list is an inventory of properties that a country intends to consider for nomination in the future. This is a fundamental step in the UNESCO nomination process. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. India ranks 2nd in the Asia-Pacific region, just behind China. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI is the nodal agency for heritage management and proposals, which implies it plays a central coordinating role. However, it is not the sole agency responsible for all sites. Other bodies, such as state archaeology departments, trusts, and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (for natural sites), are also involved in the management of different sites. Statement 3 is correct. The process of inscription on the World Heritage List requires a site to first be included in the country’s Tentative List. This list is an inventory of properties that a country intends to consider for nomination in the future. This is a fundamental step in the UNESCO nomination process.

#### 3. Question

With reference to UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India, consider the following statements:

• India is the country with the highest number of World Heritage Sites in the Asia-Pacific region.

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the sole agency responsible for the management of all World Heritage Sites in India.

• A site must be on a country’s Tentative List before it can be nominated for inscription as a World Heritage Site.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. India ranks 2nd in the Asia-Pacific region, just behind China.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI is the nodal agency for heritage management and proposals, which implies it plays a central coordinating role. However, it is not the sole agency responsible for all sites. Other bodies, such as state archaeology departments, trusts, and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (for natural sites), are also involved in the management of different sites.

Statement 3 is correct. The process of inscription on the World Heritage List requires a site to first be included in the country’s Tentative List. This list is an inventory of properties that a country intends to consider for nomination in the future. This is a fundamental step in the UNESCO nomination process.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. India ranks 2nd in the Asia-Pacific region, just behind China.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding recent security operations in India: Statement I: Operation Fire Trail and Operation SHIVA were both launched to counter threats originating from neighbouring countries. Statement II: Operation Fire Trail focused on economic security by curbing illicit trade, while Operation SHIVA addressed physical security for religious tourism. Statement III: Both operations involved multi-agency coordination, including central government bodies and local administration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. Operation Fire Trail targeted banned Chinese firecrackers, an economic threat from a neighbouring country. Operation SHIVA was launched to secure the Amarnath Yatra against threats from Pakistan-backed terror outfits. Both address cross-border challenges. Statement II is also correct. It accurately distinguishes the nature of the two operations. Fire Trail was an anti-smuggling operation led by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to prevent illegal imports, thus protecting economic and environmental interests. SHIVA is a military operation led by the Indian Army to provide physical security to pilgrims, a clear internal security mandate linked to religious tourism. Statement III is correct as well. Fire Trail involved the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence and Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. SHIVA involved the Indian Army, CAPFs, civil administration, and disaster response teams. Both exemplify multi-agency coordination. Both Statement II and III are correct descriptions. However, only Statement II directly explains the nature of the threats in Statement I (economic vs. terror), while Statement III describes the methodology. Therefore, Statement II is the better explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. Operation Fire Trail targeted banned Chinese firecrackers, an economic threat from a neighbouring country. Operation SHIVA was launched to secure the Amarnath Yatra against threats from Pakistan-backed terror outfits. Both address cross-border challenges. Statement II is also correct. It accurately distinguishes the nature of the two operations. Fire Trail was an anti-smuggling operation led by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to prevent illegal imports, thus protecting economic and environmental interests. SHIVA is a military operation led by the Indian Army to provide physical security to pilgrims, a clear internal security mandate linked to religious tourism. Statement III is correct as well. Fire Trail involved the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence and Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. SHIVA involved the Indian Army, CAPFs, civil administration, and disaster response teams. Both exemplify multi-agency coordination. Both Statement II and III are correct descriptions. However, only Statement II directly explains the nature of the threats in Statement I (economic vs. terror), while Statement III describes the methodology. Therefore, Statement II is the better explanation for Statement I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding recent security operations in India:

Statement I: Operation Fire Trail and Operation SHIVA were both launched to counter threats originating from neighbouring countries.

Statement II: Operation Fire Trail focused on economic security by curbing illicit trade, while Operation SHIVA addressed physical security for religious tourism.

Statement III: Both operations involved multi-agency coordination, including central government bodies and local administration.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. Operation Fire Trail targeted banned Chinese firecrackers, an economic threat from a neighbouring country. Operation SHIVA was launched to secure the Amarnath Yatra against threats from Pakistan-backed terror outfits. Both address cross-border challenges.

• Statement II is also correct. It accurately distinguishes the nature of the two operations. Fire Trail was an anti-smuggling operation led by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to prevent illegal imports, thus protecting economic and environmental interests. SHIVA is a military operation led by the Indian Army to provide physical security to pilgrims, a clear internal security mandate linked to religious tourism.

• Statement III is correct as well. Fire Trail involved the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence and Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. SHIVA involved the Indian Army, CAPFs, civil administration, and disaster response teams. Both exemplify multi-agency coordination.

