UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 14 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), consider the following statements: The mission only focuses on establishing new ‘greenfield’ semiconductor fabrication plants to attract foreign investment. A key strategic goal of the mission is to develop a skilled workforce by training a substantial number of professionals in the semiconductor domain. The establishment of India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab is one of the projects approved under this mission. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission supports both ‘greenfield’ (new) and ‘brownfield’ (expansion of existing) Statement 2 is correct. A critical component of creating a self-reliant semiconductor ecosystem is human capital. The mission explicitly includes a talent development program with the ambitious goal of training over 60,000 skilled professionals, addressing the need for a specialized workforce in design, manufacturing, and testing. Statement 3 is correct. One of the recently approved projects under the ISM is the establishment of India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab by SiCSem Pvt. Ltd. in Odisha. This is a significant step towards diversifying India’s semiconductor capabilities beyond traditional silicon. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission supports both ‘greenfield’ (new) and ‘brownfield’ (expansion of existing) Statement 2 is correct. A critical component of creating a self-reliant semiconductor ecosystem is human capital. The mission explicitly includes a talent development program with the ambitious goal of training over 60,000 skilled professionals, addressing the need for a specialized workforce in design, manufacturing, and testing. Statement 3 is correct. One of the recently approved projects under the ISM is the establishment of India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab by SiCSem Pvt. Ltd. in Odisha. This is a significant step towards diversifying India’s semiconductor capabilities beyond traditional silicon.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), consider the following statements:

• The mission only focuses on establishing new ‘greenfield’ semiconductor fabrication plants to attract foreign investment.

• A key strategic goal of the mission is to develop a skilled workforce by training a substantial number of professionals in the semiconductor domain.

• The establishment of India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab is one of the projects approved under this mission.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission supports both ‘greenfield’ (new) and ‘brownfield’ (expansion of existing)

• Statement 2 is correct. A critical component of creating a self-reliant semiconductor ecosystem is human capital. The mission explicitly includes a talent development program with the ambitious goal of training over 60,000 skilled professionals, addressing the need for a specialized workforce in design, manufacturing, and testing.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the recently approved projects under the ISM is the establishment of India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab by SiCSem Pvt. Ltd. in Odisha. This is a significant step towards diversifying India’s semiconductor capabilities beyond traditional silicon.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission supports both ‘greenfield’ (new) and ‘brownfield’ (expansion of existing)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most accurate description of Human African Trypanosomiasis? (a) A water-borne bacterial infection primarily affecting urban populations in sub-Saharan Africa, causing severe dehydration. (b) A viral illness transmitted by mosquitoes that leads to chronic fatigue and muscle wastage, commonly known as "wasting sickness". (c) A vector-borne parasitic disease transmitted by the tsetse fly, which is fatal if untreated as it progresses to the central nervous system. (d) An airborne fungal infection endemic to Central Africa that causes respiratory distress and neurological symptoms in its advanced stages. Correct Solution: C Human African Trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is a vector-borne disease. This means it is transmitted by an intermediate organism, in this case, the tsetse fly (Glossina species). The causative agent is not a bacterium or virus, but a protozoan parasite of the species Trypanosoma brucei. The disease progresses in two stages. In the first stage, the parasites are in the bloodstream and lymphatic system. If left untreated, it enters the second, neurological stage by crossing the blood-brain barrier into the central nervous system, causing the characteristic sleep disturbances and other neurological symptoms. This second stage is invariably fatal without treatment. The disease is primarily found in rural areas of sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and fishing are common, not urban centers. Incorrect Solution: C Human African Trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is a vector-borne disease. This means it is transmitted by an intermediate organism, in this case, the tsetse fly (Glossina species). The causative agent is not a bacterium or virus, but a protozoan parasite of the species Trypanosoma brucei. The disease progresses in two stages. In the first stage, the parasites are in the bloodstream and lymphatic system. If left untreated, it enters the second, neurological stage by crossing the blood-brain barrier into the central nervous system, causing the characteristic sleep disturbances and other neurological symptoms. This second stage is invariably fatal without treatment. The disease is primarily found in rural areas of sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and fishing are common, not urban centers.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is the most accurate description of Human African Trypanosomiasis?

