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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 March 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a component of the Global Engagement Scheme? (a) Grant-in-aid support for Indo-Foreign cultural societies (b) Organization of virtual cultural programs with foreign artists (c) Promotion of classical and contemporary Indian arts through global festivals (d) International collaborations for academic research in Indian heritage Correct Solution: D The scheme focuses on cultural promotion, performances, and exchanges, not academic research collaborations, which fall under the Ministry of Education or the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR). What is the Global Engagement Scheme? The Global Engagement Scheme, initiated by the Ministry of Culture, aims to promote India’s diverse cultural heritage on the global stage and foster international cultural collaborations. Nodal Ministry- Ministry of Culture, Government of India Key Features of the Scheme Promoting Cultural Heritage: Showcases India’s rich cultural diversity, including folk, classical, and contemporary art forms. Strengthening Bilateral Cultural Ties: Encourages collaboration with foreign nations to enhance India’s cultural outreach. Festival of India (FOI): Empanelled Indian artists perform abroad in cultural festivals organized by Indian Missions. Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc. Government funds travel and performances of selected artists. Grant-in-Aid for Indo-Foreign Friendship Societies: Financial support to cultural societies fostering Indo-foreign cultural exchange. Incorrect Solution: D The scheme focuses on cultural promotion, performances, and exchanges, not academic research collaborations, which fall under the Ministry of Education or the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR). What is the Global Engagement Scheme? The Global Engagement Scheme, initiated by the Ministry of Culture, aims to promote India’s diverse cultural heritage on the global stage and foster international cultural collaborations. Nodal Ministry- Ministry of Culture, Government of India Key Features of the Scheme Promoting Cultural Heritage: Showcases India’s rich cultural diversity, including folk, classical, and contemporary art forms. Strengthening Bilateral Cultural Ties: Encourages collaboration with foreign nations to enhance India’s cultural outreach. Festival of India (FOI): Empanelled Indian artists perform abroad in cultural festivals organized by Indian Missions. Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc. Government funds travel and performances of selected artists. Grant-in-Aid for Indo-Foreign Friendship Societies: Financial support to cultural societies fostering Indo-foreign cultural exchange.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Global Engagement Scheme?

• (a) Grant-in-aid support for Indo-Foreign cultural societies

• (b) Organization of virtual cultural programs with foreign artists

• (c) Promotion of classical and contemporary Indian arts through global festivals

• (d) International collaborations for academic research in Indian heritage

Solution: D

The scheme focuses on cultural promotion, performances, and exchanges, not academic research collaborations, which fall under the Ministry of Education or the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).

What is the Global Engagement Scheme?

The Global Engagement Scheme, initiated by the Ministry of Culture, aims to promote India’s diverse cultural heritage on the global stage and foster international cultural collaborations.

Nodal Ministry- Ministry of Culture, Government of India

Key Features of the Scheme

• Promoting Cultural Heritage: Showcases India’s rich cultural diversity, including folk, classical, and contemporary art forms.

• Strengthening Bilateral Cultural Ties: Encourages collaboration with foreign nations to enhance India’s cultural outreach.

• Festival of India (FOI): Empanelled Indian artists perform abroad in cultural festivals organized by Indian Missions. Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc. Government funds travel and performances of selected artists.

• Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc.

• Government funds travel and performances of selected artists.

• Grant-in-Aid for Indo-Foreign Friendship Societies: Financial support to cultural societies fostering Indo-foreign cultural exchange.

Solution: D

The scheme focuses on cultural promotion, performances, and exchanges, not academic research collaborations, which fall under the Ministry of Education or the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).

What is the Global Engagement Scheme?

The Global Engagement Scheme, initiated by the Ministry of Culture, aims to promote India’s diverse cultural heritage on the global stage and foster international cultural collaborations.

Nodal Ministry- Ministry of Culture, Government of India

Key Features of the Scheme

• Promoting Cultural Heritage: Showcases India’s rich cultural diversity, including folk, classical, and contemporary art forms.

• Strengthening Bilateral Cultural Ties: Encourages collaboration with foreign nations to enhance India’s cultural outreach.

• Festival of India (FOI): Empanelled Indian artists perform abroad in cultural festivals organized by Indian Missions. Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc. Government funds travel and performances of selected artists.

• Covers folk music, dance, puppetry, theatre, classical music, experimental dance, etc.

• Government funds travel and performances of selected artists.

