UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 May 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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⢠Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the administration and economy of the Satavahana Dynasty: The Satavahanas implemented a highly centralized administrative system with minimal autonomy granted to provincial governors. Their economy was predominantly pastoral, with limited development in agriculture or trade. The Satavahanas were pioneers in granting tax-free lands to Buddhist monks and Brahmins, a practice that significantly influenced later Indian feudal patterns. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Satavahana administrative framework had elements of decentralization. They had a three-tier feudatory system (Raja, Mahabhoja, Senapati) ensuring localized governance. Moreover, Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors, blending civil and military administration, particularly in tribal regions. This suggests a degree of delegated authority rather than extreme centralization. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahana economy had a strong agrarian base, particularly in the fertile Krishna-Godavari delta which was a major rice-producing zone. They also had rich mineral resources like iron (Warangal) and gold (Kolar). Furthermore, they thrived through extensive inland and maritime trade routes, as evidenced by their coinage (including ship motifs) and archaeological findings of trade goods. Their economy was thus diverse and not predominantly pastoral. Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahanas are noted for being among the earliest Indian rulers to grant tax-exempt lands (agrahÄras or brahmadeyas) to Brahmins and Buddhist monks. This practice was aimed at promoting religion, education, and agricultural expansion. These land grants, often carrying administrative and judicial immunities, are considered by many historians to be precursors to later Indian feudal developments, as they created intermediaries with rights over land and revenue. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Satavahana administrative framework had elements of decentralization. They had a three-tier feudatory system (Raja, Mahabhoja, Senapati) ensuring localized governance. Moreover, Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors, blending civil and military administration, particularly in tribal regions. This suggests a degree of delegated authority rather than extreme centralization. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahana economy had a strong agrarian base, particularly in the fertile Krishna-Godavari delta which was a major rice-producing zone. They also had rich mineral resources like iron (Warangal) and gold (Kolar). Furthermore, they thrived through extensive inland and maritime trade routes, as evidenced by their coinage (including ship motifs) and archaeological findings of trade goods. Their economy was thus diverse and not predominantly pastoral. Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahanas are noted for being among the earliest Indian rulers to grant tax-exempt lands (agrahÄras or brahmadeyas) to Brahmins and Buddhist monks. This practice was aimed at promoting religion, education, and agricultural expansion. These land grants, often carrying administrative and judicial immunities, are considered by many historians to be precursors to later Indian feudal developments, as they created intermediaries with rights over land and revenue.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the administration and economy of the Satavahana Dynasty:
⢠The Satavahanas implemented a highly centralized administrative system with minimal autonomy granted to provincial governors.
⢠Their economy was predominantly pastoral, with limited development in agriculture or trade.
⢠The Satavahanas were pioneers in granting tax-free lands to Buddhist monks and Brahmins, a practice that significantly influenced later Indian feudal patterns.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
⢠(a) Only one
⢠(b) Only two
⢠(c) All three
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Satavahana administrative framework had elements of decentralization. They had a three-tier feudatory system (Raja, Mahabhoja, Senapati) ensuring localized governance. Moreover, Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors, blending civil and military administration, particularly in tribal regions. This suggests a degree of delegated authority rather than extreme centralization.
⢠Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahana economy had a strong agrarian base, particularly in the fertile Krishna-Godavari delta which was a major rice-producing zone. They also had rich mineral resources like iron (Warangal) and gold (Kolar). Furthermore, they thrived through extensive inland and maritime trade routes, as evidenced by their coinage (including ship motifs) and archaeological findings of trade goods. Their economy was thus diverse and not predominantly pastoral.
⢠Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahanas are noted for being among the earliest Indian rulers to grant tax-exempt lands (agrahÄras or brahmadeyas) to Brahmins and Buddhist monks. This practice was aimed at promoting religion, education, and agricultural expansion. These land grants, often carrying administrative and judicial immunities, are considered by many historians to be precursors to later Indian feudal developments, as they created intermediaries with rights over land and revenue.
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Satavahana administrative framework had elements of decentralization. They had a three-tier feudatory system (Raja, Mahabhoja, Senapati) ensuring localized governance. Moreover, Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors, blending civil and military administration, particularly in tribal regions. This suggests a degree of delegated authority rather than extreme centralization.
⢠Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahana economy had a strong agrarian base, particularly in the fertile Krishna-Godavari delta which was a major rice-producing zone. They also had rich mineral resources like iron (Warangal) and gold (Kolar). Furthermore, they thrived through extensive inland and maritime trade routes, as evidenced by their coinage (including ship motifs) and archaeological findings of trade goods. Their economy was thus diverse and not predominantly pastoral.