• (a) A water-borne bacterial infection primarily affecting urban populations in sub-Saharan Africa, causing severe dehydration.

• (b) A viral illness transmitted by mosquitoes that leads to chronic fatigue and muscle wastage, commonly known as "wasting sickness".

• (c) A vector-borne parasitic disease transmitted by the tsetse fly, which is fatal if untreated as it progresses to the central nervous system.

• (d) An airborne fungal infection endemic to Central Africa that causes respiratory distress and neurological symptoms in its advanced stages.

Solution: C

• Human African Trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is a vector-borne disease. This means it is transmitted by an intermediate organism, in this case, the tsetse fly (Glossina species). The causative agent is not a bacterium or virus, but a protozoan parasite of the species Trypanosoma brucei.

• The disease progresses in two stages. In the first stage, the parasites are in the bloodstream and lymphatic system. If left untreated, it enters the second, neurological stage by crossing the blood-brain barrier into the central nervous system, causing the characteristic sleep disturbances and other neurological symptoms. This second stage is invariably fatal without treatment.

• The disease is primarily found in rural areas of sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and fishing are common, not urban centers.

Solution: C

• The disease is primarily found in rural areas of sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and fishing are common, not urban centers.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan” (NMBA): Statement I: The NMBA is primarily a supply-reduction campaign, coordinated by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to intercept drug trafficking networks. Statement II: The Abhiyaan adopts a targeted approach by focusing its interventions on districts identified as having a high prevalence of substance abuse. Statement III: The implementation of the program relies solely on government agencies, without the involvement of community organizations or NGOs. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only II (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The NMBA follows a three-pronged approach. While supply reduction, led by the NCB, is one component, the primary focus of the Abhiyaan, which is driven by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE), is on demand reduction. This includes awareness campaigns, prevention education, and community outreach. The third prong is treatment and rehabilitation, handled by the Health Department. Statement II is correct. The Abhiyaan is not a generalized, nationwide campaign but employs a targeted strategy. It is implemented in 272 high-risk districts that were specifically identified based on data from national surveys on substance use and inputs from the Narcotics Control Bureau. This allows for focused and more effective utilization of resources. Statement III is incorrect. A key feature of the NMBA is its emphasis on community-based implementation and mass mobilization. The program actively involves a wide range of stakeholders, including youth groups, women’s organizations, and civil society partners like the Art of Living, Brahma Kumaris, and ISKCON, to enhance public awareness and outreach. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The NMBA follows a three-pronged approach. While supply reduction, led by the NCB, is one component, the primary focus of the Abhiyaan, which is driven by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE), is on demand reduction. This includes awareness campaigns, prevention education, and community outreach. The third prong is treatment and rehabilitation, handled by the Health Department. Statement II is correct. The Abhiyaan is not a generalized, nationwide campaign but employs a targeted strategy. It is implemented in 272 high-risk districts that were specifically identified based on data from national surveys on substance use and inputs from the Narcotics Control Bureau. This allows for focused and more effective utilization of resources. Statement III is incorrect. A key feature of the NMBA is its emphasis on community-based implementation and mass mobilization. The program actively involves a wide range of stakeholders, including youth groups, women’s organizations, and civil society partners like the Art of Living, Brahma Kumaris, and ISKCON, to enhance public awareness and outreach.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan” (NMBA):

Statement I: The NMBA is primarily a supply-reduction campaign, coordinated by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to intercept drug trafficking networks.

Statement II: The Abhiyaan adopts a targeted approach by focusing its interventions on districts identified as having a high prevalence of substance abuse.

