UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following crops: Ragi Lentil (Masur) Toria Jute How many of the above crops are covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Ragi: This is a key millet (coarse cereal) and is covered under MSP for Kharif crops. The government has been actively promoting millets (Shree Anna) through higher MSPs. Lentil (Masur): This is a major pulse crop and is covered under MSP for Rabi crops. Promoting pulses is a key objective to reduce import dependency and encourage crop diversification. Toria: This is an oilseed crop, similar to rapeseed & mustard. It is covered under MSP to support oilseed cultivation and enhance domestic edible oil production. It falls under the Rabi crops Jute: This is a significant commercial crop (fibre). Raw Jute is covered under MSP to protect the interests of jute farmers, primarily in Eastern India. Incorrect Solution: d) Ragi: This is a key millet (coarse cereal) and is covered under MSP for Kharif crops. The government has been actively promoting millets (Shree Anna) through higher MSPs. Lentil (Masur): This is a major pulse crop and is covered under MSP for Rabi crops. Promoting pulses is a key objective to reduce import dependency and encourage crop diversification. Toria: This is an oilseed crop, similar to rapeseed & mustard. It is covered under MSP to support oilseed cultivation and enhance domestic edible oil production. It falls under the Rabi crops Jute: This is a significant commercial crop (fibre). Raw Jute is covered under MSP to protect the interests of jute farmers, primarily in Eastern India.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following crops:

• Lentil (Masur)

How many of the above crops are covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

• Ragi: This is a key millet (coarse cereal) and is covered under MSP for Kharif crops. The government has been actively promoting millets (Shree Anna) through higher MSPs.

• Lentil (Masur): This is a major pulse crop and is covered under MSP for Rabi crops. Promoting pulses is a key objective to reduce import dependency and encourage crop diversification.

• Toria: This is an oilseed crop, similar to rapeseed & mustard. It is covered under MSP to support oilseed cultivation and enhance domestic edible oil production. It falls under the Rabi crops

• Jute: This is a significant commercial crop (fibre). Raw Jute is covered under MSP to protect the interests of jute farmers, primarily in Eastern India.

Solution: d)

• Ragi: This is a key millet (coarse cereal) and is covered under MSP for Kharif crops. The government has been actively promoting millets (Shree Anna) through higher MSPs.

• Lentil (Masur): This is a major pulse crop and is covered under MSP for Rabi crops. Promoting pulses is a key objective to reduce import dependency and encourage crop diversification.

• Jute: This is a significant commercial crop (fibre). Raw Jute is covered under MSP to protect the interests of jute farmers, primarily in Eastern India.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the geographical feature/phenomenon with its correct geological description. Column-I Column-II A. Shield Volcano 1. An upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth’s mantle. B. Mantle Plume 2. A long, narrow fracture in the Earth’s crust from which lava erupts. C. Rift Zone 3. A broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-3, B-2, C-1 b) A-2, B-3, C-1 c) A-3, B-1, C-2 d) A-1, B-3, C-2 Correct Solution: c) Shield Volcano (A) is correctly described as a broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows (3). Kilauea is a classic example of this type of volcano. Mantle Plume (B) is the underlying geological engine for the Hawaiian islands. It is an upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth’s mantle (1) that creates hotspots on the Earth’s surface. Rift Zone (C) is a key feature of Hawaiian volcanoes. It is a long, narrow fracture in the crust (2) from which lava often erupts. Kilauea has two major rift zones (east and southwest) where many of its historical eruptions have occurred. Incorrect Solution: c) Shield Volcano (A) is correctly described as a broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows (3). Kilauea is a classic example of this type of volcano. Mantle Plume (B) is the underlying geological engine for the Hawaiian islands. It is an upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth’s mantle (1) that creates hotspots on the Earth’s surface. Rift Zone (C) is a key feature of Hawaiian volcanoes. It is a long, narrow fracture in the crust (2) from which lava often erupts. Kilauea has two major rift zones (east and southwest) where many of its historical eruptions have occurred.

#### 2. Question

Match the geographical feature/phenomenon with its correct geological description.