⢠Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahanas are noted for being among the earliest Indian rulers to grant tax-exempt lands (agrahÄras or brahmadeyas) to Brahmins and Buddhist monks. This practice was aimed at promoting religion, education, and agricultural expansion. These land grants, often carrying administrative and judicial immunities, are considered by many historians to be precursors to later Indian feudal developments, as they created intermediaries with rights over land and revenue.
⢠Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics. Statement-I: The classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into Saririka, Paribhogika, and Uddesika types encompasses all forms of revered items associated with his life and teachings. Statement-II: Saririka relics, being direct physical remains, are considered the most sacred and are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The traditional classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into three categories â Saririka (physical remains like bones, teeth), Paribhogika (objects used by Buddha like his robe or bowl), and Uddesika (symbols representing Buddha like stupas, images) â is a comprehensive system that covers the various types of revered items associated with his life, presence, and teachings. These categories help in understanding the different forms of veneration. Statement-II is incorrect. While Saririka relics are indeed highly sacred as they are direct physical remains of the Buddha, the assertion that they are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka is inaccurate. Many Saririka relics are enshrined in stupas built at different times by various patrons and communities across the Buddhist world, not just those by Ashoka. Moreover, some important relics are housed in temples and monasteries, such as the Tooth Relic in Kandy, Sri Lanka. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The traditional classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into three categories â Saririka (physical remains like bones, teeth), Paribhogika (objects used by Buddha like his robe or bowl), and Uddesika (symbols representing Buddha like stupas, images) â is a comprehensive system that covers the various types of revered items associated with his life, presence, and teachings. These categories help in understanding the different forms of veneration. Statement-II is incorrect. While Saririka relics are indeed highly sacred as they are direct physical remains of the Buddha, the assertion that they are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka is inaccurate. Many Saririka relics are enshrined in stupas built at different times by various patrons and communities across the Buddhist world, not just those by Ashoka. Moreover, some important relics are housed in temples and monasteries, such as the Tooth Relic in Kandy, Sri Lanka.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics.
Statement-I: The classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into Saririka, Paribhogika, and Uddesika types encompasses all forms of revered items associated with his life and teachings.
Statement-II: Saririka relics, being direct physical remains, are considered the most sacred and are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
⢠(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
⢠(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.
⢠(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
⢠(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. The traditional classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into three categories â Saririka (physical remains like bones, teeth), Paribhogika (objects used by Buddha like his robe or bowl), and Uddesika (symbols representing Buddha like stupas, images) â is a comprehensive system that covers the various types of revered items associated with his life, presence, and teachings. These categories help in understanding the different forms of veneration.
Statement-II is incorrect. While Saririka relics are indeed highly sacred as they are direct physical remains of the Buddha, the assertion that they are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka is inaccurate. Many Saririka relics are enshrined in stupas built at different times by various patrons and communities across the Buddhist world, not just those by Ashoka. Moreover, some important relics are housed in temples and monasteries, such as the Tooth Relic in Kandy, Sri Lanka.
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. The traditional classification of Lord Buddhaâs relics into three categories â Saririka (physical remains like bones, teeth), Paribhogika (objects used by Buddha like his robe or bowl), and Uddesika (symbols representing Buddha like stupas, images) â is a comprehensive system that covers the various types of revered items associated with his life, presence, and teachings. These categories help in understanding the different forms of veneration.
Statement-II is incorrect. While Saririka relics are indeed highly sacred as they are direct physical remains of the Buddha, the assertion that they are exclusively housed in stupas constructed by Emperor Ashoka is inaccurate. Many Saririka relics are enshrined in stupas built at different times by various patrons and communities across the Buddhist world, not just those by Ashoka. Moreover, some important relics are housed in temples and monasteries, such as the Tooth Relic in Kandy, Sri Lanka.
⢠Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): The NHRC can only inquire into human rights violations if a formal petition is filed by the victim or on their behalf. The ex-officio members of the NHRC include the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Women. The NHRC has the power to award monetary compensation to victims of human rights violations, which is directly enforceable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The NHRC has the power to inquire into complaints of human rights violations or negligence by public servants suo motu (on its own initiative) or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf. It is not restricted to acting only upon formal petitions. Statement 2 is correct. The composition of the NHRC includes ex-officio members, who are the Chairpersons of various National Commissions. These include the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Backward Classes, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the NHRC can recommend relief or compensation to victims of human rights violations, its recommendations are not legally binding and are not directly enforceable as a court decree. It can recommend to the concerned government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages, but it does not have the power to award it directly in an enforceable manner. The government has to act upon these recommendations. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The NHRC has the power to inquire into complaints of human rights violations or negligence by public servants suo motu (on its own initiative) or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf. It is not restricted to acting only upon formal petitions. Statement 2 is correct. The composition of the NHRC includes ex-officio members, who are the Chairpersons of various National Commissions. These include the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Backward Classes, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the NHRC can recommend relief or compensation to victims of human rights violations, its recommendations are not legally binding and are not directly enforceable as a court decree. It can recommend to the concerned government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages, but it does not have the power to award it directly in an enforceable manner. The government has to act upon these recommendations.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
⢠The NHRC can only inquire into human rights violations if a formal petition is filed by the victim or on their behalf.