Statement III: The implementation of the program relies solely on government agencies, without the involvement of community organizations or NGOs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only II

• (b) I and II only

• (c) II and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The NMBA follows a three-pronged approach. While supply reduction, led by the NCB, is one component, the primary focus of the Abhiyaan, which is driven by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE), is on demand reduction. This includes awareness campaigns, prevention education, and community outreach. The third prong is treatment and rehabilitation, handled by the Health Department.

• Statement II is correct. The Abhiyaan is not a generalized, nationwide campaign but employs a targeted strategy. It is implemented in 272 high-risk districts that were specifically identified based on data from national surveys on substance use and inputs from the Narcotics Control Bureau. This allows for focused and more effective utilization of resources.

• Statement III is incorrect. A key feature of the NMBA is its emphasis on community-based implementation and mass mobilization. The program actively involves a wide range of stakeholders, including youth groups, women’s organizations, and civil society partners like the Art of Living, Brahma Kumaris, and ISKCON, to enhance public awareness and outreach.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Rabies: It is a Neglected Tropical Disease that is preventable through timely post-exposure prophylaxis. The primary mode of transmission to humans is through the bite of infected bats. The disease has a very short incubation period, with symptoms always appearing within one week of exposure. Once clinical symptoms manifest, the disease has a high survival rate with intensive medical care. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Rabies is classified by the WHO as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). Despite its severity, it is 100% preventable if Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP), which includes a course of rabies vaccine and, in some cases, Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG), is administered promptly after exposure. Statement 2 is incorrect. While bats and other mammals can carry and transmit rabies, the vast majority of human cases—approximately 99% globally—are caused by the bites or scratches of infected dogs. Dogs are the primary vector for human rabies transmission. Statement 3 is incorrect. The incubation period for rabies is highly variable. While it can be as short as a week, it commonly ranges from 1 to 3 months, and in rare cases, it can be even longer. The time it takes for symptoms to appear depends on factors like the location of the bite and the viral load. Statement 4 is incorrect. Rabies is one of the deadliest infectious diseases. Once clinical symptoms (like hydrophobia or paralysis) appear, the disease is almost invariably fatal. The mortality rate is nearly 100%, and there is no effective treatment at this stage. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Rabies is classified by the WHO as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). Despite its severity, it is 100% preventable if Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP), which includes a course of rabies vaccine and, in some cases, Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG), is administered promptly after exposure. Statement 2 is incorrect. While bats and other mammals can carry and transmit rabies, the vast majority of human cases—approximately 99% globally—are caused by the bites or scratches of infected dogs. Dogs are the primary vector for human rabies transmission. Statement 3 is incorrect. The incubation period for rabies is highly variable. While it can be as short as a week, it commonly ranges from 1 to 3 months, and in rare cases, it can be even longer. The time it takes for symptoms to appear depends on factors like the location of the bite and the viral load. Statement 4 is incorrect. Rabies is one of the deadliest infectious diseases. Once clinical symptoms (like hydrophobia or paralysis) appear, the disease is almost invariably fatal. The mortality rate is nearly 100%, and there is no effective treatment at this stage.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Rabies:

• It is a Neglected Tropical Disease that is preventable through timely post-exposure prophylaxis.

• The primary mode of transmission to humans is through the bite of infected bats.

• The disease has a very short incubation period, with symptoms always appearing within one week of exposure.