Column-I | Column-II

A. Shield Volcano | 1. An upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth’s mantle.

B. Mantle Plume | 2. A long, narrow fracture in the Earth’s crust from which lava erupts.

C. Rift Zone | 3. A broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-3, B-2, C-1

• b) A-2, B-3, C-1

• c) A-3, B-1, C-2

• d) A-1, B-3, C-2

Solution: c)

• Shield Volcano (A) is correctly described as a broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows (3). Kilauea is a classic example of this type of volcano.

• Mantle Plume (B) is the underlying geological engine for the Hawaiian islands. It is an upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth’s mantle (1) that creates hotspots on the Earth’s surface.

Rift Zone (C) is a key feature of Hawaiian volcanoes. It is a long, narrow fracture in the crust (2) from which lava often erupts. Kilauea has two major rift zones (east and southwest) where many of its historical eruptions have occurred.

Solution: c)

• Shield Volcano (A) is correctly described as a broad, dome-shaped volcano with gentle slopes built from fluid lava flows (3). Kilauea is a classic example of this type of volcano.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the geography of Mount Kanchenjunga, consider the following statements: It is a single, isolated peak that forms the highest point of the eastern Himalayas. The mountain and its surrounding region are part of a UNESCO World Heritage Site designated as a ‘Mixed Heritage’ site. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Kanchenjunga is not a single peak but a massive mountain massif. Its name in Sikkimese tradition refers to the “Five Treasures of the Snow”, which corresponds to its five prominent peaks. This composite structure is a key geographical feature. Statement 2 is correct: The Khangchendzonga National Park, which encompasses Mount Kanchenjunga and its surrounding ecosystem on the Indian side, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2016. It is India’s first, and so far only, ‘Mixed Heritage’ site, recognized for its outstanding natural beauty and biodiversity as well as its deep cultural and religious significance to the local communities. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Kanchenjunga is not a single peak but a massive mountain massif. Its name in Sikkimese tradition refers to the “Five Treasures of the Snow”, which corresponds to its five prominent peaks. This composite structure is a key geographical feature. Statement 2 is correct: The Khangchendzonga National Park, which encompasses Mount Kanchenjunga and its surrounding ecosystem on the Indian side, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2016. It is India’s first, and so far only, ‘Mixed Heritage’ site, recognized for its outstanding natural beauty and biodiversity as well as its deep cultural and religious significance to the local communities.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the geography of Mount Kanchenjunga, consider the following statements:

• It is a single, isolated peak that forms the highest point of the eastern Himalayas.

• The mountain and its surrounding region are part of a UNESCO World Heritage Site designated as a ‘Mixed Heritage’ site.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Kanchenjunga is not a single peak but a massive mountain massif. Its name in Sikkimese tradition refers to the “Five Treasures of the Snow”, which corresponds to its five prominent peaks. This composite structure is a key geographical feature.