⢠The ex-officio members of the NHRC include the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Women.
⢠The NHRC has the power to award monetary compensation to victims of human rights violations, which is directly enforceable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
⢠(a) 1 and 2 only
⢠(b) 2 only
⢠(c) 2 and 3 only
⢠(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The NHRC has the power to inquire into complaints of human rights violations or negligence by public servants suo motu (on its own initiative) or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf. It is not restricted to acting only upon formal petitions.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The composition of the NHRC includes ex-officio members, who are the Chairpersons of various National Commissions. These include the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Backward Classes, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. While the NHRC can recommend relief or compensation to victims of human rights violations, its recommendations are not legally binding and are not directly enforceable as a court decree. It can recommend to the concerned government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages, but it does not have the power to award it directly in an enforceable manner. The government has to act upon these recommendations.
Solution: b)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The NHRC has the power to inquire into complaints of human rights violations or negligence by public servants suo motu (on its own initiative) or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf. It is not restricted to acting only upon formal petitions.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The composition of the NHRC includes ex-officio members, who are the Chairpersons of various National Commissions. These include the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Backward Classes, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. While the NHRC can recommend relief or compensation to victims of human rights violations, its recommendations are not legally binding and are not directly enforceable as a court decree. It can recommend to the concerned government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages, but it does not have the power to award it directly in an enforceable manner. The government has to act upon these recommendations.
⢠Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following represents the most significant strategic advantage of DRDOâs recently tested Stratospheric Airship Platform compared to traditional surveillance satellites? (a) Its ability to achieve significantly higher altitudes for broader Earth observation coverage. (b) Its complete invulnerability to anti-satellite weaponry due to its non-orbital nature. (c) Its primary reliance on conventional jet propulsion for rapid deployment and maneuverability across vast distances. (d) Its capacity for persistent, geostationary-like surveillance over a specific area of interest for extended durations with greater flexibility and lower cost. Correct Solution: d) Stratospheric airships can wait over a specific area for extended periods (weeks or even months), providing persistent surveillance similar to a geostationary satellite but with greater flexibility for repositioning and at a potentially lower operational cost. This âpseudo-satelliteâ capability allows for continuous monitoring, which is a distinct advantage over orbiting satellites that have fixed revisit times for a given location (unless geostationary, which are very high and expensive). Incorrect Solution: d) Stratospheric airships can wait over a specific area for extended periods (weeks or even months), providing persistent surveillance similar to a geostationary satellite but with greater flexibility for repositioning and at a potentially lower operational cost. This âpseudo-satelliteâ capability allows for continuous monitoring, which is a distinct advantage over orbiting satellites that have fixed revisit times for a given location (unless geostationary, which are very high and expensive).
#### 4. Question
Which one of the following represents the most significant strategic advantage of DRDOâs recently tested Stratospheric Airship Platform compared to traditional surveillance satellites?
⢠(a) Its ability to achieve significantly higher altitudes for broader Earth observation coverage.
⢠(b) Its complete invulnerability to anti-satellite weaponry due to its non-orbital nature.
⢠(c) Its primary reliance on conventional jet propulsion for rapid deployment and maneuverability across vast distances.
⢠(d) Its capacity for persistent, geostationary-like surveillance over a specific area of interest for extended durations with greater flexibility and lower cost.
Solution: d)
Stratospheric airships can wait over a specific area for extended periods (weeks or even months), providing persistent surveillance similar to a geostationary satellite but with greater flexibility for repositioning and at a potentially lower operational cost. This âpseudo-satelliteâ capability allows for continuous monitoring, which is a distinct advantage over orbiting satellites that have fixed revisit times for a given location (unless geostationary, which are very high and expensive).
Solution: d)
Stratospheric airships can wait over a specific area for extended periods (weeks or even months), providing persistent surveillance similar to a geostationary satellite but with greater flexibility for repositioning and at a potentially lower operational cost. This âpseudo-satelliteâ capability allows for continuous monitoring, which is a distinct advantage over orbiting satellites that have fixed revisit times for a given location (unless geostationary, which are very high and expensive).