• Once clinical symptoms manifest, the disease has a high survival rate with intensive medical care.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Rabies is classified by the WHO as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). Despite its severity, it is 100% preventable if Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP), which includes a course of rabies vaccine and, in some cases, Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG), is administered promptly after exposure.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While bats and other mammals can carry and transmit rabies, the vast majority of human cases—approximately 99% globally—are caused by the bites or scratches of infected dogs. Dogs are the primary vector for human rabies transmission.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The incubation period for rabies is highly variable. While it can be as short as a week, it commonly ranges from 1 to 3 months, and in rare cases, it can be even longer. The time it takes for symptoms to appear depends on factors like the location of the bite and the viral load.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Rabies is one of the deadliest infectious diseases. Once clinical symptoms (like hydrophobia or paralysis) appear, the disease is almost invariably fatal. The mortality rate is nearly 100%, and there is no effective treatment at this stage.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The term ‘Mud Waves’ recently in the news, refers to: (a) A meteorological phenomenon causing dust storms in arid regions near large water bodies. (b) Surface patterns on Mars created by the seasonal flow of liquid brine. (c) A type of seismic wave that travels through the Earth's mantle, indicating volcanic activity. (d) Ancient, large sedimentary bedforms discovered on the ocean floor, created by deep-water currents. Correct Solution: D The term ‘Mud Waves’ refers to large, rhythmic sedimentary bedforms found on the ocean floor. A recent study discovered 117-million-year-old examples buried beneath the Atlantic seabed off the coast of Guinea-Bissau. These structures were not formed by atmospheric or volcanic processes but were created by powerful, persistent bottom currents in the ocean. Specifically, they were formed during the Cretaceous period when dense, saline water from the young North Atlantic spilled into southern basins, triggering massive underwater sediment flows that were then shaped into these wave-like patterns by deep-water currents. These geological features provide valuable insights into historic ocean circulation and paleoclimates. Incorrect Solution: D The term ‘Mud Waves’ refers to large, rhythmic sedimentary bedforms found on the ocean floor. A recent study discovered 117-million-year-old examples buried beneath the Atlantic seabed off the coast of Guinea-Bissau. These structures were not formed by atmospheric or volcanic processes but were created by powerful, persistent bottom currents in the ocean. Specifically, they were formed during the Cretaceous period when dense, saline water from the young North Atlantic spilled into southern basins, triggering massive underwater sediment flows that were then shaped into these wave-like patterns by deep-water currents. These geological features provide valuable insights into historic ocean circulation and paleoclimates.

#### 5. Question

The term ‘Mud Waves’ recently in the news, refers to:

• (a) A meteorological phenomenon causing dust storms in arid regions near large water bodies.

• (b) Surface patterns on Mars created by the seasonal flow of liquid brine.

• (c) A type of seismic wave that travels through the Earth's mantle, indicating volcanic activity.

• (d) Ancient, large sedimentary bedforms discovered on the ocean floor, created by deep-water currents.

Solution: D

• The term ‘Mud Waves’ refers to large, rhythmic sedimentary bedforms found on the ocean floor. A recent study discovered 117-million-year-old examples buried beneath the Atlantic seabed off the coast of Guinea-Bissau.

• These structures were not formed by atmospheric or volcanic processes but were created by powerful, persistent bottom currents in the ocean. Specifically, they were formed during the Cretaceous period when dense, saline water from the young North Atlantic spilled into southern basins, triggering massive underwater sediment flows that were then shaped into these wave-like patterns by deep-water currents. These geological features provide valuable insights into historic ocean circulation and paleoclimates.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the 18th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA): It is a competition specifically for university-level students pursuing degrees in astrophysics. The event is being organized solely by an international body with no collaboration from Indian institutions. The Olympiad’s scope is limited to theoretical examinations and does not include practical or observational tasks. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The IOAA is a premier global competition specifically for high-school students, not university students. Its aim is to encourage and challenge young talent in the fields of astronomy and astrophysics before they enter higher education. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is an international event, the 18th IOAA is being hosted by India, and its organization is a collaborative effort. It is being organized by prominent Indian institutions: the Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE) and the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), in partnership with the Union Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect. The IOAA is designed to be a comprehensive test of a student’s abilities. It features a blend of both theory and practice. The competition includes not only written exams on theoretical knowledge but also tests data analysis skills and practical observational abilities, such as night-sky observations. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The IOAA is a premier global competition specifically for high-school students, not university students. Its aim is to encourage and challenge young talent in the fields of astronomy and astrophysics before they enter higher education. Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is an international event, the 18th IOAA is being hosted by India, and its organization is a collaborative effort. It is being organized by prominent Indian institutions: the Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE) and the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), in partnership with the Union Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect. The IOAA is designed to be a comprehensive test of a student’s abilities. It features a blend of both theory and practice. The competition includes not only written exams on theoretical knowledge but also tests data analysis skills and practical observational abilities, such as night-sky observations.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the 18th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA):