Both Statement II and III are correct descriptions. However, only Statement II directly explains the nature of the threats in Statement I (economic vs. terror), while Statement III describes the methodology. Therefore, Statement II is the better explanation for Statement I.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Sanchar Mitra Scheme: It is a mandatory internship program for all engineering students in India. The scheme’s primary goal is to promote digital literacy and cyber hygiene among the general public. Volunteers in the scheme are trained on emerging technologies like 6G and safety aspects of Electromagnetic Fields radiation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanchar Mitra Scheme is a volunteer-based digital outreach initiative, not a mandatory internship. It leverages university students who are nominated, implying a selective and voluntary process. Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the scheme is to “promote digital literacy and cyber hygiene” and create awareness about telecom safety and cyber fraud prevention. This is its core objective. Statement 3 is correct. The advanced training provided to the “Sanchar Mitras” by the National Communications Academy–Technology (NCA-T) and DoT Media Wing explicitly covers topics including “5G, 6G, AI, cybersecurity, and EMF radiation safety.” Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanchar Mitra Scheme is a volunteer-based digital outreach initiative, not a mandatory internship. It leverages university students who are nominated, implying a selective and voluntary process. Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the scheme is to “promote digital literacy and cyber hygiene” and create awareness about telecom safety and cyber fraud prevention. This is its core objective. Statement 3 is correct. The advanced training provided to the “Sanchar Mitras” by the National Communications Academy–Technology (NCA-T) and DoT Media Wing explicitly covers topics including “5G, 6G, AI, cybersecurity, and EMF radiation safety.”

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Sanchar Mitra Scheme:

• It is a mandatory internship program for all engineering students in India.

• The scheme’s primary goal is to promote digital literacy and cyber hygiene among the general public.

• Volunteers in the scheme are trained on emerging technologies like 6G and safety aspects of Electromagnetic Fields radiation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanchar Mitra Scheme is a volunteer-based digital outreach initiative, not a mandatory internship. It leverages university students who are nominated, implying a selective and voluntary process.

• Statement 2 is correct. The aim of the scheme is to “promote digital literacy and cyber hygiene” and create awareness about telecom safety and cyber fraud prevention. This is its core objective.

• Statement 3 is correct. The advanced training provided to the “Sanchar Mitras” by the National Communications Academy–Technology (NCA-T) and DoT Media Wing explicitly covers topics including “5G, 6G, AI, cybersecurity, and EMF radiation safety.”

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The successful test of the Astra missile with an indigenous Radio Frequency (RF) seeker is a significant milestone for India’s strategic self-reliance in defence. Statement-II: The Astra missile’s capability is limited to engaging targets only within the visual range of the pilot. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The development of a critical technology like an indigenous RF seeker for the Astra missile is a major step towards ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ in Defence. It reduces India’s dependence on foreign suppliers for crucial missile components, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy and saving foreign exchange. This makes it a significant milestone. Statement-II is incorrect. The missile is specifically designed to engage enemy aircraft beyond the pilot’s line-of-sight, with a stated range of over 100 km. This long-range capability is its key tactical advantage. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The development of a critical technology like an indigenous RF seeker for the Astra missile is a major step towards ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ in Defence. It reduces India’s dependence on foreign suppliers for crucial missile components, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy and saving foreign exchange. This makes it a significant milestone. Statement-II is incorrect. The missile is specifically designed to engage enemy aircraft beyond the pilot’s line-of-sight, with a stated range of over 100 km. This long-range capability is its key tactical advantage.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The successful test of the Astra missile with an indigenous Radio Frequency (RF) seeker is a significant milestone for India’s strategic self-reliance in defence.

Statement-II: The Astra missile’s capability is limited to engaging targets only within the visual range of the pilot.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The development of a critical technology like an indigenous RF seeker for the Astra missile is a major step towards ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ in Defence. It reduces India’s dependence on foreign suppliers for crucial missile components, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy and saving foreign exchange. This makes it a significant milestone.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The missile is specifically designed to engage enemy aircraft beyond the pilot’s line-of-sight, with a stated range of over 100 km. This long-range capability is its key tactical advantage.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros: Its horn is a bony structure that is shed annually. The species is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. The primary habitat of this species is arid desert landscapes. The unique keratin layers in its horn, influenced by diet, can be used for genetic fingerprinting. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The rhino horn is not bone and is not shed. It is made of solid, compacted keratin and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered. This is an improvement from its previous ‘Endangered’ status, reflecting successful conservation efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species inhabits tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannas, and riverine floodplains, primarily in northeastern India and Nepal. It is not found in arid deserts. Statement 4 is correct. “Each horn has unique keratin layers influenced by diet and climate, aiding genetic fingerprinting under RhoDIS.” This unique biological marker is a crucial tool for wildlife forensics and anti-poaching initiatives. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The rhino horn is not bone and is not shed. It is made of solid, compacted keratin and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered. This is an improvement from its previous ‘Endangered’ status, reflecting successful conservation efforts. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species inhabits tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannas, and riverine floodplains, primarily in northeastern India and Nepal. It is not found in arid deserts. Statement 4 is correct. “Each horn has unique keratin layers influenced by diet and climate, aiding genetic fingerprinting under RhoDIS.” This unique biological marker is a crucial tool for wildlife forensics and anti-poaching initiatives.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros:

• Its horn is a bony structure that is shed annually.