• Grant-in-Aid for Indo-Foreign Friendship Societies: Financial support to cultural societies fostering Indo-foreign cultural exchange.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following reports published by the National Statistics Office (NSO): Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) Which of the above are published by the NSO? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3 (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above Correct Solution: B The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), ASI, and PLFS are published by NSO. The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is conducted by the RBI, not NSO. About National Statistics Office (NSO) What is NSO? NSO is India’s premier statistical body under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It is responsible for conducting surveys, data collection, and statistical analysis for economic and social indicators. Established In Formed in 2019, after merging the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). Chaired By The Secretary, MoSPI, heads the NSO. Organizational Structure Survey Division: Conducts household and enterprise surveys. Economic Division: Estimates national income, inflation, and industrial production. Field Operations Division: Collects data from households and businesses. Functions & Powers Conducts large-scale surveys, including National Sample Surveys (NSS), Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), and Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES). Publishes GDP data, Consumer Price Index (CPI), and Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Provides statistical inputs for government policies and economic planning. Ensures data accuracy, transparency, and compliance with global statistical standards. Incorrect Solution: B The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), ASI, and PLFS are published by NSO. The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is conducted by the RBI, not NSO. About National Statistics Office (NSO) What is NSO? NSO is India’s premier statistical body under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It is responsible for conducting surveys, data collection, and statistical analysis for economic and social indicators. Established In Formed in 2019, after merging the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). Chaired By The Secretary, MoSPI, heads the NSO. Organizational Structure Survey Division: Conducts household and enterprise surveys. Economic Division: Estimates national income, inflation, and industrial production. Field Operations Division: Collects data from households and businesses. Functions & Powers Conducts large-scale surveys, including National Sample Surveys (NSS), Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), and Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES). Publishes GDP data, Consumer Price Index (CPI), and Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Provides statistical inputs for government policies and economic planning. Ensures data accuracy, transparency, and compliance with global statistical standards.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following reports published by the National Statistics Office (NSO):

• Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

• Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)

• Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS)

Which of the above are published by the NSO?

• (a) 1 and 2

• (b) 1, 2, and 3

• (c) 1, 3, and 4

• (d) All of the above

Solution: B

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), ASI, and PLFS are published by NSO.

The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is conducted by the RBI, not NSO.

About National Statistics Office (NSO)

What is NSO?

• NSO is India’s premier statistical body under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

• It is responsible for conducting surveys, data collection, and statistical analysis for economic and social indicators.

Established In

• Formed in 2019, after merging the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

Chaired By

• The Secretary, MoSPI, heads the NSO.

Organizational Structure

• Survey Division: Conducts household and enterprise surveys.

• Economic Division: Estimates national income, inflation, and industrial production.

• Field Operations Division: Collects data from households and businesses.

Functions & Powers

• Conducts large-scale surveys, including National Sample Surveys (NSS), Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), and Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES).

• Publishes GDP data, Consumer Price Index (CPI), and Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

• Provides statistical inputs for government policies and economic planning.

• Ensures data accuracy, transparency, and compliance with global statistical standards.

Solution: B

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), ASI, and PLFS are published by NSO.

The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is conducted by the RBI, not NSO.

About National Statistics Office (NSO)

What is NSO?

• NSO is India’s premier statistical body under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

• It is responsible for conducting surveys, data collection, and statistical analysis for economic and social indicators.

Established In

• Formed in 2019, after merging the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

Chaired By

• The Secretary, MoSPI, heads the NSO.

Organizational Structure

• Survey Division: Conducts household and enterprise surveys.

• Economic Division: Estimates national income, inflation, and industrial production.

• Field Operations Division: Collects data from households and businesses.

Functions & Powers

• Conducts large-scale surveys, including National Sample Surveys (NSS), Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), and Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES).

• Publishes GDP data, Consumer Price Index (CPI), and Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

• Provides statistical inputs for government policies and economic planning.

• Ensures data accuracy, transparency, and compliance with global statistical standards.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following is a major environmental challenge affecting the North Sea? (a) Rising salinity levels due to reduced freshwater inflow. (b) Increased frequency of dead zones due to excessive nutrient runoff. (c) Formation of underwater volcanoes due to tectonic activity. (d) Expansion of mangrove forests along the coastline. Correct Solution: B Excessive nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff cause eutrophication, leading to dead zones (oxygen-depleted areas) in the North Sea. The North Sea does not have significant mangrove forests due to its cold climate. Underwater volcanoes are not a feature of the North Sea. What is the North Sea? The North Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Great Britain, Scandinavia, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France. Key Facts About the North Sea Area: Approximately 570,000 square kilometers. Average Depth: 95 meters, with a maximum depth of 700 meters in the Norwegian Trench. Connected Water Bodies: Linked to the Norwegian Sea, English Channel, and the Baltic Sea. Bordering Countries: United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, Netherlands, Belgium, France Major Rivers Flowing into the North Sea: Rhine River (Germany, Netherlands), Elbe River (Germany), Thames River (United Kingdom), Seine River (France), Ems River (Germany), Meuse River (Belgium, Netherlands) Incorrect Solution: B Excessive nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff cause eutrophication, leading to dead zones (oxygen-depleted areas) in the North Sea. The North Sea does not have significant mangrove forests due to its cold climate. Underwater volcanoes are not a feature of the North Sea. What is the North Sea? The North Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Great Britain, Scandinavia, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France. Key Facts About the North Sea Area: Approximately 570,000 square kilometers. Average Depth: 95 meters, with a maximum depth of 700 meters in the Norwegian Trench. Connected Water Bodies: Linked to the Norwegian Sea, English Channel, and the Baltic Sea. Bordering Countries: United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, Netherlands, Belgium, France Major Rivers Flowing into the North Sea: Rhine River (Germany, Netherlands), Elbe River (Germany), Thames River (United Kingdom), Seine River (France), Ems River (Germany), Meuse River (Belgium, Netherlands)

#### 3. Question

Which of the following is a major environmental challenge affecting the North Sea?