• It is a competition specifically for university-level students pursuing degrees in astrophysics.

• The event is being organized solely by an international body with no collaboration from Indian institutions.

• The Olympiad’s scope is limited to theoretical examinations and does not include practical or observational tasks.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The IOAA is a premier global competition specifically for high-school students, not university students. Its aim is to encourage and challenge young talent in the fields of astronomy and astrophysics before they enter higher education.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While it is an international event, the 18th IOAA is being hosted by India, and its organization is a collaborative effort. It is being organized by prominent Indian institutions: the Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE) and the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), in partnership with the Union Ministry of Education.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The IOAA is designed to be a comprehensive test of a student’s abilities. It features a blend of both theory and practice. The competition includes not only written exams on theoretical knowledge but also tests data analysis skills and practical observational abilities, such as night-sky observations.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The CBSE will introduce Open-Book Assessments (OBE) in Class 9 from 2026–27. In this context, Consider the following statements: Statement I: The primary objective of Open-Book Assessments (OBE) is to reduce the academic burden on students by allowing them to copy answers directly from textbooks. Statement II: OBE is aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020’s vision for competency-based learning. Statement III: The format tests a student’s ability to quickly locate information rather than their conceptual understanding. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Only Statement II is correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct. (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct. (d) None of the statements are correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The primary goal of OBE is not to facilitate copying but to shift the focus from rote memorization to higher-order thinking skills. It is designed to assess a student’s ability to apply knowledge, analyze information, and solve problems, using reference materials as a tool rather than a source for direct answers. Statement II is correct. The introduction of OBE by the CBSE is a deliberate step to align the assessment system with the principles of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The NEP emphasizes moving away from rote learning and towards competency-based education, which prioritizes critical thinking, problem-solving, and the practical application of concepts—all of which are core to the philosophy of Open-Book Assessments. Statement III is incorrect. While the ability to quickly reference materials is helpful, it is not the main skill being tested. The questions in an OBE are typically designed to be application-oriented, requiring students to interpret, connect, and synthesize information from their resources to construct an answer. Success depends more on deep conceptual clarity and analytical skills than on the simple ability to locate facts. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The primary goal of OBE is not to facilitate copying but to shift the focus from rote memorization to higher-order thinking skills. It is designed to assess a student’s ability to apply knowledge, analyze information, and solve problems, using reference materials as a tool rather than a source for direct answers. Statement II is correct. The introduction of OBE by the CBSE is a deliberate step to align the assessment system with the principles of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The NEP emphasizes moving away from rote learning and towards competency-based education, which prioritizes critical thinking, problem-solving, and the practical application of concepts—all of which are core to the philosophy of Open-Book Assessments. Statement III is incorrect. While the ability to quickly reference materials is helpful, it is not the main skill being tested. The questions in an OBE are typically designed to be application-oriented, requiring students to interpret, connect, and synthesize information from their resources to construct an answer. Success depends more on deep conceptual clarity and analytical skills than on the simple ability to locate facts.

#### 7. Question

The CBSE will introduce Open-Book Assessments (OBE) in Class 9 from 2026–27. In this context, Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary objective of Open-Book Assessments (OBE) is to reduce the academic burden on students by allowing them to copy answers directly from textbooks.

Statement II: OBE is aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020’s vision for competency-based learning.