Statement 2 is correct: The Khangchendzonga National Park, which encompasses Mount Kanchenjunga and its surrounding ecosystem on the Indian side, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2016. It is India’s first, and so far only, ‘Mixed Heritage’ site, recognized for its outstanding natural beauty and biodiversity as well as its deep cultural and religious significance to the local communities.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Battery Aadhaar’ initiative, consider the following statements: It is a centralized database managed by the Ministry of Power to track batteries used in electric vehicles. The initiative utilizes blockchain technology to ensure a tamper-proof and transparent record of a battery’s lifecycle. A primary goal of the initiative is to align India’s battery ecosystem with global standards, such as the EU Battery Regulation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is not limited to electric vehicles. Its goal is broader, covering batteries across various sectors to support a circular economy. Furthermore, it is not managed by the Ministry of Power but is an industry-led initiative developed by a consortium. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the initiative is the use of blockchain integration through the MOBIUS+ platform. This technology provides a secure, decentralized, and tamper-proof ledger to log data in real-time for each battery unit, ensuring full traceability and transparency. Statement 3 is correct. The key objective is to align battery usage with national and global compliance standards, specifically citing the EU Battery Regulation. This highlights the initiative’s role in making the Indian battery market globally competitive and compliant. About Battery Aadhaar Initiative: What It Is? Battery Aadhaar is a digital identification system for batteries, designed to enable full traceability across their lifecycle using secure, blockchain-backed technologies. Developed By: Spearheaded by Tata Elxsi through its MOBIUS+ platform, in collaboration with Tata Motors, Tata AutoComp Systems, and IIT Kharagpur. Objective: To assign unique digital IDs to each battery, enabling safe use, regulated reuse, and efficient disposal. To align battery usage with national and global compliance standards like the EU Battery Regulation. Key Features: Blockchain Integration: MOBIUS+ ensures tamper-proof, real-time data logging for each battery unit. Lifecycle Transparency: Tracks manufacturer details, usage history, and material content. Regulatory Compliance: Automates reporting for both Indian and international policy frameworks. Sustainability Link: Supports circular economy models by reducing battery waste and environmental risks. Significance: Prevents unsafe reuse of old or degraded batteries, ensuring safety in EV ecosystems. Strengthens India’s battery supply chain visibility and sustainability commitment. Encourages eco-conscious innovation across mobility, energy storage, and electronics industries. Promotes India’s position in green tech leadership and aligns with the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP). Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is not limited to electric vehicles. Its goal is broader, covering batteries across various sectors to support a circular economy. Furthermore, it is not managed by the Ministry of Power but is an industry-led initiative developed by a consortium. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the initiative is the use of blockchain integration through the MOBIUS+ platform. This technology provides a secure, decentralized, and tamper-proof ledger to log data in real-time for each battery unit, ensuring full traceability and transparency. Statement 3 is correct. The key objective is to align battery usage with national and global compliance standards, specifically citing the EU Battery Regulation. This highlights the initiative’s role in making the Indian battery market globally competitive and compliant. About Battery Aadhaar Initiative: What It Is? Battery Aadhaar is a digital identification system for batteries, designed to enable full traceability across their lifecycle using secure, blockchain-backed technologies. Developed By: Spearheaded by Tata Elxsi through its MOBIUS+ platform, in collaboration with Tata Motors, Tata AutoComp Systems, and IIT Kharagpur. Objective: To assign unique digital IDs to each battery, enabling safe use, regulated reuse, and efficient disposal. To align battery usage with national and global compliance standards like the EU Battery Regulation. Key Features: Blockchain Integration: MOBIUS+ ensures tamper-proof, real-time data logging for each battery unit. Lifecycle Transparency: Tracks manufacturer details, usage history, and material content. Regulatory Compliance: Automates reporting for both Indian and international policy frameworks. Sustainability Link: Supports circular economy models by reducing battery waste and environmental risks. Significance: Prevents unsafe reuse of old or degraded batteries, ensuring safety in EV ecosystems. Strengthens India’s battery supply chain visibility and sustainability commitment. Encourages eco-conscious innovation across mobility, energy storage, and electronics industries. Promotes India’s position in green tech leadership and aligns with the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).

#### 4. Question

With reference to the ‘Battery Aadhaar’ initiative, consider the following statements:

• It is a centralized database managed by the Ministry of Power to track batteries used in electric vehicles.

• The initiative utilizes blockchain technology to ensure a tamper-proof and transparent record of a battery’s lifecycle.

• A primary goal of the initiative is to align India’s battery ecosystem with global standards, such as the EU Battery Regulation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative is not limited to electric vehicles. Its goal is broader, covering batteries across various sectors to support a circular economy. Furthermore, it is not managed by the Ministry of Power but is an industry-led initiative developed by a consortium.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the initiative is the use of blockchain integration through the MOBIUS+ platform. This technology provides a secure, decentralized, and tamper-proof ledger to log data in real-time for each battery unit, ensuring full traceability and transparency.

• Statement 3 is correct. The key objective is to align battery usage with national and global compliance standards, specifically citing the EU Battery Regulation. This highlights the initiative’s role in making the Indian battery market globally competitive and compliant.

About Battery Aadhaar Initiative:

• What It Is?

• Battery Aadhaar is a digital identification system for batteries, designed to enable full traceability across their lifecycle using secure, blockchain-backed technologies.

• Developed By: Spearheaded by Tata Elxsi through its MOBIUS+ platform, in collaboration with Tata Motors, Tata AutoComp Systems, and IIT Kharagpur.