• (a) Rising salinity levels due to reduced freshwater inflow.

• (b) Increased frequency of dead zones due to excessive nutrient runoff.

• (c) Formation of underwater volcanoes due to tectonic activity.

• (d) Expansion of mangrove forests along the coastline.

Solution: B

Excessive nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff cause eutrophication, leading to dead zones (oxygen-depleted areas) in the North Sea.

The North Sea does not have significant mangrove forests due to its cold climate.

Underwater volcanoes are not a feature of the North Sea.

What is the North Sea?

• The North Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Great Britain, Scandinavia, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.

Key Facts About the North Sea

• Area: Approximately 570,000 square kilometers.

• Average Depth: 95 meters, with a maximum depth of 700 meters in the Norwegian Trench.

• Connected Water Bodies: Linked to the Norwegian Sea, English Channel, and the Baltic Sea.

• Bordering Countries: United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, Netherlands, Belgium, France

• Major Rivers Flowing into the North Sea: Rhine River (Germany, Netherlands), Elbe River (Germany), Thames River (United Kingdom), Seine River (France), Ems River (Germany), Meuse River (Belgium, Netherlands)

Solution: B

Excessive nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff cause eutrophication, leading to dead zones (oxygen-depleted areas) in the North Sea.

The North Sea does not have significant mangrove forests due to its cold climate.

Underwater volcanoes are not a feature of the North Sea.

What is the North Sea?

• The North Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Great Britain, Scandinavia, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.

Key Facts About the North Sea

• Area: Approximately 570,000 square kilometers.

• Average Depth: 95 meters, with a maximum depth of 700 meters in the Norwegian Trench.

• Connected Water Bodies: Linked to the Norwegian Sea, English Channel, and the Baltic Sea.

• Bordering Countries: United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, Netherlands, Belgium, France

• Major Rivers Flowing into the North Sea: Rhine River (Germany, Netherlands), Elbe River (Germany), Thames River (United Kingdom), Seine River (France), Ems River (Germany), Meuse River (Belgium, Netherlands)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) and its functions: SIPRI is an intergovernmental organization under the United Nations that tracks global arms transfers and military expenditure. SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report, which provides an analysis of major arms exporters and importers. SIPRI’s research focuses solely on arms trade and does not include nuclear disarmament or geopolitical conflicts. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect – SIPRI is an independent research institute, not a UN-affiliated body. It was established in 1966 in Sweden. Statement 2 is correct – SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report to track major exporters and importers of arms. Statement 3 is incorrect – SIPRI’s research covers arms trade, nuclear disarmament, conflicts, and international security. Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) What is SIPRI? SIPRI is an independent international institute focused on research in conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Establishment Founded in 1966 in Stockholm, Sweden. Functions & Significance Analyzes trends in global arms trade and their impact on international security. Monitors military spending of nations and their strategic implications. Provides data-driven insights for policymakers on global defence dynamics. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect – SIPRI is an independent research institute, not a UN-affiliated body. It was established in 1966 in Sweden. Statement 2 is correct – SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report to track major exporters and importers of arms. Statement 3 is incorrect – SIPRI’s research covers arms trade, nuclear disarmament, conflicts, and international security. Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) What is SIPRI? SIPRI is an independent international institute focused on research in conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Establishment Founded in 1966 in Stockholm, Sweden. Functions & Significance Analyzes trends in global arms trade and their impact on international security. Monitors military spending of nations and their strategic implications. Provides data-driven insights for policymakers on global defence dynamics.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) and its functions:

• SIPRI is an intergovernmental organization under the United Nations that tracks global arms transfers and military expenditure.

• SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report, which provides an analysis of major arms exporters and importers.

• SIPRI’s research focuses solely on arms trade and does not include nuclear disarmament or geopolitical conflicts.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect – SIPRI is an independent research institute, not a UN-affiliated body. It was established in 1966 in Sweden.

Statement 2 is correct – SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report to track major exporters and importers of arms.

Statement 3 is incorrect – SIPRI’s research covers arms trade, nuclear disarmament, conflicts, and international security.

Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)

What is SIPRI?

• SIPRI is an independent international institute focused on research in conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.

Establishment

• Founded in 1966 in Stockholm, Sweden.

Functions & Significance

• Analyzes trends in global arms trade and their impact on international security.

• Monitors military spending of nations and their strategic implications.

• Provides data-driven insights for policymakers on global defence dynamics.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect – SIPRI is an independent research institute, not a UN-affiliated body. It was established in 1966 in Sweden.

Statement 2 is correct – SIPRI publishes the “Trends in International Arms Transfers” report to track major exporters and importers of arms.