⢠Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, notified by the National Biodiversity Authority of India: All commercial users of biological resources, irrespective of their annual turnover, are mandated to share a minimum of 0.5% of their annual gross ex-factory sale price as benefits. The regulations provide exemption from benefit sharing for industries using cultivated medicinal plants and for AYUSH practitioners. For biological resources of high conservation or economic value, such as red sanders and sandalwood, the benefit sharing shall not be less than 5% of the auction proceeds or sale amount, and can extend beyond 20% for commercial use. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, establish turnover-based slabs for benefit sharing. Users with an annual turnover of up to Rs 5 crore are exempt from benefit sharing. For those with turnover between Rs 5 crore and Rs 50 crore, the sharing is 0.2%; for Rs 50-250 crore, itâs 0.4%; and above Rs 250 crore, itâs 0.6% of the annual gross ex-factory sale price. There is no flat 0.5% minimum for all users. Statement 2 is correct. The regulations, aligning with the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempt users of cultivated medicinal plants from benefit sharing obligations. The amendments also aimed to ease compliance for AYUSH practitioners. About Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations 2025: These are updated rules under the Biological Diversity Act, aimed at ensuring that usersâespecially industriesâshare a part of their economic benefits with local communities and biodiversity conservers. This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Key Provisions Turnover-Based Slabs for Benefit Sharing: âš0â5 crore: No sharing âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover âš50â250 crore: 0.4% Above âš250 crore: 0.6% Mandatory Reporting: Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage. Cultivated Plant Exemption: Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023. High-Value Species Clause: For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more. Digital Sequence Information (DSI): Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines. IPR and Research Use: Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms. Revenue Utilization: 10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, establish turnover-based slabs for benefit sharing. Users with an annual turnover of up to Rs 5 crore are exempt from benefit sharing. For those with turnover between Rs 5 crore and Rs 50 crore, the sharing is 0.2%; for Rs 50-250 crore, itâs 0.4%; and above Rs 250 crore, itâs 0.6% of the annual gross ex-factory sale price. There is no flat 0.5% minimum for all users. Statement 2 is correct. The regulations, aligning with the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempt users of cultivated medicinal plants from benefit sharing obligations. The amendments also aimed to ease compliance for AYUSH practitioners. About Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations 2025: These are updated rules under the Biological Diversity Act, aimed at ensuring that usersâespecially industriesâshare a part of their economic benefits with local communities and biodiversity conservers. This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Key Provisions Turnover-Based Slabs for Benefit Sharing: âš0â5 crore: No sharing âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover âš50â250 crore: 0.4% Above âš250 crore: 0.6% Mandatory Reporting: Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage. Cultivated Plant Exemption: Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023. High-Value Species Clause: For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more. Digital Sequence Information (DSI): Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines. IPR and Research Use: Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms. Revenue Utilization: 10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, notified by the National Biodiversity Authority of India:
⢠All commercial users of biological resources, irrespective of their annual turnover, are mandated to share a minimum of 0.5% of their annual gross ex-factory sale price as benefits.
⢠The regulations provide exemption from benefit sharing for industries using cultivated medicinal plants and for AYUSH practitioners.
⢠For biological resources of high conservation or economic value, such as red sanders and sandalwood, the benefit sharing shall not be less than 5% of the auction proceeds or sale amount, and can extend beyond 20% for commercial use.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
⢠(a) 1 only
⢠(b) 2 only
⢠(c) Both 1 and 2
⢠(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, establish turnover-based slabs for benefit sharing. Users with an annual turnover of up to Rs 5 crore are exempt from benefit sharing. For those with turnover between Rs 5 crore and Rs 50 crore, the sharing is 0.2%; for Rs 50-250 crore, itâs 0.4%; and above Rs 250 crore, itâs 0.6% of the annual gross ex-factory sale price. There is no flat 0.5% minimum for all users.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The regulations, aligning with the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempt users of cultivated medicinal plants from benefit sharing obligations. The amendments also aimed to ease compliance for AYUSH practitioners.
About Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations 2025:
⢠These are updated rules under the Biological Diversity Act, aimed at ensuring that usersâespecially industriesâshare a part of their economic benefits with local communities and biodiversity conservers. This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)
⢠This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)
Key Provisions
⢠Turnover-Based Slabs for Benefit Sharing: âš0â5 crore: No sharing âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover âš50â250 crore: 0.4% Above âš250 crore: 0.6%
⢠âš0â5 crore: No sharing
⢠âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover
⢠âš50â250 crore: 0.4%
⢠Above âš250 crore: 0.6%
⢠Mandatory Reporting: Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage.
⢠Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage.
⢠Cultivated Plant Exemption: Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023.
⢠Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023.
⢠High-Value Species Clause: For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more.
⢠For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more.
⢠Digital Sequence Information (DSI): Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines.
⢠Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines.
⢠IPR and Research Use: Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms.
⢠Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms.
⢠Revenue Utilization: 10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities.
⢠10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities.