• The species is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.

• The primary habitat of this species is arid desert landscapes.

• The unique keratin layers in its horn, influenced by diet, can be used for genetic fingerprinting.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The rhino horn is not bone and is not shed. It is made of solid, compacted keratin and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered. This is an improvement from its previous ‘Endangered’ status, reflecting successful conservation efforts.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The species inhabits tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannas, and riverine floodplains, primarily in northeastern India and Nepal. It is not found in arid deserts.

• Statement 4 is correct. “Each horn has unique keratin layers influenced by diet and climate, aiding genetic fingerprinting under RhoDIS.” This unique biological marker is a crucial tool for wildlife forensics and anti-poaching initiatives.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The rhino horn is not bone and is not shed. It is made of solid, compacted keratin and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the seismic vulnerability of Delhi-NCR: Statement I: The seismic risk in Delhi-NCR is primarily due to its location within Seismic Zone IV and its proximity to the tectonically active Himalayan belt. Statement II: The presence of multiple active fault lines, such as the Delhi-Haridwar Ridge and the Sohna Fault, mitigates the seismic risk by releasing crustal stress gradually through frequent, minor tremors. Statement III: The enforcement of the IS-1893 seismic design code has been uniformly and successfully implemented across the region, significantly reducing structural vulnerability. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Only Statement I is correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct. (d) Neither Statement I, nor Statement II, nor Statement III is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. It accurately identifies the two main reasons for Delhi-NCR’s high seismic risk: its classification in Seismic Zone IV (a high-damage risk zone) and its geographical proximity to the Himalayan Frontal Thrust, a highly active plate boundary. Statement II is incorrect. The presence of active fault lines increases the seismic risk; it does not mitigate it. While minor tremors do occur, these faults are capable of accumulating significant stress that can lead to moderate or strong earthquakes. Statement III is incorrect. “Unregulated construction” and “lack of enforcement of IS-1893 seismic design codes” as key factors that elevate the region’s vulnerability. Uniform and successful implementation is the goal, not the current reality. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. It accurately identifies the two main reasons for Delhi-NCR’s high seismic risk: its classification in Seismic Zone IV (a high-damage risk zone) and its geographical proximity to the Himalayan Frontal Thrust, a highly active plate boundary. Statement II is incorrect. The presence of active fault lines increases the seismic risk; it does not mitigate it. While minor tremors do occur, these faults are capable of accumulating significant stress that can lead to moderate or strong earthquakes. Statement III is incorrect. “Unregulated construction” and “lack of enforcement of IS-1893 seismic design codes” as key factors that elevate the region’s vulnerability. Uniform and successful implementation is the goal, not the current reality.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the seismic vulnerability of Delhi-NCR:

Statement I: The seismic risk in Delhi-NCR is primarily due to its location within Seismic Zone IV and its proximity to the tectonically active Himalayan belt.

Statement II: The presence of multiple active fault lines, such as the Delhi-Haridwar Ridge and the Sohna Fault, mitigates the seismic risk by releasing crustal stress gradually through frequent, minor tremors.

Statement III: The enforcement of the IS-1893 seismic design code has been uniformly and successfully implemented across the region, significantly reducing structural vulnerability.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Only Statement I is correct.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

• (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct.

• (d) Neither Statement I, nor Statement II, nor Statement III is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. It accurately identifies the two main reasons for Delhi-NCR’s high seismic risk: its classification in Seismic Zone IV (a high-damage risk zone) and its geographical proximity to the Himalayan Frontal Thrust, a highly active plate boundary.

• Statement II is incorrect. The presence of active fault lines increases the seismic risk; it does not mitigate it. While minor tremors do occur, these faults are capable of accumulating significant stress that can lead to moderate or strong earthquakes.