Statement 3 is incorrect – SIPRI’s research covers arms trade, nuclear disarmament, conflicts, and international security.

Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)

What is SIPRI?

• SIPRI is an independent international institute focused on research in conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.

Establishment

• Founded in 1966 in Stockholm, Sweden.

Functions & Significance

• Analyzes trends in global arms trade and their impact on international security.

• Monitors military spending of nations and their strategic implications.

• Provides data-driven insights for policymakers on global defence dynamics.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most significant advantage of gene-editing in bananas over traditional genetic modification (GMO)? (a) Gene-edited bananas have been widely accepted and approved for human consumption globally. (b) Gene-editing is faster but more unpredictable compared to traditional GMO methods. (c) Gene-edited crops require continuous application of chemical regulators to maintain their traits. (d) Gene-editing does not introduce foreign DNA, whereas GMO techniques do. Correct Solution: D Unlike GMOs, CRISPR-based gene editing makes precise alterations within the plant’s own genome without inserting foreign genes, making it more acceptable in regulatory frameworks. A UK-based biotech company, Tropic, has developed a gene-edited banana that remains fresh and yellow for 12 hours after peeling, reducing food waste. This breakthrough in genetic modification could help curb post-harvest losses and carbon emissions, contributing to sustainability. Recent Advancements in Gene-Editing Technology CRISPR-Cas9 Breakthroughs: CRISPR-Cas9 remains the most widely used gene-editing tool, enabling precise DNA modifications. Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands. Prime Editing: A more refined version of CRISPR, Prime Editing, can directly write new genetic sequences without cutting DNA entirely. This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications. Gene-Edited Crops for Agriculture: Non-browning bananas (Tropic) and Arctic apples (Okanagan Specialty Fruits) extend shelf life and reduce waste. Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity. Therapeutic Applications: Gene editing is revolutionizing cancer treatment (CAR-T cell therapy). Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis. Incorrect Solution: D Unlike GMOs, CRISPR-based gene editing makes precise alterations within the plant’s own genome without inserting foreign genes, making it more acceptable in regulatory frameworks. A UK-based biotech company, Tropic, has developed a gene-edited banana that remains fresh and yellow for 12 hours after peeling, reducing food waste. This breakthrough in genetic modification could help curb post-harvest losses and carbon emissions, contributing to sustainability. Recent Advancements in Gene-Editing Technology CRISPR-Cas9 Breakthroughs: CRISPR-Cas9 remains the most widely used gene-editing tool, enabling precise DNA modifications. Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands. Prime Editing: A more refined version of CRISPR, Prime Editing, can directly write new genetic sequences without cutting DNA entirely. This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications. Gene-Edited Crops for Agriculture: Non-browning bananas (Tropic) and Arctic apples (Okanagan Specialty Fruits) extend shelf life and reduce waste. Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity. Therapeutic Applications: Gene editing is revolutionizing cancer treatment (CAR-T cell therapy). Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following is the most significant advantage of gene-editing in bananas over traditional genetic modification (GMO)?

• (a) Gene-edited bananas have been widely accepted and approved for human consumption globally.

• (b) Gene-editing is faster but more unpredictable compared to traditional GMO methods.

• (c) Gene-edited crops require continuous application of chemical regulators to maintain their traits.

• (d) Gene-editing does not introduce foreign DNA, whereas GMO techniques do.

Solution: D

Unlike GMOs, CRISPR-based gene editing makes precise alterations within the plant’s own genome without inserting foreign genes, making it more acceptable in regulatory frameworks.

A UK-based biotech company, Tropic, has developed a gene-edited banana that remains fresh and yellow for 12 hours after peeling, reducing food waste.

• This breakthrough in genetic modification could help curb post-harvest losses and carbon emissions, contributing to sustainability.

Recent Advancements in Gene-Editing Technology

• CRISPR-Cas9 Breakthroughs: CRISPR-Cas9 remains the most widely used gene-editing tool, enabling precise DNA modifications.

• Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands.

• Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands.

• Prime Editing: A more refined version of CRISPR, Prime Editing, can directly write new genetic sequences without cutting DNA entirely.

• This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications.

• This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications.

• Gene-Edited Crops for Agriculture: Non-browning bananas (Tropic) and Arctic apples (Okanagan Specialty Fruits) extend shelf life and reduce waste.

• Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity.

• Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity.

• Therapeutic Applications: Gene editing is revolutionizing cancer treatment (CAR-T cell therapy).

• Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.

• Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.

Solution: D

Unlike GMOs, CRISPR-based gene editing makes precise alterations within the plant’s own genome without inserting foreign genes, making it more acceptable in regulatory frameworks.

A UK-based biotech company, Tropic, has developed a gene-edited banana that remains fresh and yellow for 12 hours after peeling, reducing food waste.

• This breakthrough in genetic modification could help curb post-harvest losses and carbon emissions, contributing to sustainability.

Recent Advancements in Gene-Editing Technology

• CRISPR-Cas9 Breakthroughs: CRISPR-Cas9 remains the most widely used gene-editing tool, enabling precise DNA modifications.

• Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands.

• Scientists have improved base-editing techniques, allowing for single-nucleotide changes without breaking DNA strands.

• Prime Editing: A more refined version of CRISPR, Prime Editing, can directly write new genetic sequences without cutting DNA entirely.

• This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications.

• This technique enhances safety and accuracy in genetic modifications.

• Gene-Edited Crops for Agriculture: Non-browning bananas (Tropic) and Arctic apples (Okanagan Specialty Fruits) extend shelf life and reduce waste.

• Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity.

• Drought-resistant wheat, pest-resistant rice, and vitamin-enhanced tomatoes are advancing agricultural productivity.

• Therapeutic Applications: Gene editing is revolutionizing cancer treatment (CAR-T cell therapy).

• Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.

• Ongoing trials aim to cure genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best explains why INS Imphal is considered a significant advancement in India’s naval capabilities? (a) It is the first Indian warship to be powered entirely by nuclear propulsion. (b) It is India’s first warship to be capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles. (c) It has been designed with stealth features to reduce radar cross-section. (d) It is India’s first aircraft carrier capable of operating fifth-generation fighter jets. Correct Solution: C INS Imphal features a low radar cross-section design, reducing its detectability. It is not nuclear-powered, nor an aircraft carrier. While it carries BrahMos, India already had other warships capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles. What is INS Imphal? INS Imphal is a Visakhapatnam-class (Project 15B) guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy. It is the third indigenous stealth destroyer, commissioned in December 2023. Built by: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai. Key Features of INS Imphal State-of-the-Art Weaponry Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense. 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat. Advanced Sensor & Radar Systems: Features Multi-Function Surveillance and Threat Alert Radar (MF-STAR). Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance. Stealth Capabilities: Designed with low radar cross-section for stealth operations. Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems. Enhanced Mobility & Endurance: Powered by four gas turbines, capable of reaching over 30 knots. Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles. Helicopter & UAV Operations: Can carry two multi-role helicopters, including MH-60R Seahawks. Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance. Incorrect Solution: C INS Imphal features a low radar cross-section design, reducing its detectability. It is not nuclear-powered, nor an aircraft carrier. While it carries BrahMos, India already had other warships capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles. What is INS Imphal? INS Imphal is a Visakhapatnam-class (Project 15B) guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy. It is the third indigenous stealth destroyer, commissioned in December 2023. Built by: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai. Key Features of INS Imphal State-of-the-Art Weaponry Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense. 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat. Advanced Sensor & Radar Systems: Features Multi-Function Surveillance and Threat Alert Radar (MF-STAR). Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance. Stealth Capabilities: Designed with low radar cross-section for stealth operations. Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems. Enhanced Mobility & Endurance: Powered by four gas turbines, capable of reaching over 30 knots. Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles. Helicopter & UAV Operations: Can carry two multi-role helicopters, including MH-60R Seahawks. Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements best explains why INS Imphal is considered a significant advancement in India’s naval capabilities?

• (a) It is the first Indian warship to be powered entirely by nuclear propulsion.

• (b) It is India’s first warship to be capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles.

• (c) It has been designed with stealth features to reduce radar cross-section.

• (d) It is India’s first aircraft carrier capable of operating fifth-generation fighter jets.

Solution: C

INS Imphal features a low radar cross-section design, reducing its detectability.

It is not nuclear-powered, nor an aircraft carrier.

While it carries BrahMos, India already had other warships capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles.

What is INS Imphal?

• INS Imphal is a Visakhapatnam-class (Project 15B) guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.

• It is the third indigenous stealth destroyer, commissioned in December 2023.

• Built by: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai.

Key Features of INS Imphal

• State-of-the-Art Weaponry Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense. 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat.

• Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.

• Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense.

• 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat.

• Advanced Sensor & Radar Systems: Features Multi-Function Surveillance and Threat Alert Radar (MF-STAR). Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance.

• Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance.

• Stealth Capabilities: Designed with low radar cross-section for stealth operations. Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems.

• Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems.

• Enhanced Mobility & Endurance: Powered by four gas turbines, capable of reaching over 30 knots. Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles.

• Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles.

• Helicopter & UAV Operations: Can carry two multi-role helicopters, including MH-60R Seahawks. Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance.

• Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance.

Solution: C

INS Imphal features a low radar cross-section design, reducing its detectability.

It is not nuclear-powered, nor an aircraft carrier.

While it carries BrahMos, India already had other warships capable of deploying supersonic cruise missiles.

What is INS Imphal?

• INS Imphal is a Visakhapatnam-class (Project 15B) guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.

• It is the third indigenous stealth destroyer, commissioned in December 2023.

• Built by: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai.

Key Features of INS Imphal

• State-of-the-Art Weaponry Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense. 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat.

• Equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.

• Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for aerial defense.

• 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM) and AK-630 CIWS for close-range combat.

• Advanced Sensor & Radar Systems: Features Multi-Function Surveillance and Threat Alert Radar (MF-STAR). Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance.

