UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Privilege Notice can be moved by any Member of Parliament (MP) against another member or even an outsider. Statement-II: Parliamentary privileges are intended to ensure that members can perform their duties without obstruction or intimidation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Parliamentary privileges are fundamental to the functioning of a deliberative democracy. Statement-I is correct; any MP can submit a written notice to the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) alleging a breach of privilege or contempt of the House. This notice can be directed at another member for misleading the House or even at an outsider (such as a journalist or official) for acts that lower the dignity of the Parliament. Statement-II is correct; the very purpose of these privileges—which include freedom of speech (Article 105) and immunity from court proceedings (Article 122)—is to provide a protected environment where legislators can speak and vote freely. Without these protections, members might face legal harassment or physical intimidation, which would obstruct their constitutional duties. Statement-II explains Statement-I because the right to move a Privilege Notice is the procedural mechanism through which these essential protections are enforced. If a member feels that an action (like a misleading statement or obstruction) undermines their ability to function, they use the notice to trigger a parliamentary investigation. Thus, the existence of the notice (procedural right) is a direct consequence of the need to uphold the “special rights and immunities” (substantive right) described in Statement-II. Incorrect Solution: A Parliamentary privileges are fundamental to the functioning of a deliberative democracy. Statement-I is correct; any MP can submit a written notice to the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) alleging a breach of privilege or contempt of the House. This notice can be directed at another member for misleading the House or even at an outsider (such as a journalist or official) for acts that lower the dignity of the Parliament. Statement-II is correct; the very purpose of these privileges—which include freedom of speech (Article 105) and immunity from court proceedings (Article 122)—is to provide a protected environment where legislators can speak and vote freely. Without these protections, members might face legal harassment or physical intimidation, which would obstruct their constitutional duties. Statement-II explains Statement-I because the right to move a Privilege Notice is the procedural mechanism through which these essential protections are enforced. If a member feels that an action (like a misleading statement or obstruction) undermines their ability to function, they use the notice to trigger a parliamentary investigation. Thus, the existence of the notice (procedural right) is a direct consequence of the need to uphold the “special rights and immunities” (substantive right) described in Statement-II.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A Privilege Notice can be moved by any Member of Parliament (MP) against another member or even an outsider.

Statement-II: Parliamentary privileges are intended to ensure that members can perform their duties without obstruction or intimidation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Parliamentary privileges are fundamental to the functioning of a deliberative democracy.

• Statement-I is correct; any MP can submit a written notice to the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) alleging a breach of privilege or contempt of the House. This notice can be directed at another member for misleading the House or even at an outsider (such as a journalist or official) for acts that lower the dignity of the Parliament.

• Statement-II is correct; the very purpose of these privileges—which include freedom of speech (Article 105) and immunity from court proceedings (Article 122)—is to provide a protected environment where legislators can speak and vote freely. Without these protections, members might face legal harassment or physical intimidation, which would obstruct their constitutional duties.

• Statement-II explains Statement-I because the right to move a Privilege Notice is the procedural mechanism through which these essential protections are enforced. If a member feels that an action (like a misleading statement or obstruction) undermines their ability to function, they use the notice to trigger a parliamentary investigation.

• Thus, the existence of the notice (procedural right) is a direct consequence of the need to uphold the “special rights and immunities” (substantive right) described in Statement-II.

Solution: A

• Parliamentary privileges are fundamental to the functioning of a deliberative democracy.