Statement III: The format tests a student’s ability to quickly locate information rather than their conceptual understanding.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Only Statement II is correct.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct.

• (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct.

• (d) None of the statements are correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The primary goal of OBE is not to facilitate copying but to shift the focus from rote memorization to higher-order thinking skills. It is designed to assess a student’s ability to apply knowledge, analyze information, and solve problems, using reference materials as a tool rather than a source for direct answers.

• Statement II is correct. The introduction of OBE by the CBSE is a deliberate step to align the assessment system with the principles of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The NEP emphasizes moving away from rote learning and towards competency-based education, which prioritizes critical thinking, problem-solving, and the practical application of concepts—all of which are core to the philosophy of Open-Book Assessments.

• Statement III is incorrect. While the ability to quickly reference materials is helpful, it is not the main skill being tested. The questions in an OBE are typically designed to be application-oriented, requiring students to interpret, connect, and synthesize information from their resources to construct an answer. Success depends more on deep conceptual clarity and analytical skills than on the simple ability to locate facts.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The establishment of the Union Public Service Commission in 1950 marked the beginning of merit-based recruitment for civil services in India. Statement-II: The Macaulay Reforms introduced the system of open competitive examinations for entry into the Indian Civil Service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The establishment of the Union Public Service Commission in 1950 under the Constitution of India was a continuation and constitutional strengthening of an existing system. The principle of merit-based recruitment through competitive examinations had been introduced much earlier. The Public Service Commission itself was first established in 1926. Therefore, 1950 did not mark the beginning of this system but rather its culmination into a constitutionally-mandated body for the independent Republic of India. Statement-II is correct. The Macaulay Reforms, prompted by the Northcote-Trevelyan Report and enacted through the Charter Act of 1853, were a landmark in the history of Indian civil services. In 1854, these reforms formally ended the patronage-based nomination system of the East India Company and introduced an open competitive examination for recruitment into the Indian Civil Service (ICS), which was held for the first time in London in 1855. This laid the foundation for a meritocratic bureaucracy. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The establishment of the Union Public Service Commission in 1950 under the Constitution of India was a continuation and constitutional strengthening of an existing system. The principle of merit-based recruitment through competitive examinations had been introduced much earlier. The Public Service Commission itself was first established in 1926. Therefore, 1950 did not mark the beginning of this system but rather its culmination into a constitutionally-mandated body for the independent Republic of India. Statement-II is correct. The Macaulay Reforms, prompted by the Northcote-Trevelyan Report and enacted through the Charter Act of 1853, were a landmark in the history of Indian civil services. In 1854, these reforms formally ended the patronage-based nomination system of the East India Company and introduced an open competitive examination for recruitment into the Indian Civil Service (ICS), which was held for the first time in London in 1855. This laid the foundation for a meritocratic bureaucracy.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The establishment of the Union Public Service Commission in 1950 marked the beginning of merit-based recruitment for civil services in India.

Statement-II: The Macaulay Reforms introduced the system of open competitive examinations for entry into the Indian Civil Service.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The establishment of the Union Public Service Commission in 1950 under the Constitution of India was a continuation and constitutional strengthening of an existing system. The principle of merit-based recruitment through competitive examinations had been introduced much earlier. The Public Service Commission itself was first established in 1926. Therefore, 1950 did not mark the beginning of this system but rather its culmination into a constitutionally-mandated body for the independent Republic of India.