• Statement III is incorrect. “Unregulated construction” and “lack of enforcement of IS-1893 seismic design codes” as key factors that elevate the region’s vulnerability. Uniform and successful implementation is the goal, not the current reality.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Rhino DNA Index System (RhoDIS) and Operation SHIVA: The establishment of the Rhino DNA Index System (RhoDIS) in Assam is primarily an anti-poaching measure that uses forensic science for wildlife conservation. Operation SHIVA, while a security operation, incorporates significant elements of disaster management and infrastructure preparedness. Both initiatives demonstrate a shift towards using advanced technology (genetic analysis and drone surveillance) to address long-standing national challenges. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. RhoDIS involves the genetic analysis of rhino horns to create a DNA database. This is a classic application of forensic science aimed at tracking the origin of seized horns and prosecuting poachers, thereby aiding wildlife conservation. Statement 2 is correct. Operation SHIVA is not just a counter-terrorism grid. It explicitly includes disaster and infrastructure preparedness, with Army engineers repairing tracks, undertaking landslide mitigation, and pre-positioning rescue equipment. This highlights its multi-faceted nature. Statement 3 is correct. Both initiatives are prime examples of leveraging modern technology. RhoDIS uses genetic fingerprinting. Operation SHIVA employs a “Drone & Air Surveillance Grid” with C-UAS systems, PTZ cameras, and electronic warfare tools. Both represent a technology-driven approach to tackling the challenges of poaching and terrorism/disaster management, respectively. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. RhoDIS involves the genetic analysis of rhino horns to create a DNA database. This is a classic application of forensic science aimed at tracking the origin of seized horns and prosecuting poachers, thereby aiding wildlife conservation. Statement 2 is correct. Operation SHIVA is not just a counter-terrorism grid. It explicitly includes disaster and infrastructure preparedness, with Army engineers repairing tracks, undertaking landslide mitigation, and pre-positioning rescue equipment. This highlights its multi-faceted nature. Statement 3 is correct. Both initiatives are prime examples of leveraging modern technology. RhoDIS uses genetic fingerprinting. Operation SHIVA employs a “Drone & Air Surveillance Grid” with C-UAS systems, PTZ cameras, and electronic warfare tools. Both represent a technology-driven approach to tackling the challenges of poaching and terrorism/disaster management, respectively.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Rhino DNA Index System (RhoDIS) and Operation SHIVA:

• The establishment of the Rhino DNA Index System (RhoDIS) in Assam is primarily an anti-poaching measure that uses forensic science for wildlife conservation.

• Operation SHIVA, while a security operation, incorporates significant elements of disaster management and infrastructure preparedness.

• Both initiatives demonstrate a shift towards using advanced technology (genetic analysis and drone surveillance) to address long-standing national challenges.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. RhoDIS involves the genetic analysis of rhino horns to create a DNA database. This is a classic application of forensic science aimed at tracking the origin of seized horns and prosecuting poachers, thereby aiding wildlife conservation.

• Statement 2 is correct. Operation SHIVA is not just a counter-terrorism grid. It explicitly includes disaster and infrastructure preparedness, with Army engineers repairing tracks, undertaking landslide mitigation, and pre-positioning rescue equipment. This highlights its multi-faceted nature.

• Statement 3 is correct. Both initiatives are prime examples of leveraging modern technology. RhoDIS uses genetic fingerprinting. Operation SHIVA employs a “Drone & Air Surveillance Grid” with C-UAS systems, PTZ cameras, and electronic warfare tools. Both represent a technology-driven approach to tackling the challenges of poaching and terrorism/disaster management, respectively.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical and geographical features of Armenia: Armenia is a landlocked country located in the South Caucasus region. It shares a border with Georgia, Azerbaijan, Iran, and Turkey. The country lies outside the seismically active zones of the Eurasian plate. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Armenia is located in the South Caucasus region of Eurasia and is landlocked, meaning it has no direct access to the sea. Statement 2 is correct. Armenia’s neighbouring countries are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. It also borders the Azerbaijani exclave of Nakhchivan. Statement 3 is incorrect. Armenia lies in a seismically active zone and experiences frequent earthquakes. The devastating Spitak earthquake of 1988 is a prominent example of this high seismic activity. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Armenia is located in the South Caucasus region of Eurasia and is landlocked, meaning it has no direct access to the sea. Statement 2 is correct. Armenia’s neighbouring countries are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. It also borders the Azerbaijani exclave of Nakhchivan. Statement 3 is incorrect. Armenia lies in a seismically active zone and experiences frequent earthquakes. The devastating Spitak earthquake of 1988 is a prominent example of this high seismic activity.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical and geographical features of Armenia:

• Armenia is a landlocked country located in the South Caucasus region.

• It shares a border with Georgia, Azerbaijan, Iran, and Turkey.

• The country lies outside the seismically active zones of the Eurasian plate.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Armenia is located in the South Caucasus region of Eurasia and is landlocked, meaning it has no direct access to the sea.

• Statement 2 is correct. Armenia’s neighbouring countries are Georgia to the north, Azerbaijan to the east, Iran to the south, and Turkey to the west. It also borders the Azerbaijani exclave of Nakhchivan.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Armenia lies in a seismically active zone and experiences frequent earthquakes. The devastating Spitak earthquake of 1988 is a prominent example of this high seismic activity.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Armenia is located in the South Caucasus region of Eurasia and is landlocked, meaning it has no direct access to the sea.

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