• Thus, the existence of the notice (procedural right) is a direct consequence of the need to uphold the “special rights and immunities” (substantive right) described in Statement-II.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to Dal Lake in Srinagar, consider the following statements: It is a tectonic-glacial lake that forms part of the Jhelum River system through controlled outflows. The lake is divided into four distinct basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin. The “Raad” refers to the iconic houseboats that serve as the primary residence for the lake dwellers. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Dal Lake is a complex urban wetland. Statement 1 is correct; it was formed by tectonic and glacial processes in the Himalayan basin and is hydrologically connected to the Jhelum River. It receives water from mountain streams and drains into the Jhelum through controlled channels. Statement 2 is correct; the lake is not a single open body of water but is divided by causeways into four basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin. This compartmentalization affects water circulation and ecological health. Statement 3 is incorrect because “Raad” does not refer to houseboats; it refers to the floating gardens used for vegetable cultivation. These are unique agricultural mats made of matted vegetation and soil. While houseboats and shikaras are famous features of the lake, they are distinct from the “Raad” system. Incorrect Solution: C Dal Lake is a complex urban wetland. Statement 1 is correct; it was formed by tectonic and glacial processes in the Himalayan basin and is hydrologically connected to the Jhelum River. It receives water from mountain streams and drains into the Jhelum through controlled channels. Statement 2 is correct; the lake is not a single open body of water but is divided by causeways into four basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin. This compartmentalization affects water circulation and ecological health. Statement 3 is incorrect because “Raad” does not refer to houseboats; it refers to the floating gardens used for vegetable cultivation. These are unique agricultural mats made of matted vegetation and soil. While houseboats and shikaras are famous features of the lake, they are distinct from the “Raad” system.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Dal Lake in Srinagar, consider the following statements:

• It is a tectonic-glacial lake that forms part of the Jhelum River system through controlled outflows.

• The lake is divided into four distinct basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin.

• The “Raad” refers to the iconic houseboats that serve as the primary residence for the lake dwellers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Dal Lake is a complex urban wetland.

• Statement 1 is correct; it was formed by tectonic and glacial processes in the Himalayan basin and is hydrologically connected to the Jhelum River. It receives water from mountain streams and drains into the Jhelum through controlled channels.

• Statement 2 is correct; the lake is not a single open body of water but is divided by causeways into four basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin. This compartmentalization affects water circulation and ecological health.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because “Raad” does not refer to houseboats; it refers to the floating gardens used for vegetable cultivation. These are unique agricultural mats made of matted vegetation and soil. While houseboats and shikaras are famous features of the lake, they are distinct from the “Raad” system.

Solution: C

• Dal Lake is a complex urban wetland.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati: He founded the Arya Samaj with the primary objective of returning Hindu society to the original Vedic spirit. His most influential literary work, Satyarth Prakash, emphasizes rational reform and opposes idol worship. He advocated for a merit-based social order and was a vocal supporter of women’s education. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati was a pivotal figure in India’s socio-religious awakening. Statement 1 is correct. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 with the aim of reviving what he considered the pristine Vedic tradition. He rejected later accretions in Hindu practice and advocated a return to the authority of the Vedas. Statement 2 is correct. His seminal work, Satyarth Prakash, lays out his reformist ideas. It emphasizes rational inquiry, monotheism, and strongly criticizes idol worship, ritualism, and social evils such as caste discrimination based solely on birth. Statement 3 is correct. He supported a merit-based varna system determined by qualities and actions rather than heredity. He also championed women’s education and opposed child marriage, widow immolation, and other regressive practices. Incorrect Solution: D Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati was a pivotal figure in India’s socio-religious awakening. Statement 1 is correct. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 with the aim of reviving what he considered the pristine Vedic tradition. He rejected later accretions in Hindu practice and advocated a return to the authority of the Vedas. Statement 2 is correct. His seminal work, Satyarth Prakash, lays out his reformist ideas. It emphasizes rational inquiry, monotheism, and strongly criticizes idol worship, ritualism, and social evils such as caste discrimination based solely on birth. Statement 3 is correct. He supported a merit-based varna system determined by qualities and actions rather than heredity. He also championed women’s education and opposed child marriage, widow immolation, and other regressive practices.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati:

• He founded the Arya Samaj with the primary objective of returning Hindu society to the original Vedic spirit.

• His most influential literary work, Satyarth Prakash, emphasizes rational reform and opposes idol worship.

• He advocated for a merit-based social order and was a vocal supporter of women’s education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati was a pivotal figure in India’s socio-religious awakening.

• Statement 1 is correct. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 with the aim of reviving what he considered the pristine Vedic tradition. He rejected later accretions in Hindu practice and advocated a return to the authority of the Vedas.

• Statement 2 is correct. His seminal work, Satyarth Prakash, lays out his reformist ideas. It emphasizes rational inquiry, monotheism, and strongly criticizes idol worship, ritualism, and social evils such as caste discrimination based solely on birth.