Solution: b)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations, 2025, establish turnover-based slabs for benefit sharing. Users with an annual turnover of up to Rs 5 crore are exempt from benefit sharing. For those with turnover between Rs 5 crore and Rs 50 crore, the sharing is 0.2%; for Rs 50-250 crore, itâs 0.4%; and above Rs 250 crore, itâs 0.6% of the annual gross ex-factory sale price. There is no flat 0.5% minimum for all users.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The regulations, aligning with the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempt users of cultivated medicinal plants from benefit sharing obligations. The amendments also aimed to ease compliance for AYUSH practitioners.
About Biodiversity Benefit Sharing Regulations 2025:
⢠These are updated rules under the Biological Diversity Act, aimed at ensuring that usersâespecially industriesâshare a part of their economic benefits with local communities and biodiversity conservers. This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)
⢠This aligns India with global Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)
Key Provisions
⢠Turnover-Based Slabs for Benefit Sharing: âš0â5 crore: No sharing âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover âš50â250 crore: 0.4% Above âš250 crore: 0.6%
⢠âš0â5 crore: No sharing
⢠âš5â50 crore: 0.2% of ex-factory turnover
⢠âš50â250 crore: 0.4%
⢠Above âš250 crore: 0.6%
⢠Mandatory Reporting: Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage.
⢠Firms with turnover over âš1 crore must disclose annual biodiversity usage.
⢠Cultivated Plant Exemption: Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023.
⢠Medicinal plant cultivators exempted from sharing benefitsâaligns with Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act 2023.
⢠High-Value Species Clause: For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more.
⢠For species like red sanders, sandalwood, agarwood, minimum benefit sharing is 5%, extendable to 20% or more.
⢠Digital Sequence Information (DSI): Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines.
⢠Now covered under the benefit-sharing regimeâcritical update from the 2014 guidelines.
⢠IPR and Research Use: Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms.
⢠Researchers and IPR applicants must comply with benefit-sharing norms.
⢠Revenue Utilization: 10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities.
⢠10â15% retained by National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); remainder to benefit claimant communities.
⢠Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India initiative: The Khelo India Scheme was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation in sports and promotion of excellence. One of the key components of the Khelo India Scheme is the âFit India Movementâ. Athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for an annual scholarship that includes an out-of-pocket allowance and support for training and diet. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The âKhelo India â National Programme for Development of Sportsâ was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation and promotion of excellence across the country. The scheme has been revised and extended for five years, from 2021-22 to 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct. The Khelo India Scheme (2021-22 to 2025-26) comprises five components: Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure, Sports Competitions and Talent Development, Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies, Fit India Movement, and Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports. Statement 3 is correct. Talented athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for annual financial assistance/scholarship. For instance, selected Khelo India Athletes receive an out-of-pocket allowance (e.g., âš1,20,000 per annum) and additional support (e.g., âš5 lakh per annum) towards training, equipment, diet, and education. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The âKhelo India â National Programme for Development of Sportsâ was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation and promotion of excellence across the country. The scheme has been revised and extended for five years, from 2021-22 to 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct. The Khelo India Scheme (2021-22 to 2025-26) comprises five components: Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure, Sports Competitions and Talent Development, Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies, Fit India Movement, and Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports. Statement 3 is correct. Talented athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for annual financial assistance/scholarship. For instance, selected Khelo India Athletes receive an out-of-pocket allowance (e.g., âš1,20,000 per annum) and additional support (e.g., âš5 lakh per annum) towards training, equipment, diet, and education. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India initiative:
⢠The Khelo India Scheme was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation in sports and promotion of excellence.
⢠One of the key components of the Khelo India Scheme is the âFit India Movementâ.
⢠Athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for an annual scholarship that includes an out-of-pocket allowance and support for training and diet.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
⢠(a) Only one
⢠(b) Only two
⢠(c) All three
Solution: c)
⢠Statement 1 is correct. The âKhelo India â National Programme for Development of Sportsâ was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation and promotion of excellence across the country. The scheme has been revised and extended for five years, from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The Khelo India Scheme (2021-22 to 2025-26) comprises five components: Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure, Sports Competitions and Talent Development, Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies, Fit India Movement, and Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports.
⢠Statement 3 is correct. Talented athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for annual financial assistance/scholarship. For instance, selected Khelo India Athletes receive an out-of-pocket allowance (e.g., âš1,20,000 per annum) and additional support (e.g., âš5 lakh per annum) towards training, equipment, diet, and education. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Solution: c)
⢠Statement 1 is correct. The âKhelo India â National Programme for Development of Sportsâ was launched with the twin objectives of mass participation and promotion of excellence across the country. The scheme has been revised and extended for five years, from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. The Khelo India Scheme (2021-22 to 2025-26) comprises five components: Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure, Sports Competitions and Talent Development, Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies, Fit India Movement, and Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports.