• Objective:

• To assign unique digital IDs to each battery, enabling safe use, regulated reuse, and efficient disposal. To align battery usage with national and global compliance standards like the EU Battery Regulation.

• To assign unique digital IDs to each battery, enabling safe use, regulated reuse, and efficient disposal.

• To align battery usage with national and global compliance standards like the EU Battery Regulation.

• Key Features:

• Blockchain Integration: MOBIUS+ ensures tamper-proof, real-time data logging for each battery unit. Lifecycle Transparency: Tracks manufacturer details, usage history, and material content. Regulatory Compliance: Automates reporting for both Indian and international policy frameworks. Sustainability Link: Supports circular economy models by reducing battery waste and environmental risks.

• Blockchain Integration: MOBIUS+ ensures tamper-proof, real-time data logging for each battery unit.

• Lifecycle Transparency: Tracks manufacturer details, usage history, and material content.

• Regulatory Compliance: Automates reporting for both Indian and international policy frameworks.

• Sustainability Link: Supports circular economy models by reducing battery waste and environmental risks.

• Significance:

• Prevents unsafe reuse of old or degraded batteries, ensuring safety in EV ecosystems. Strengthens India’s battery supply chain visibility and sustainability commitment. Encourages eco-conscious innovation across mobility, energy storage, and electronics industries. Promotes India’s position in green tech leadership and aligns with the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).

• Prevents unsafe reuse of old or degraded batteries, ensuring safety in EV ecosystems.

• Strengthens India’s battery supply chain visibility and sustainability commitment.

• Encourages eco-conscious innovation across mobility, energy storage, and electronics industries.

• Promotes India’s position in green tech leadership and aligns with the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).

Solution: d)

About Battery Aadhaar Initiative:

• What It Is?

• Battery Aadhaar is a digital identification system for batteries, designed to enable full traceability across their lifecycle using secure, blockchain-backed technologies.

• Developed By: Spearheaded by Tata Elxsi through its MOBIUS+ platform, in collaboration with Tata Motors, Tata AutoComp Systems, and IIT Kharagpur.

• Objective:

• To assign unique digital IDs to each battery, enabling safe use, regulated reuse, and efficient disposal.

• To align battery usage with national and global compliance standards like the EU Battery Regulation.

• Key Features:

• Blockchain Integration: MOBIUS+ ensures tamper-proof, real-time data logging for each battery unit.

• Lifecycle Transparency: Tracks manufacturer details, usage history, and material content.

• Regulatory Compliance: Automates reporting for both Indian and international policy frameworks.

• Sustainability Link: Supports circular economy models by reducing battery waste and environmental risks.

• Significance:

• Prevents unsafe reuse of old or degraded batteries, ensuring safety in EV ecosystems.

• Strengthens India’s battery supply chain visibility and sustainability commitment.

• Encourages eco-conscious innovation across mobility, energy storage, and electronics industries.

• Promotes India’s position in green tech leadership and aligns with the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the purpose of MSP: It provides income stability to farmers. It encourages diversification of crops. It indirectly helps control food price inflation in the market. It directly reduces input costs for farmers. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: c) MSP provides income stability and encourages farmers to diversify crops by offering remunerative prices for various commodities. While MSP indirectly impacts inflation by stabilizing supply, it is not designed to directly reduce input costs for farmers. What is MSP? Definition: MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to ensure they do not incur losses. Established by: Recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) under the Ministry of Agriculture, final approval by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Crops Covered: MSP is declared for 23 crops, including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops like cotton and jute. Purpose: Protect farmers from price fluctuations, provide income stability, and ensure agricultural growth. Incorrect Solution: c) MSP provides income stability and encourages farmers to diversify crops by offering remunerative prices for various commodities. While MSP indirectly impacts inflation by stabilizing supply, it is not designed to directly reduce input costs for farmers. What is MSP? Definition: MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to ensure they do not incur losses. Established by: Recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) under the Ministry of Agriculture, final approval by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Crops Covered: MSP is declared for 23 crops, including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops like cotton and jute. Purpose: Protect farmers from price fluctuations, provide income stability, and ensure agricultural growth.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the purpose of MSP:

• It provides income stability to farmers.