• Statement 3 is correct. He supported a merit-based varna system determined by qualities and actions rather than heredity. He also championed women’s education and opposed child marriage, widow immolation, and other regressive practices.

Solution: D

• Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati was a pivotal figure in India’s socio-religious awakening.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geographical features of Bangladesh: It is home to the Sundarbans, the world’s largest mangrove forest, located in the southeast. The Chittagong Hill Tracts represent a rare hilly region in an otherwise low-lying deltaic country. The country shares land borders with India and Myanmar. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Bangladesh’s geography is defined by its riverine and coastal features. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sundarbans, while the world’s largest mangrove forest, is located in the southwest of the country (bordering India’s West Bengal), not the southeast. The southeast is characterized by the Chittagong region. Statement 2 is correct; the majority of Bangladesh is a low-lying delta less than 30 feet above sea level, but the Chittagong Hill Tracts in the southeast provide a significant topographical contrast with their hilly terrain. Statement 3 is correct; Bangladesh is bordered by India on three sides (West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) and by Myanmar (Burma) in the southeast. To the south, it opens to the Bay of Bengal. The riverine system, dominated by the Padma (Ganges), Jamuna (Brahmaputra), and Meghna, frequently reshapes the landscape, depositing fertile soil but also causing devastating floods. Incorrect Solution: B Bangladesh’s geography is defined by its riverine and coastal features. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sundarbans, while the world’s largest mangrove forest, is located in the southwest of the country (bordering India’s West Bengal), not the southeast. The southeast is characterized by the Chittagong region. Statement 2 is correct; the majority of Bangladesh is a low-lying delta less than 30 feet above sea level, but the Chittagong Hill Tracts in the southeast provide a significant topographical contrast with their hilly terrain. Statement 3 is correct; Bangladesh is bordered by India on three sides (West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) and by Myanmar (Burma) in the southeast. To the south, it opens to the Bay of Bengal. The riverine system, dominated by the Padma (Ganges), Jamuna (Brahmaputra), and Meghna, frequently reshapes the landscape, depositing fertile soil but also causing devastating floods.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geographical features of Bangladesh:

• It is home to the Sundarbans, the world’s largest mangrove forest, located in the southeast.

• The Chittagong Hill Tracts represent a rare hilly region in an otherwise low-lying deltaic country.

• The country shares land borders with India and Myanmar.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Bangladesh’s geography is defined by its riverine and coastal features.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sundarbans, while the world’s largest mangrove forest, is located in the southwest of the country (bordering India’s West Bengal), not the southeast. The southeast is characterized by the Chittagong region.

• Statement 2 is correct; the majority of Bangladesh is a low-lying delta less than 30 feet above sea level, but the Chittagong Hill Tracts in the southeast provide a significant topographical contrast with their hilly terrain.

• Statement 3 is correct; Bangladesh is bordered by India on three sides (West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) and by Myanmar (Burma) in the southeast. To the south, it opens to the Bay of Bengal. The riverine system, dominated by the Padma (Ganges), Jamuna (Brahmaputra), and Meghna, frequently reshapes the landscape, depositing fertile soil but also causing devastating floods.