• Includes electronic warfare suites and towed array sonar for underwater surveillance.

• Stealth Capabilities: Designed with low radar cross-section for stealth operations. Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems.

• Reduces detectability in enemy radar systems.

• Enhanced Mobility & Endurance: Powered by four gas turbines, capable of reaching over 30 knots. Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles.

• Operational range: 4,000 nautical miles.

• Helicopter & UAV Operations: Can carry two multi-role helicopters, including MH-60R Seahawks. Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance.

• Supports unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations for reconnaissance.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Soil Fertility Mapping: It involves the use of geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based models for soil analysis. The mapping process focuses primarily on physical soil properties rather than nutrient composition. It helps in the implementation of precision agriculture. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Soil fertility mapping integrates remote sensing, geospatial tools, and AI-driven models for high-accuracy soil health analysis. Statement 2 is incorrect – The mapping process prioritizes soil nutrient composition (NPK, sulfur, micronutrients) rather than just physical properties like texture and porosity. Statement 3 is correct – It supports precision agriculture by customizing fertilizer application based on real-time soil fertility data. What is Soil Fertility Mapping? It is a scientific method of assessing and visualizing soil nutrient composition across different regions. Uses geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based tools to generate precise soil health data. Benefits of Soil Fertility Mapping Precision Agriculture: Helps farmers identify nutrient deficiencies and surpluses. Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield. Cost-Efficient Farming: Reduces overuse and underuse of fertilizers, optimizing costs. Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers. Improved Soil Health Management: Encourages integrated nutrient management (INM). Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming. Environmental Sustainability: Minimizes soil degradation and nutrient depletion. Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination. Empowering Farmers: Soil Health Cards (SHC) provide customized recommendations. Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Soil fertility mapping integrates remote sensing, geospatial tools, and AI-driven models for high-accuracy soil health analysis. Statement 2 is incorrect – The mapping process prioritizes soil nutrient composition (NPK, sulfur, micronutrients) rather than just physical properties like texture and porosity. Statement 3 is correct – It supports precision agriculture by customizing fertilizer application based on real-time soil fertility data. What is Soil Fertility Mapping? It is a scientific method of assessing and visualizing soil nutrient composition across different regions. Uses geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based tools to generate precise soil health data. Benefits of Soil Fertility Mapping Precision Agriculture: Helps farmers identify nutrient deficiencies and surpluses. Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield. Cost-Efficient Farming: Reduces overuse and underuse of fertilizers, optimizing costs. Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers. Improved Soil Health Management: Encourages integrated nutrient management (INM). Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming. Environmental Sustainability: Minimizes soil degradation and nutrient depletion. Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination. Empowering Farmers: Soil Health Cards (SHC) provide customized recommendations. Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Soil Fertility Mapping:

• It involves the use of geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based models for soil analysis.

• The mapping process focuses primarily on physical soil properties rather than nutrient composition.

• It helps in the implementation of precision agriculture.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Soil fertility mapping integrates remote sensing, geospatial tools, and AI-driven models for high-accuracy soil health analysis.

Statement 2 is incorrect – The mapping process prioritizes soil nutrient composition (NPK, sulfur, micronutrients) rather than just physical properties like texture and porosity.

Statement 3 is correct – It supports precision agriculture by customizing fertilizer application based on real-time soil fertility data.

What is Soil Fertility Mapping?

• It is a scientific method of assessing and visualizing soil nutrient composition across different regions.

• Uses geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based tools to generate precise soil health data.

Benefits of Soil Fertility Mapping

• Precision Agriculture: Helps farmers identify nutrient deficiencies and surpluses. Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield.

• Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield.

• Cost-Efficient Farming: Reduces overuse and underuse of fertilizers, optimizing costs. Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers.

• Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers.

• Improved Soil Health Management: Encourages integrated nutrient management (INM). Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming.

• Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming.

• Environmental Sustainability: Minimizes soil degradation and nutrient depletion. Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination.

• Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination.

• Empowering Farmers: Soil Health Cards (SHC) provide customized recommendations. Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services.

• Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Soil fertility mapping integrates remote sensing, geospatial tools, and AI-driven models for high-accuracy soil health analysis.

Statement 2 is incorrect – The mapping process prioritizes soil nutrient composition (NPK, sulfur, micronutrients) rather than just physical properties like texture and porosity.

Statement 3 is correct – It supports precision agriculture by customizing fertilizer application based on real-time soil fertility data.

What is Soil Fertility Mapping?

• It is a scientific method of assessing and visualizing soil nutrient composition across different regions.

• Uses geospatial techniques, remote sensing, and AI-based tools to generate precise soil health data.

Benefits of Soil Fertility Mapping

• Precision Agriculture: Helps farmers identify nutrient deficiencies and surpluses. Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield.

• Enables targeted fertilizer application for better crop yield.

• Cost-Efficient Farming: Reduces overuse and underuse of fertilizers, optimizing costs. Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers.

• Enhances soil productivity and economic returns for farmers.