⢠Statement 3 is correct. Talented athletes identified under the Khelo India Scheme are eligible for annual financial assistance/scholarship. For instance, selected Khelo India Athletes receive an out-of-pocket allowance (e.g., âš1,20,000 per annum) and additional support (e.g., âš5 lakh per annum) towards training, equipment, diet, and education. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
⢠Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points One of the significant intended benefits of the Election Commission of Indiaâs ECINET platform is to: (a) Enable online voting for all eligible citizens during general elections. (b) Provide a dedicated e-commerce portal for the sale of election-related merchandise. (c) Alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple Election Commission of India (ECI) applications by offering a singular, integrated interface. (d) Replace the physical verification process of electors by Booth Level Officers with an entirely AI-driven authentication system. Correct Solution: c) The ECINET platform is designed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) as a new user-friendly digital interface. A key benefit is to integrate and reorient over 40 of ECIâs existing mobile and web applications into a single platform. This move is specifically designed to alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple applications and remembering different logins, thereby simplifying access to electoral services and information. Incorrect Solution: c) The ECINET platform is designed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) as a new user-friendly digital interface. A key benefit is to integrate and reorient over 40 of ECIâs existing mobile and web applications into a single platform. This move is specifically designed to alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple applications and remembering different logins, thereby simplifying access to electoral services and information.
#### 7. Question
One of the significant intended benefits of the Election Commission of Indiaâs ECINET platform is to:
⢠(a) Enable online voting for all eligible citizens during general elections.
⢠(b) Provide a dedicated e-commerce portal for the sale of election-related merchandise.
⢠(c) Alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple Election Commission of India (ECI) applications by offering a singular, integrated interface.
⢠(d) Replace the physical verification process of electors by Booth Level Officers with an entirely AI-driven authentication system.
Solution: c)
The ECINET platform is designed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) as a new user-friendly digital interface. A key benefit is to integrate and reorient over 40 of ECIâs existing mobile and web applications into a single platform. This move is specifically designed to alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple applications and remembering different logins, thereby simplifying access to electoral services and information.
Solution: c)
The ECINET platform is designed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) as a new user-friendly digital interface. A key benefit is to integrate and reorient over 40 of ECIâs existing mobile and web applications into a single platform. This move is specifically designed to alleviate the burden on users from downloading and navigating multiple applications and remembering different logins, thereby simplifying access to electoral services and information.
⢠Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to Vikramaditya I of the Badami Chalukyas, consider the following statements: He was the founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty and is credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna. Vikramaditya I successfully reclaimed Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas. His reign was marked by a policy of religious intolerance, primarily promoting Shaivism and suppressing Jain establishments. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty was Pulakesin I (543â566 CE), not Vikramaditya I. Pulakesin I is also the one credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna. Vikramaditya I was the son of Pulakesin II. Statement 2 is correct. Vikramaditya I (644â681 CE) is renowned for reclaiming Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas. The Pallava king Narasimhavarman I had captured Badami after defeating Pulakesin II. Vikramaditya Iâs military campaigns were crucial in restoring Chalukya power and reunifying their fractured empire. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Badami Chalukyas, including Vikramaditya I, generally supported various religious faiths including Shaivism, Vaishnavism, Shaktism, and Jainism. Vikramaditya I and other rulers are known to have made donations to Jain establishments, indicating a policy of religious tolerance rather than suppression. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty was Pulakesin I (543â566 CE), not Vikramaditya I. Pulakesin I is also the one credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna. Vikramaditya I was the son of Pulakesin II. Statement 2 is correct. Vikramaditya I (644â681 CE) is renowned for reclaiming Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas. The Pallava king Narasimhavarman I had captured Badami after defeating Pulakesin II. Vikramaditya Iâs military campaigns were crucial in restoring Chalukya power and reunifying their fractured empire. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Badami Chalukyas, including Vikramaditya I, generally supported various religious faiths including Shaivism, Vaishnavism, Shaktism, and Jainism. Vikramaditya I and other rulers are known to have made donations to Jain establishments, indicating a policy of religious tolerance rather than suppression.
#### 8. Question
With reference to Vikramaditya I of the Badami Chalukyas, consider the following statements:
⢠He was the founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty and is credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna.
⢠Vikramaditya I successfully reclaimed Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas.
⢠His reign was marked by a policy of religious intolerance, primarily promoting Shaivism and suppressing Jain establishments.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
⢠(a) Only one
⢠(b) Only two
⢠(c) All three
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty was Pulakesin I (543â566 CE), not Vikramaditya I. Pulakesin I is also the one credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna. Vikramaditya I was the son of Pulakesin II.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. Vikramaditya I (644â681 CE) is renowned for reclaiming Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas. The Pallava king Narasimhavarman I had captured Badami after defeating Pulakesin II. Vikramaditya Iâs military campaigns were crucial in restoring Chalukya power and reunifying their fractured empire.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. The Badami Chalukyas, including Vikramaditya I, generally supported various religious faiths including Shaivism, Vaishnavism, Shaktism, and Jainism. Vikramaditya I and other rulers are known to have made donations to Jain establishments, indicating a policy of religious tolerance rather than suppression.