Solution: B

• Bangladesh’s geography is defined by its riverine and coastal features.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI): CPI measures the change in retail prices of a fixed basket of goods and services and serves as India’s headline inflation indicator. The field collection of price data is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Finance. The new 2024 series includes online prices for flight tickets but excludes regulated prices like railway fares. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A CPI is the primary metric for monetary policy in India. Statement 1 is correct; it tracks the Year-on-Year (YoY) percentage change in the cost of a fixed basket, representing the headline retail inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the data is collected by the Field Operations Division (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not the Ministry of Finance. While MoSPI is the parent ministry, the NSO (National Statistical Office) is the specific executing agency. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 2024 series does include online prices (like flight tickets and OTT), it definitely does not exclude regulated prices. In fact, it specifically uses official government data for railway fares, postal charges, and fuels to ensure precision. The inclusion of more services and items (up to 358) reflects the shift in Indian consumption toward service-oriented spending. The transition to the 2024 base year (from 2012) is a structural update that ensures the index remains a reliable gauge for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government to formulate economic policies in 2026 and beyond. Incorrect Solution: A CPI is the primary metric for monetary policy in India. Statement 1 is correct; it tracks the Year-on-Year (YoY) percentage change in the cost of a fixed basket, representing the headline retail inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the data is collected by the Field Operations Division (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not the Ministry of Finance. While MoSPI is the parent ministry, the NSO (National Statistical Office) is the specific executing agency. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 2024 series does include online prices (like flight tickets and OTT), it definitely does not exclude regulated prices. In fact, it specifically uses official government data for railway fares, postal charges, and fuels to ensure precision. The inclusion of more services and items (up to 358) reflects the shift in Indian consumption toward service-oriented spending. The transition to the 2024 base year (from 2012) is a structural update that ensures the index remains a reliable gauge for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government to formulate economic policies in 2026 and beyond.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI):

• CPI measures the change in retail prices of a fixed basket of goods and services and serves as India’s headline inflation indicator.

• The field collection of price data is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Finance.

• The new 2024 series includes online prices for flight tickets but excludes regulated prices like railway fares.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• CPI is the primary metric for monetary policy in India.

• Statement 1 is correct; it tracks the Year-on-Year (YoY) percentage change in the cost of a fixed basket, representing the headline retail inflation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the data is collected by the Field Operations Division (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not the Ministry of Finance. While MoSPI is the parent ministry, the NSO (National Statistical Office) is the specific executing agency.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 2024 series does include online prices (like flight tickets and OTT), it definitely does not exclude regulated prices. In fact, it specifically uses official government data for railway fares, postal charges, and fuels to ensure precision.

• The inclusion of more services and items (up to 358) reflects the shift in Indian consumption toward service-oriented spending. The transition to the 2024 base year (from 2012) is a structural update that ensures the index remains a reliable gauge for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government to formulate economic policies in 2026 and beyond.

Solution: A

• CPI is the primary metric for monetary policy in India.

• Statement 1 is correct; it tracks the Year-on-Year (YoY) percentage change in the cost of a fixed basket, representing the headline retail inflation.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Arctic amplification is a significant factor in the increasing instability of the polar vortex. Statement II: Faster warming of the Arctic reduces the temperature gradient between the pole and lower latitudes. Statement III: A reduced temperature gradient strengthens the jet stream, preventing cold air from moving south. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct; Arctic amplification (the Arctic warming faster than the rest of the globe) destabilizes the polar vortex. Statement II is also correct and provides the mechanism: the reduced temperature gradient between the cold pole and warmer mid-latitudes weakens the atmospheric forces that keep the vortex stable. However, Statement III is incorrect because a reduced temperature gradient actually weakens the jet stream (not strengthens it), making it wavy and prone to meandering. Since Statement II is correct and explains why the instability mentioned in Statement I occurs, while Statement III is false, option (c) is the correct answer. This atmospheric shift leads to increased weather volatility, causing extreme winter storms even as global average temperatures rise. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct; Arctic amplification (the Arctic warming faster than the rest of the globe) destabilizes the polar vortex. Statement II is also correct and provides the mechanism: the reduced temperature gradient between the cold pole and warmer mid-latitudes weakens the atmospheric forces that keep the vortex stable. However, Statement III is incorrect because a reduced temperature gradient actually weakens the jet stream (not strengthens it), making it wavy and prone to meandering. Since Statement II is correct and explains why the instability mentioned in Statement I occurs, while Statement III is false, option (c) is the correct answer. This atmospheric shift leads to increased weather volatility, causing extreme winter storms even as global average temperatures rise.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Arctic amplification is a significant factor in the increasing instability of the polar vortex.

Statement II: Faster warming of the Arctic reduces the temperature gradient between the pole and lower latitudes.

Statement III: A reduced temperature gradient strengthens the jet stream, preventing cold air from moving south.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct; Arctic amplification (the Arctic warming faster than the rest of the globe) destabilizes the polar vortex.