• It encourages diversification of crops.

• It indirectly helps control food price inflation in the market.

• It directly reduces input costs for farmers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c)

MSP provides income stability and encourages farmers to diversify crops by offering remunerative prices for various commodities. While MSP indirectly impacts inflation by stabilizing supply, it is not designed to directly reduce input costs for farmers.

What is MSP?

• Definition: MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to ensure they do not incur losses.

• Established by: Recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) under the Ministry of Agriculture, final approval by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).

• Crops Covered: MSP is declared for 23 crops, including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops like cotton and jute.

• Purpose: Protect farmers from price fluctuations, provide income stability, and ensure agricultural growth.

Solution: c)

What is MSP?

• Definition: MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to ensure they do not incur losses.

• Crops Covered: MSP is declared for 23 crops, including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops like cotton and jute.

• Purpose: Protect farmers from price fluctuations, provide income stability, and ensure agricultural growth.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023, consider the following statements: The Act replaces and repeals the existing Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts to create a unified military code for all personnel. It empowers the heads of Inter-Services Organisations to exercise disciplinary and administrative control over personnel from any of the three services serving under them. The Act provides a legal framework exclusively for existing tri-service commands like the Andaman & Nicobar Command and does not apply to new joint formations. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. A key feature of the Act is that it does not alter or repeal the individual service acts (Army Act, Navy Act, Air Force Act). These acts continue to govern the unique service conditions of their respective personnel. The ISO Act functions as an enabling layer on top of these acts for joint command situations. Statement 2 is correct. This is the central purpose of the Act. It empowers Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of ISOs to exercise full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel under their command, irrespective of their parent service (Army, Navy, or Air Force). This streamlines command and control, removing the need to revert to the parent service for disciplinary matters. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act not only recognizes existing ISOs but also provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. This forward-looking provision is essential for future military reforms and the creation of integrated theatre commands. About Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023: Came into Force: May 10, 2024, after receiving Presidential assent on August 15, 2023, and Parliament passage during the 2023 Monsoon Session. Objective: To unify command and promote functional efficiency across inter-services establishments such as Andaman & Nicobar Command, National Defence Academy, and Defence Space Agency. Key Features of the Act: Empowering ISO Leadership: Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command can now exercise disciplinary and administrative control over all personnel under their ISO, regardless of whether they belong to the Army, Navy, or Air Force. Promotes quick decision-making and a clear chain of command. Tri-Service Integration: Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces. No Change in Existing Service Laws: Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts. Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms. Command Clarity and Emergency Protocols: Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable. Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies. Administrative Efficiency: Prevents duplication of disciplinary actions, promotes synergy in resource utilisation, and strengthens command accountability. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. A key feature of the Act is that it does not alter or repeal the individual service acts (Army Act, Navy Act, Air Force Act). These acts continue to govern the unique service conditions of their respective personnel. The ISO Act functions as an enabling layer on top of these acts for joint command situations. Statement 2 is correct. This is the central purpose of the Act. It empowers Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of ISOs to exercise full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel under their command, irrespective of their parent service (Army, Navy, or Air Force). This streamlines command and control, removing the need to revert to the parent service for disciplinary matters. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act not only recognizes existing ISOs but also provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. This forward-looking provision is essential for future military reforms and the creation of integrated theatre commands. About Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023: Came into Force: May 10, 2024, after receiving Presidential assent on August 15, 2023, and Parliament passage during the 2023 Monsoon Session. Objective: To unify command and promote functional efficiency across inter-services establishments such as Andaman & Nicobar Command, National Defence Academy, and Defence Space Agency. Key Features of the Act: Empowering ISO Leadership: Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command can now exercise disciplinary and administrative control over all personnel under their ISO, regardless of whether they belong to the Army, Navy, or Air Force. Promotes quick decision-making and a clear chain of command. Tri-Service Integration: Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces. No Change in Existing Service Laws: Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts. Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms. Command Clarity and Emergency Protocols: Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable. Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies. Administrative Efficiency: Prevents duplication of disciplinary actions, promotes synergy in resource utilisation, and strengthens command accountability.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

• The Act replaces and repeals the existing Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts to create a unified military code for all personnel.