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The founder of the Badami Chalukya dynasty was Pulakesin I (543â566 CE), not Vikramaditya I. Pulakesin I is also the one credited with performing the Ashvamedha Yajna. Vikramaditya I was the son of Pulakesin II.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. Vikramaditya I (644â681 CE) is renowned for reclaiming Vatapi (Badami) from the Pallavas. The Pallava king Narasimhavarman I had captured Badami after defeating Pulakesin II. Vikramaditya Iâs military campaigns were crucial in restoring Chalukya power and reunifying their fractured empire.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. The Badami Chalukyas, including Vikramaditya I, generally supported various religious faiths including Shaivism, Vaishnavism, Shaktism, and Jainism. Vikramaditya I and other rulers are known to have made donations to Jain establishments, indicating a policy of religious tolerance rather than suppression.
⢠Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Aadhaar-based Face Authentication recently tested during NEET-UG 2025: The technology relies on a standalone facial recognition software developed by the National Testing Agency (NTA) without using the UIDAIâs Aadhaar database. A primary objective of this Proof of Concept (PoC) was to enhance exam security by reducing chances of impersonation through real-time biometric verification. The Aadhaar Act, 2016, explicitly prohibits the use of Aadhaar authentication for any purpose other than the delivery of government subsidies and benefits. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Aadhaar-based Face Authentication PoC for NEET-UG 2025 was a collaborative effort by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), National Informatics Centre (NIC), and National Testing Agency (NTA). Crucially, it used Aadhaar-linked face authentication, performing real-time matching via the Aadhaar biometric database, not a standalone NTA software. Statement 2 is correct. A primary objective of conducting this PoC was to strengthen exam security and prevent impersonation by verifying candidates in real-time using Aadhaar-linked face authentication. The system aimed to ensure high accuracy in face matching and streamline entry protocols. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initial conception of Aadhaar emphasized its role in delivering subsidies and benefits, the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and subsequent amendments and rules have allowed for its use in various other contexts for authentication purposes, subject to legal provisions and regulations. The use for exam security, as demonstrated by the PoC, is one such emerging application aimed at good governance, and the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, further expand its use. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Aadhaar-based Face Authentication PoC for NEET-UG 2025 was a collaborative effort by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), National Informatics Centre (NIC), and National Testing Agency (NTA). Crucially, it used Aadhaar-linked face authentication, performing real-time matching via the Aadhaar biometric database, not a standalone NTA software. Statement 2 is correct. A primary objective of conducting this PoC was to strengthen exam security and prevent impersonation by verifying candidates in real-time using Aadhaar-linked face authentication. The system aimed to ensure high accuracy in face matching and streamline entry protocols. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initial conception of Aadhaar emphasized its role in delivering subsidies and benefits, the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and subsequent amendments and rules have allowed for its use in various other contexts for authentication purposes, subject to legal provisions and regulations. The use for exam security, as demonstrated by the PoC, is one such emerging application aimed at good governance, and the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, further expand its use.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Aadhaar-based Face Authentication recently tested during NEET-UG 2025:
⢠The technology relies on a standalone facial recognition software developed by the National Testing Agency (NTA) without using the UIDAIâs Aadhaar database.
⢠A primary objective of this Proof of Concept (PoC) was to enhance exam security by reducing chances of impersonation through real-time biometric verification.
⢠The Aadhaar Act, 2016, explicitly prohibits the use of Aadhaar authentication for any purpose other than the delivery of government subsidies and benefits.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
⢠(a) Only one
⢠(b) Only two
⢠(c) All three
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Aadhaar-based Face Authentication PoC for NEET-UG 2025 was a collaborative effort by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), National Informatics Centre (NIC), and National Testing Agency (NTA). Crucially, it used Aadhaar-linked face authentication, performing real-time matching via the Aadhaar biometric database, not a standalone NTA software.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. A primary objective of conducting this PoC was to strengthen exam security and prevent impersonation by verifying candidates in real-time using Aadhaar-linked face authentication. The system aimed to ensure high accuracy in face matching and streamline entry protocols.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initial conception of Aadhaar emphasized its role in delivering subsidies and benefits, the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and subsequent amendments and rules have allowed for its use in various other contexts for authentication purposes, subject to legal provisions and regulations. The use for exam security, as demonstrated by the PoC, is one such emerging application aimed at good governance, and the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, further expand its use.