• Statement II is also correct and provides the mechanism: the reduced temperature gradient between the cold pole and warmer mid-latitudes weakens the atmospheric forces that keep the vortex stable.

• However, Statement III is incorrect because a reduced temperature gradient actually weakens the jet stream (not strengthens it), making it wavy and prone to meandering.

• Since Statement II is correct and explains why the instability mentioned in Statement I occurs, while Statement III is false, option (c) is the correct answer.

• This atmospheric shift leads to increased weather volatility, causing extreme winter storms even as global average temperatures rise.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct; Arctic amplification (the Arctic warming faster than the rest of the globe) destabilizes the polar vortex.

• However, Statement III is incorrect because a reduced temperature gradient actually weakens the jet stream (not strengthens it), making it wavy and prone to meandering.

• Since Statement II is correct and explains why the instability mentioned in Statement I occurs, while Statement III is false, option (c) is the correct answer.

• This atmospheric shift leads to increased weather volatility, causing extreme winter storms even as global average temperatures rise.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the National Commission for Women (NCW): The Commission must consist of at least one member each from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Members must be drawn from diverse fields such as law, trade unionism, and women’s movements. The Chairperson must be a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A According to Section 3 of the NCW Act, 1990, the Commission consists of a Chairperson and five members. A critical legal requirement is the mandatory representation of marginalized communities, specifically that at least one member each must be from the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). The five members are selected from persons of ability and integrity who have had experience in fields like law, administration, education, health, social welfare, or women’s movements. The statement regarding the Chairperson is incorrect. The Act does not mandate that the Chairperson be a retired judge; rather, they should be a person “committed to the cause of women” and is nominated by the Central Government. The NCW plays a pivotal role in grievance redressal and legislative review, recommending amendments to address gaps in existing laws. Incorrect Solution: A According to Section 3 of the NCW Act, 1990, the Commission consists of a Chairperson and five members. A critical legal requirement is the mandatory representation of marginalized communities, specifically that at least one member each must be from the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). The five members are selected from persons of ability and integrity who have had experience in fields like law, administration, education, health, social welfare, or women’s movements. The statement regarding the Chairperson is incorrect. The Act does not mandate that the Chairperson be a retired judge; rather, they should be a person “committed to the cause of women” and is nominated by the Central Government. The NCW plays a pivotal role in grievance redressal and legislative review, recommending amendments to address gaps in existing laws.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the National Commission for Women (NCW):

• The Commission must consist of at least one member each from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

• Members must be drawn from diverse fields such as law, trade unionism, and women’s movements.

• The Chairperson must be a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• According to Section 3 of the NCW Act, 1990, the Commission consists of a Chairperson and five members. A critical legal requirement is the mandatory representation of marginalized communities, specifically that at least one member each must be from the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). The five members are selected from persons of ability and integrity who have had experience in fields like law, administration, education, health, social welfare, or women’s movements.

The statement regarding the Chairperson is incorrect. The Act does not mandate that the Chairperson be a retired judge; rather, they should be a person “committed to the cause of women” and is nominated by the Central Government. The NCW plays a pivotal role in grievance redressal and legislative review, recommending amendments to address gaps in existing laws.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points In the context of solar activity, what is the primary role of “Coronal Holes” in the progression of a Stealth Coronal Mass Ejection (CME)? (a) They act as a shield that prevents the CME from reaching the Earth’s atmosphere. (b) They trigger intense solar flares that make the stealth CME visible to radio telescopes. (c) They absorb the magnetic flux of the CME, rendering it geo-ineffective. (d) They provide high-speed solar wind that can accelerate and guide the CME toward Earth. Correct Solution: D Coronal holes are regions where the Sun’s magnetic field is “open,” allowing plasma to escape into space as high-speed solar wind. In the context of Stealth CMEs, these holes play a crucial role in their travel and eventual impact on Earth. While stealth CMEs themselves are slow-moving and faint, if they originate near a coronal hole, the resultant high-speed streams can “push” or accelerate the CME. This interaction increases the kinetic energy of the CME and helps guide it along the interplanetary magnetic field lines toward Earth. Once the CME reaches Earth, it can trigger geomagnetic storms that disrupt GPS systems, power grids, and satellite communications. The lack of low-coronal signatures means that without monitoring the high-speed winds from coronal holes, these CMEs remain hidden. The study of the March 2023 geomagnetic storm highlighted how these faint eruptions, though seemingly weak at the source, become highly geoeffective due to their interaction with the surrounding solar environment. Incorrect Solution: D Coronal holes are regions where the Sun’s magnetic field is “open,” allowing plasma to escape into space as high-speed solar wind. In the context of Stealth CMEs, these holes play a crucial role in their travel and eventual impact on Earth. While stealth CMEs themselves are slow-moving and faint, if they originate near a coronal hole, the resultant high-speed streams can “push” or accelerate the CME. This interaction increases the kinetic energy of the CME and helps guide it along the interplanetary magnetic field lines toward Earth. Once the CME reaches Earth, it can trigger geomagnetic storms that disrupt GPS systems, power grids, and satellite communications. The lack of low-coronal signatures means that without monitoring the high-speed winds from coronal holes, these CMEs remain hidden. The study of the March 2023 geomagnetic storm highlighted how these faint eruptions, though seemingly weak at the source, become highly geoeffective due to their interaction with the surrounding solar environment.