• It empowers the heads of Inter-Services Organisations to exercise disciplinary and administrative control over personnel from any of the three services serving under them.

• The Act provides a legal framework exclusively for existing tri-service commands like the Andaman & Nicobar Command and does not apply to new joint formations.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A key feature of the Act is that it does not alter or repeal the individual service acts (Army Act, Navy Act, Air Force Act). These acts continue to govern the unique service conditions of their respective personnel. The ISO Act functions as an enabling layer on top of these acts for joint command situations.

• Statement 2 is correct. This is the central purpose of the Act. It empowers Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of ISOs to exercise full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel under their command, irrespective of their parent service (Army, Navy, or Air Force). This streamlines command and control, removing the need to revert to the parent service for disciplinary matters.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act not only recognizes existing ISOs but also provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. This forward-looking provision is essential for future military reforms and the creation of integrated theatre commands.

About Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023:

• Came into Force: May 10, 2024, after receiving Presidential assent on August 15, 2023, and Parliament passage during the 2023 Monsoon Session.

• Objective:

• To unify command and promote functional efficiency across inter-services establishments such as Andaman & Nicobar Command, National Defence Academy, and Defence Space Agency.

• Key Features of the Act: Empowering ISO Leadership:

• Empowering ISO Leadership:

• Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command can now exercise disciplinary and administrative control over all personnel under their ISO, regardless of whether they belong to the Army, Navy, or Air Force. Promotes quick decision-making and a clear chain of command.

• Promotes quick decision-making and a clear chain of command.

• Tri-Service Integration:

• Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces.

• Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands.

• Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces.

• No Change in Existing Service Laws:

• Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts. Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms.

• Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts.

• Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms.

• Command Clarity and Emergency Protocols:

• Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable. Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies.

• Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable.

• Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies.

• Administrative Efficiency: Prevents duplication of disciplinary actions, promotes synergy in resource utilisation, and strengthens command accountability.

Solution: b)

About Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023:

• Came into Force: May 10, 2024, after receiving Presidential assent on August 15, 2023, and Parliament passage during the 2023 Monsoon Session.

• Objective:

• To unify command and promote functional efficiency across inter-services establishments such as Andaman & Nicobar Command, National Defence Academy, and Defence Space Agency.

• Key Features of the Act: Empowering ISO Leadership:

• Empowering ISO Leadership:

• Promotes quick decision-making and a clear chain of command.

• Tri-Service Integration:

• Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands. Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces.

• Recognises existing ISOs and provides a legal framework for forming new Joint Services Commands.

• Encourages jointness in planning and execution across forces.

• No Change in Existing Service Laws:

• Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts. Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms.

• Does not alter the Army, Navy, or Air Force Acts.

• Ensures that unique service conditions remain intact while enabling joint administrative mechanisms.

• Command Clarity and Emergency Protocols:

• Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable. Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies.

• Provides clear succession procedures when commanding officers are on leave or unavailable.

• Allows higher formations to deputize acting commanders during emergencies.