Solution: a)
⢠Statement 1 is incorrect. The Aadhaar-based Face Authentication PoC for NEET-UG 2025 was a collaborative effort by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), National Informatics Centre (NIC), and National Testing Agency (NTA). Crucially, it used Aadhaar-linked face authentication, performing real-time matching via the Aadhaar biometric database, not a standalone NTA software.
⢠Statement 2 is correct. A primary objective of conducting this PoC was to strengthen exam security and prevent impersonation by verifying candidates in real-time using Aadhaar-linked face authentication. The system aimed to ensure high accuracy in face matching and streamline entry protocols.
⢠Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initial conception of Aadhaar emphasized its role in delivering subsidies and benefits, the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and subsequent amendments and rules have allowed for its use in various other contexts for authentication purposes, subject to legal provisions and regulations. The use for exam security, as demonstrated by the PoC, is one such emerging application aimed at good governance, and the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, further expand its use.
⢠Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Nabakalebara ritual of Lord Jagannath, consider the following statements: Statement I: The Nabakalebara ritual is performed annually during the Rath Yatra festival in Puri. Statement II: The ritual involves the ceremonial burial of the old idols in a designated sacred space within the temple premises, symbolizing the cyclical nature of existence. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement I is incorrect. The Nabakalebara ritual is not performed annually. It is a special and infrequent ritual that takes place to replace the wooden idols of the deities. It is conducted every 12 or 19 years, based on the Hindu lunar calendar when a specific astrological configuration occurs (an extra Asadha month, or Adhimasa). While a Rath Yatra follows the Nabakalebara, it is not an annual part of the regular Rath Yatra. Statement II is correct. A crucial part of the Nabakalebara ritual, after the transfer of the âBrahma Padarthaâ to the new idols, is the ceremonial burial of the old idols. These old wooden forms of the deities are buried with due reverence in a designated sacred place within the Jagannath Temple premises in Puri, known as Koili Baikuntha. This act symbolizes the cyclical nature of creation, existence, and dissolution, akin to rebirth in Hindu philosophy. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement I is incorrect. The Nabakalebara ritual is not performed annually. It is a special and infrequent ritual that takes place to replace the wooden idols of the deities. It is conducted every 12 or 19 years, based on the Hindu lunar calendar when a specific astrological configuration occurs (an extra Asadha month, or Adhimasa). While a Rath Yatra follows the Nabakalebara, it is not an annual part of the regular Rath Yatra. Statement II is correct. A crucial part of the Nabakalebara ritual, after the transfer of the âBrahma Padarthaâ to the new idols, is the ceremonial burial of the old idols. These old wooden forms of the deities are buried with due reverence in a designated sacred place within the Jagannath Temple premises in Puri, known as Koili Baikuntha. This act symbolizes the cyclical nature of creation, existence, and dissolution, akin to rebirth in Hindu philosophy.
#### 10. Question
With reference to the Nabakalebara ritual of Lord Jagannath, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Nabakalebara ritual is performed annually during the Rath Yatra festival in Puri.
Statement II: The ritual involves the ceremonial burial of the old idols in a designated sacred space within the temple premises, symbolizing the cyclical nature of existence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
⢠(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
⢠(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
⢠(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
⢠(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: d)
⢠Statement I is incorrect. The Nabakalebara ritual is not performed annually. It is a special and infrequent ritual that takes place to replace the wooden idols of the deities. It is conducted every 12 or 19 years, based on the Hindu lunar calendar when a specific astrological configuration occurs (an extra Asadha month, or Adhimasa). While a Rath Yatra follows the Nabakalebara, it is not an annual part of the regular Rath Yatra.
⢠Statement II is correct. A crucial part of the Nabakalebara ritual, after the transfer of the âBrahma Padarthaâ to the new idols, is the ceremonial burial of the old idols. These old wooden forms of the deities are buried with due reverence in a designated sacred place within the Jagannath Temple premises in Puri, known as Koili Baikuntha. This act symbolizes the cyclical nature of creation, existence, and dissolution, akin to rebirth in Hindu philosophy.
Solution: d)
⢠Statement I is incorrect. The Nabakalebara ritual is not performed annually. It is a special and infrequent ritual that takes place to replace the wooden idols of the deities. It is conducted every 12 or 19 years, based on the Hindu lunar calendar when a specific astrological configuration occurs (an extra Asadha month, or Adhimasa). While a Rath Yatra follows the Nabakalebara, it is not an annual part of the regular Rath Yatra.
⢠Statement II is correct. A crucial part of the Nabakalebara ritual, after the transfer of the âBrahma Padarthaâ to the new idols, is the ceremonial burial of the old idols. These old wooden forms of the deities are buried with due reverence in a designated sacred place within the Jagannath Temple premises in Puri, known as Koili Baikuntha. This act symbolizes the cyclical nature of creation, existence, and dissolution, akin to rebirth in Hindu philosophy.
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