#### 8. Question

In the context of solar activity, what is the primary role of “Coronal Holes” in the progression of a Stealth Coronal Mass Ejection (CME)?

• (a) They act as a shield that prevents the CME from reaching the Earth’s atmosphere.

• (b) They trigger intense solar flares that make the stealth CME visible to radio telescopes.

• (c) They absorb the magnetic flux of the CME, rendering it geo-ineffective.

• (d) They provide high-speed solar wind that can accelerate and guide the CME toward Earth.

Solution: D

• Coronal holes are regions where the Sun’s magnetic field is “open,” allowing plasma to escape into space as high-speed solar wind. In the context of Stealth CMEs, these holes play a crucial role in their travel and eventual impact on Earth. While stealth CMEs themselves are slow-moving and faint, if they originate near a coronal hole, the resultant high-speed streams can “push” or accelerate the CME.

• This interaction increases the kinetic energy of the CME and helps guide it along the interplanetary magnetic field lines toward Earth. Once the CME reaches Earth, it can trigger geomagnetic storms that disrupt GPS systems, power grids, and satellite communications.

• The lack of low-coronal signatures means that without monitoring the high-speed winds from coronal holes, these CMEs remain hidden.

• The study of the March 2023 geomagnetic storm highlighted how these faint eruptions, though seemingly weak at the source, become highly geoeffective due to their interaction with the surrounding solar environment.

Solution: D

• The lack of low-coronal signatures means that without monitoring the high-speed winds from coronal holes, these CMEs remain hidden.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “Engel’s Law” in the context of India’s revised CPI weights? (a) As income increases, the absolute amount spent on food increases at a faster rate than income. (b) As income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases. (c) As inflation rises, the demand for luxury goods increases proportionally. (d) Lower food prices lead to an increase in the consumption of cereal-based products. Correct Solution: B Engel’s Law is an economic theory stating that as a household’s income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases, even if the total amount spent on food increases. This is because food is a necessity with low income elasticity once basic needs are met. In the context of India’s new CPI series (Base 2023-24), this law explains why the weight of Food and Beverages was cut from ~46% to ~37%. As the Indian economy has grown since 2011-12, average household consumption has shifted. People are now spending a larger share of their budget on non-food items such as housing, education, health, and digital services. By reducing the weight of food, the new CPI becomes less sensitive to weather-driven fluctuations in vegetable or cereal prices, providing a clearer picture of core inflation. Incorrect Solution: B Engel’s Law is an economic theory stating that as a household’s income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases, even if the total amount spent on food increases. This is because food is a necessity with low income elasticity once basic needs are met. In the context of India’s new CPI series (Base 2023-24), this law explains why the weight of Food and Beverages was cut from ~46% to ~37%. As the Indian economy has grown since 2011-12, average household consumption has shifted. People are now spending a larger share of their budget on non-food items such as housing, education, health, and digital services. By reducing the weight of food, the new CPI becomes less sensitive to weather-driven fluctuations in vegetable or cereal prices, providing a clearer picture of core inflation.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following best describes “Engel’s Law” in the context of India’s revised CPI weights?