• Improved Soil Health Management: Encourages integrated nutrient management (INM). Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming.

• Promotes organic manures and bio-fertilizers for sustainable farming.

• Environmental Sustainability: Minimizes soil degradation and nutrient depletion. Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination.

• Reduces chemical runoff and groundwater contamination.

• Empowering Farmers: Soil Health Cards (SHC) provide customized recommendations. Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services.

• Farmers can download SHC data using mobile-based services.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following applications of gene-editing technology: Developing genetically engineered mosquitoes to prevent the spread of malaria. Creating synthetic human embryos for organ transplantation. Enhancing crop resistance to pests and environmental stress. Which of the above are currently feasible using gene-editing techniques? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Correct Solution: C Gene-edited mosquitoes have been developed using CRISPR to suppress malaria transmission. Gene-editing is widely used in agriculture for developing pest-resistant and drought-tolerant crops. Statement 2 is incorrect – Creating synthetic human embryos solely for organ transplantation is not yet feasible and raises ethical concerns. What is Gene Editing? Gene editing involves modifying an organism’s DNA to enhance traits, eliminate defects, or develop resistance to diseases. Unlike traditional breeding, it allows precise and controlled alterations at the molecular level. Methods Used CRISPR-Cas9 – Most common technique, cuts DNA at specific sites for modification. Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) – Custom DNA-binding proteins used to alter genes. TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) – Precise cutting and editing of genetic sequences. Regulatory Provisions in India Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under MoEFCC oversees gene-editing approvals. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates genetically modified foods. India approved GM Mustard for commercial cultivation but has stricter regulations for gene-edited crops. Current Status in India India has not approved CRISPR-based crops for commercial use yet, but research is underway. Gene-edited rice, wheat, and bananas are in developmental stages. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is exploring gene-editing to improve climate resilience and pest resistance in crops. Incorrect Solution: C Gene-edited mosquitoes have been developed using CRISPR to suppress malaria transmission. Gene-editing is widely used in agriculture for developing pest-resistant and drought-tolerant crops. Statement 2 is incorrect – Creating synthetic human embryos solely for organ transplantation is not yet feasible and raises ethical concerns. What is Gene Editing? Gene editing involves modifying an organism’s DNA to enhance traits, eliminate defects, or develop resistance to diseases. Unlike traditional breeding, it allows precise and controlled alterations at the molecular level. Methods Used CRISPR-Cas9 – Most common technique, cuts DNA at specific sites for modification. Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) – Custom DNA-binding proteins used to alter genes. TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) – Precise cutting and editing of genetic sequences. Regulatory Provisions in India Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under MoEFCC oversees gene-editing approvals. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates genetically modified foods. India approved GM Mustard for commercial cultivation but has stricter regulations for gene-edited crops. Current Status in India India has not approved CRISPR-based crops for commercial use yet, but research is underway. Gene-edited rice, wheat, and bananas are in developmental stages. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is exploring gene-editing to improve climate resilience and pest resistance in crops.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following applications of gene-editing technology:

• Developing genetically engineered mosquitoes to prevent the spread of malaria.

• Creating synthetic human embryos for organ transplantation.

• Enhancing crop resistance to pests and environmental stress.

Which of the above are currently feasible using gene-editing techniques?

• (a) 1 and 2

• (b) 2 and 3

• (c) 1 and 3

• (d) All of the above

Solution: C

Gene-edited mosquitoes have been developed using CRISPR to suppress malaria transmission.

Gene-editing is widely used in agriculture for developing pest-resistant and drought-tolerant crops.

Statement 2 is incorrect – Creating synthetic human embryos solely for organ transplantation is not yet feasible and raises ethical concerns.

What is Gene Editing?

• Gene editing involves modifying an organism’s DNA to enhance traits, eliminate defects, or develop resistance to diseases.

• Unlike traditional breeding, it allows precise and controlled alterations at the molecular level.

Methods Used

• CRISPR-Cas9 – Most common technique, cuts DNA at specific sites for modification.

• Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) – Custom DNA-binding proteins used to alter genes.

• TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) – Precise cutting and editing of genetic sequences.

Regulatory Provisions in India

• Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under MoEFCC oversees gene-editing approvals.

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates genetically modified foods.

• India approved GM Mustard for commercial cultivation but has stricter regulations for gene-edited crops.

Current Status in India

• India has not approved CRISPR-based crops for commercial use yet, but research is underway.

• Gene-edited rice, wheat, and bananas are in developmental stages.

• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is exploring gene-editing to improve climate resilience and pest resistance in crops.

Solution: C

Gene-edited mosquitoes have been developed using CRISPR to suppress malaria transmission.

Gene-editing is widely used in agriculture for developing pest-resistant and drought-tolerant crops.

Statement 2 is incorrect – Creating synthetic human embryos solely for organ transplantation is not yet feasible and raises ethical concerns.

What is Gene Editing?

• Gene editing involves modifying an organism’s DNA to enhance traits, eliminate defects, or develop resistance to diseases.