Statement-II is correct. The Macaulay Reforms, prompted by the Northcote-Trevelyan Report and enacted through the Charter Act of 1853, were a landmark in the history of Indian civil services. In 1854, these reforms formally ended the patronage-based nomination system of the East India Company and introduced an open competitive examination for recruitment into the Indian Civil Service (ICS), which was held for the first time in London in 1855. This laid the foundation for a meritocratic bureaucracy.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), consider the following statements: It aims to reduce India’s heavy reliance on imported semiconductor chips. The mission includes support for the design ecosystem, targeting startups and MSMEs. Financial incentives under the ISM are available only to domestic companies. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A primary strategic driver for the ISM is to enhance India’s economic and national security by reducing its significant dependence on imported semiconductors. By fostering a domestic manufacturing ecosystem, the mission supports the goal of self-reliance under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Statement 2 is correct. The mission recognizes that a robust ecosystem requires strong design capabilities. Therefore, it includes specific provisions for a Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme that provides financial assistance and infrastructure support to domestic startups, MSMEs, and academic institutions working on semiconductor chip design. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission actively encourages foreign investment and technology collaboration to build the ecosystem. For instance, the approved projects include joint ventures and collaborations with international firms like Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. (UK) and APACT Co. Ltd. (South Korea), indicating that incentives are available to projects with foreign partnership. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A primary strategic driver for the ISM is to enhance India’s economic and national security by reducing its significant dependence on imported semiconductors. By fostering a domestic manufacturing ecosystem, the mission supports the goal of self-reliance under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Statement 2 is correct. The mission recognizes that a robust ecosystem requires strong design capabilities. Therefore, it includes specific provisions for a Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme that provides financial assistance and infrastructure support to domestic startups, MSMEs, and academic institutions working on semiconductor chip design. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission actively encourages foreign investment and technology collaboration to build the ecosystem. For instance, the approved projects include joint ventures and collaborations with international firms like Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. (UK) and APACT Co. Ltd. (South Korea), indicating that incentives are available to projects with foreign partnership.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), consider the following statements:

• It aims to reduce India’s heavy reliance on imported semiconductor chips.

• The mission includes support for the design ecosystem, targeting startups and MSMEs.

• Financial incentives under the ISM are available only to domestic companies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A primary strategic driver for the ISM is to enhance India’s economic and national security by reducing its significant dependence on imported semiconductors. By fostering a domestic manufacturing ecosystem, the mission supports the goal of self-reliance under the Atmanirbhar Bharat

• Statement 2 is correct. The mission recognizes that a robust ecosystem requires strong design capabilities. Therefore, it includes specific provisions for a Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme that provides financial assistance and infrastructure support to domestic startups, MSMEs, and academic institutions working on semiconductor chip design.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The mission actively encourages foreign investment and technology collaboration to build the ecosystem. For instance, the approved projects include joint ventures and collaborations with international firms like Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. (UK) and APACT Co. Ltd. (South Korea), indicating that incentives are available to projects with foreign partnership.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025: It restores the deduction for inter-corporate dividends. It removes the notional rent on vacant property. It introduces an Alternate Minimum Tax on Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, includes several key reforms. Statement 1 is correct as the bill restores the Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends, a measure aimed at providing relief to corporations. Statement 2 is also correct; the bill rationalizes property taxation by removing the concept of notional rent on vacant properties, which was a point of grievance for many taxpayers. Statement 3 is incorrect. The bill actually removes the Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs, providing relief to these entities. The bill’s features are designed to simplify the tax regime and improve the ease of doing business. Key Features of the Revised Bill: Single ‘Tax Year’ Concept:Replaces “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year” with a uniform term to simplify understanding and compliance. Simplified Refund Provisions: Refunds allowed even if ITR is filed after the due date, reducing taxpayer grievances. Corporate & MSME Relief:Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends restored and MSME definition aligned with MSME Act for uniformity. Rationalised Property Taxation:Notional rent on vacant property removed; clear deductions for municipal tax and interest on rented property. Compliance & Governance Reform:Unnecessary provisions removed, CBDT empowered for digital-era rule-making and NIL-TDS option for zero-liability taxpayers. Charitable Trust & LLP Relief:Relaxation in transfer pricing rules and removal of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs. Enhanced Digital Alignment:Structured section numbering, improved terminology, and cross-referencing for easier navigation and reduced ambiguity. Incorrect Solution: B The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, includes several key reforms. Statement 1 is correct as the bill restores the Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends, a measure aimed at providing relief to corporations. Statement 2 is also correct; the bill rationalizes property taxation by removing the concept of notional rent on vacant properties, which was a point of grievance for many taxpayers. Statement 3 is incorrect. The bill actually removes the Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs, providing relief to these entities. The bill’s features are designed to simplify the tax regime and improve the ease of doing business. Key Features of the Revised Bill: Single ‘Tax Year’ Concept:Replaces “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year” with a uniform term to simplify understanding and compliance. Simplified Refund Provisions: Refunds allowed even if ITR is filed after the due date, reducing taxpayer grievances. Corporate & MSME Relief:Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends restored and MSME definition aligned with MSME Act for uniformity. Rationalised Property Taxation:Notional rent on vacant property removed; clear deductions for municipal tax and interest on rented property. Compliance & Governance Reform:Unnecessary provisions removed, CBDT empowered for digital-era rule-making and NIL-TDS option for zero-liability taxpayers. Charitable Trust & LLP Relief:Relaxation in transfer pricing rules and removal of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs. Enhanced Digital Alignment:Structured section numbering, improved terminology, and cross-referencing for easier navigation and reduced ambiguity.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025:

• It restores the deduction for inter-corporate dividends.

• It removes the notional rent on vacant property.

• It introduces an Alternate Minimum Tax on Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, includes several key reforms.

• Statement 1 is correct as the bill restores the Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends, a measure aimed at providing relief to corporations.

• Statement 2 is also correct; the bill rationalizes property taxation by removing the concept of notional rent on vacant properties, which was a point of grievance for many taxpayers.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The bill actually removes the Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs, providing relief to these entities. The bill’s features are designed to simplify the tax regime and improve the ease of doing business.

Key Features of the Revised Bill:

• Single ‘Tax Year’ Concept:Replaces “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year” with a uniform term to simplify understanding and compliance.

• Simplified Refund Provisions: Refunds allowed even if ITR is filed after the due date, reducing taxpayer grievances.

• Corporate & MSME Relief:Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends restored and MSME definition aligned with MSME Act for uniformity.

• Rationalised Property Taxation:Notional rent on vacant property removed; clear deductions for municipal tax and interest on rented property.

• Compliance & Governance Reform:Unnecessary provisions removed, CBDT empowered for digital-era rule-making and NIL-TDS option for zero-liability taxpayers.

• Charitable Trust & LLP Relief:Relaxation in transfer pricing rules and removal of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs.

• Enhanced Digital Alignment:Structured section numbering, improved terminology, and cross-referencing for easier navigation and reduced ambiguity.

Solution: B

• The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, includes several key reforms.

• Statement 1 is correct as the bill restores the Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends, a measure aimed at providing relief to corporations.

• Statement 2 is also correct; the bill rationalizes property taxation by removing the concept of notional rent on vacant properties, which was a point of grievance for many taxpayers.

Key Features of the Revised Bill:

• Single ‘Tax Year’ Concept:Replaces “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year” with a uniform term to simplify understanding and compliance.

• Simplified Refund Provisions: Refunds allowed even if ITR is filed after the due date, reducing taxpayer grievances.

• Corporate & MSME Relief:Rs 80M deduction for inter-corporate dividends restored and MSME definition aligned with MSME Act for uniformity.

• Rationalised Property Taxation:Notional rent on vacant property removed; clear deductions for municipal tax and interest on rented property.

• Compliance & Governance Reform:Unnecessary provisions removed, CBDT empowered for digital-era rule-making and NIL-TDS option for zero-liability taxpayers.

• Charitable Trust & LLP Relief:Relaxation in transfer pricing rules and removal of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLPs.

• Enhanced Digital Alignment:Structured section numbering, improved terminology, and cross-referencing for easier navigation and reduced ambiguity.

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