• (a) As income increases, the absolute amount spent on food increases at a faster rate than income.

• (b) As income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases.

• (c) As inflation rises, the demand for luxury goods increases proportionally.

• (d) Lower food prices lead to an increase in the consumption of cereal-based products.

Solution: B

• Engel’s Law is an economic theory stating that as a household’s income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases, even if the total amount spent on food increases. This is because food is a necessity with low income elasticity once basic needs are met. In the context of India’s new CPI series (Base 2023-24), this law explains why the weight of Food and Beverages was cut from ~46% to ~37%.

As the Indian economy has grown since 2011-12, average household consumption has shifted. People are now spending a larger share of their budget on non-food items such as housing, education, health, and digital services. By reducing the weight of food, the new CPI becomes less sensitive to weather-driven fluctuations in vegetable or cereal prices, providing a clearer picture of core inflation.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme, consider the following statements: It is a mandatory scheme for all existing National Pension System (NPS) subscribers. Partial withdrawals of the subscriber’s own contribution are allowed for medical expenses. The scheme is currently being implemented as a pilot project under the PFRDA’s Regulatory Sandbox. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme is a voluntary initiative, not mandatory, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed to integrate healthcare financing with retirement planning. Statement 2 is correct; subscribers are permitted to make partial withdrawals of up to 25% of their own contributions to cover outpatient (OPD) and inpatient (IPD) medical expenses. Notably, there is no cap on the number of withdrawals, provided a minimum corpus of ₹50,000 has been reached. Statement 3 is also correct. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has launched this as a Proof of Concept (PoC) under its Regulatory Sandbox Framework. This allows for controlled testing of the scheme’s technological and operational feasibility before a national rollout. The scheme aims to reduce out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE), which is a major cause of medical impoverishment in India. It also includes a “Critical Illness Protection” feature where a subscriber can exit prematurely with a 100% lump sum if a single treatment cost exceeds 70% of the corpus. Incorrect Solution: B The NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme is a voluntary initiative, not mandatory, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed to integrate healthcare financing with retirement planning. Statement 2 is correct; subscribers are permitted to make partial withdrawals of up to 25% of their own contributions to cover outpatient (OPD) and inpatient (IPD) medical expenses. Notably, there is no cap on the number of withdrawals, provided a minimum corpus of ₹50,000 has been reached. Statement 3 is also correct. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has launched this as a Proof of Concept (PoC) under its Regulatory Sandbox Framework. This allows for controlled testing of the scheme’s technological and operational feasibility before a national rollout. The scheme aims to reduce out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE), which is a major cause of medical impoverishment in India. It also includes a “Critical Illness Protection” feature where a subscriber can exit prematurely with a 100% lump sum if a single treatment cost exceeds 70% of the corpus.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme, consider the following statements:

• It is a mandatory scheme for all existing National Pension System (NPS) subscribers.

• Partial withdrawals of the subscriber’s own contribution are allowed for medical expenses.

• The scheme is currently being implemented as a pilot project under the PFRDA’s Regulatory Sandbox.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme is a voluntary initiative, not mandatory, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed to integrate healthcare financing with retirement planning.

• Statement 2 is correct; subscribers are permitted to make partial withdrawals of up to 25% of their own contributions to cover outpatient (OPD) and inpatient (IPD) medical expenses. Notably, there is no cap on the number of withdrawals, provided a minimum corpus of ₹50,000 has been reached.

• Statement 3 is also correct. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has launched this as a Proof of Concept (PoC) under its Regulatory Sandbox Framework. This allows for controlled testing of the scheme’s technological and operational feasibility before a national rollout.

• The scheme aims to reduce out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE), which is a major cause of medical impoverishment in India. It also includes a “Critical Illness Protection” feature where a subscriber can exit prematurely with a 100% lump sum if a single treatment cost exceeds 70% of the corpus.

Solution: B

• The NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme is a voluntary initiative, not mandatory, making Statement 1 incorrect. It is designed to integrate healthcare financing with retirement planning.

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