• Unlike traditional breeding, it allows precise and controlled alterations at the molecular level.

Methods Used

• CRISPR-Cas9 – Most common technique, cuts DNA at specific sites for modification.

• Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) – Custom DNA-binding proteins used to alter genes.

• TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) – Precise cutting and editing of genetic sequences.

Regulatory Provisions in India

• Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under MoEFCC oversees gene-editing approvals.

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) regulates genetically modified foods.

• India approved GM Mustard for commercial cultivation but has stricter regulations for gene-edited crops.

Current Status in India

• India has not approved CRISPR-based crops for commercial use yet, but research is underway.

• Gene-edited rice, wheat, and bananas are in developmental stages.

• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is exploring gene-editing to improve climate resilience and pest resistance in crops.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is a major objective of the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24 (a) To estimate inflation trends by analyzing changes in household spending patterns. (b) To forecast GDP growth based on consumer sentiment analysis. (c) To track foreign direct investment (FDI) in consumer goods and its impact on household consumption. (d) To evaluate banking penetration in rural areas through household financial expenditures. Correct Solution: A The HCES provides data essential for revising the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and inflation estimation. It does not directly analyze GDP, FDI, or banking penetration. About Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24 Data Collection & Methodology Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI. Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation. Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories. Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion. Broad Consumption Categories Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages. Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment. New Items Added in 2023-24 Survey Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles. Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm. Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs. Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors. Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines. Incorrect Solution: A The HCES provides data essential for revising the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and inflation estimation. It does not directly analyze GDP, FDI, or banking penetration. About Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24 Data Collection & Methodology Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI. Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation. Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories. Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion. Broad Consumption Categories Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages. Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment. New Items Added in 2023-24 Survey Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles. Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm. Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs. Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors. Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is a major objective of the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24

• (a) To estimate inflation trends by analyzing changes in household spending patterns.

• (b) To forecast GDP growth based on consumer sentiment analysis.

• (c) To track foreign direct investment (FDI) in consumer goods and its impact on household consumption.

• (d) To evaluate banking penetration in rural areas through household financial expenditures.

Solution: A

The HCES provides data essential for revising the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and inflation estimation.

It does not directly analyze GDP, FDI, or banking penetration.

About Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24

• Data Collection & Methodology

• Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI. Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation. Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories. Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion.

• Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI.

• Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation.

• Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories.

• Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion.

• Broad Consumption Categories

• Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages. Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment.

• Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages.

• Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment.

• New Items Added in 2023-24 Survey

• Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles. Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm. Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs. Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors. Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines.

• Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles.

• Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm.

• Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs.

• Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors.

• Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines.

Solution: A

The HCES provides data essential for revising the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and inflation estimation.

It does not directly analyze GDP, FDI, or banking penetration.

About Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24

• Data Collection & Methodology

• Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI. Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation. Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories. Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion.

• Conducted between August 2023 – July 2024 by NSO under MoSPI.

• Digital data collection via Computer Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI) for accuracy and real-time validation.

• Survey covered 405 items across food and non-food categories.

• Rural sampling based on land possession, while urban sampling considered car ownership as a classification criterion.

• Broad Consumption Categories

• Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages. Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment.

• Food items: Cereals, pulses, dairy, vegetables, fruits, eggs, meat, edible oil, beverages.

• Non-food items: Fuel, medical expenses, education, rent, clothing, consumer services, entertainment.

• New Items Added in 2023-24 Survey

• Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles. Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm. Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs. Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors. Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines.

• Food & Beverages: Almonds, pistachios, breakfast cereals, nachos, mayonnaise, cup noodles.

• Personal Care: Handwash, facewash, body oil, deodorants, aftershave balm.

• Clothing & Apparel: Joggers, jumpsuits, sleepwear, lehengas, shrugs.

• Consumer Electronics: Bluetooth speakers, headphones, air purifiers, geysers, food processors.

• Sports & Medical Equipment: Treadmills, fitness cycles, wheelchairs, weighing machines.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The North Sea is bordered by which of the following water bodies? Norwegian Sea English Channel Baltic Sea Bay of Biscay Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above Correct Solution: A The North Sea is connected to the Norwegian Sea, the English Channel, and the Baltic Sea. The Bay of Biscay is located southwest of France and is not connected to the North Sea. Incorrect Solution: A The North Sea is connected to the Norwegian Sea, the English Channel, and the Baltic Sea. The Bay of Biscay is located southwest of France and is not connected to the North Sea.

#### 10. Question

The North Sea is bordered by which of the following water bodies?

• Norwegian Sea

• English Channel

• Baltic Sea

• Bay of Biscay

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

• (a) 1, 2, and 3

• (b) 1 and 3

• (c) 2 and 4

• (d) All of the above

Solution: A

The North Sea is connected to the Norwegian Sea, the English Channel, and the Baltic Sea.

The Bay of Biscay is located southwest of France and is not connected to the North Sea.

Solution: A

The North Sea is connected to the Norwegian Sea, the English Channel, and the Baltic Sea.

The Bay of Biscay is located southwest of France and is not connected to the North Sea.

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