• Administrative Efficiency: Prevents duplication of disciplinary actions, promotes synergy in resource utilisation, and strengthens command accountability.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Advance Authorisation Scheme: The scheme allows for the duty-free import of capital goods and machinery intended for setting up new export-oriented units. It is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and operates on the principle of physical incorporation of inputs in the export product. The recent relaxation in rules permits exporters to claim duty-free benefits for all categories of goods, including restricted items, even if shipped before licence issuance. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The AA Scheme is specifically for the duty-free import of inputs that are physically incorporated into the final export product. This includes raw materials, fuel, oil, and catalysts. It does not cover the import of capital goods, which are governed by a different scheme, the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is administered by the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its core operational principle is ‘physical incorporation’, meaning the imported inputs must be demonstrably used or consumed in the manufacturing of the goods that are ultimately exported. Statement 3 is incorrect. The relaxation applies to goods where the Bill of Entry is filed after the licence is issued. However, this relaxation does not apply to goods that are restricted. For such items, special approval from the DGFT is still required, meaning the leniency is not universal. About Advance Authorisation Scheme: What It Is? A foreign trade policy initiative allowing duty-free import of inputs used in manufacturing export products. Administered By: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Aim: To reduce input costs for exporters, thereby improving the global competitiveness of Indian goods. Key Features of the Scheme: Duty-Free Import: Allows import of raw materials, packaging, fuel, oil, and catalysts without payment of Customs duties. Standard Input-Output Norms (SION): Exports must conform to sector-wise norms issued by DGFT. Exporters can also seek ad-hoc norms if SION doesn’t apply. Eligibility: Open to manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters linked with supporting manufacturers. Physical Incorporation Principle: Inputs must be physically consumed or used in the manufacture of the final export product. Recent Relaxation: Previous Rule: If goods were shipped before the AA licence was issued, duty exemption was denied even if the Bill of Entry was filed later. New Rule: Exporters can now avail benefits as long as the Bill of Entry is filed after licence issuance, regardless of shipment date. Restriction: Relaxation does not apply to restricted or canalised goods unless special DGFT approval is granted. Impact: Removes ambiguity, streamlines Customs clearance, and boosts exporter confidence amid rising logistics challenges. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The AA Scheme is specifically for the duty-free import of inputs that are physically incorporated into the final export product. This includes raw materials, fuel, oil, and catalysts. It does not cover the import of capital goods, which are governed by a different scheme, the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is administered by the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its core operational principle is ‘physical incorporation’, meaning the imported inputs must be demonstrably used or consumed in the manufacturing of the goods that are ultimately exported. Statement 3 is incorrect. The relaxation applies to goods where the Bill of Entry is filed after the licence is issued. However, this relaxation does not apply to goods that are restricted. For such items, special approval from the DGFT is still required, meaning the leniency is not universal. About Advance Authorisation Scheme: What It Is? A foreign trade policy initiative allowing duty-free import of inputs used in manufacturing export products. Administered By: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Aim: To reduce input costs for exporters, thereby improving the global competitiveness of Indian goods. Key Features of the Scheme: Duty-Free Import: Allows import of raw materials, packaging, fuel, oil, and catalysts without payment of Customs duties. Standard Input-Output Norms (SION): Exports must conform to sector-wise norms issued by DGFT. Exporters can also seek ad-hoc norms if SION doesn’t apply. Eligibility: Open to manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters linked with supporting manufacturers. Physical Incorporation Principle: Inputs must be physically consumed or used in the manufacture of the final export product. Recent Relaxation: Previous Rule: If goods were shipped before the AA licence was issued, duty exemption was denied even if the Bill of Entry was filed later. New Rule: Exporters can now avail benefits as long as the Bill of Entry is filed after licence issuance, regardless of shipment date. Restriction: Relaxation does not apply to restricted or canalised goods unless special DGFT approval is granted. Impact: Removes ambiguity, streamlines Customs clearance, and boosts exporter confidence amid rising logistics challenges.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Advance Authorisation Scheme:

• The scheme allows for the duty-free import of capital goods and machinery intended for setting up new export-oriented units.

• It is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and operates on the principle of physical incorporation of inputs in the export product.

• The recent relaxation in rules permits exporters to claim duty-free benefits for all categories of goods, including restricted items, even if shipped before licence issuance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The AA Scheme is specifically for the duty-free import of inputs that are physically incorporated into the final export product. This includes raw materials, fuel, oil, and catalysts. It does not cover the import of capital goods, which are governed by a different scheme, the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme.

• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme is administered by the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its core operational principle is ‘physical incorporation’, meaning the imported inputs must be demonstrably used or consumed in the manufacturing of the goods that are ultimately exported.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The relaxation applies to goods where the Bill of Entry is filed after the licence is issued. However, this relaxation does not apply to goods that are restricted. For such items, special approval from the DGFT is still required, meaning the leniency is not universal.

About Advance Authorisation Scheme:

• What It Is?

• A foreign trade policy initiative allowing duty-free import of inputs used in manufacturing export products.

• Administered By: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• Aim: To reduce input costs for exporters, thereby improving the global competitiveness of Indian goods.

• Key Features of the Scheme:

• Duty-Free Import: Allows import of raw materials, packaging, fuel, oil, and catalysts without payment of Customs duties. Standard Input-Output Norms (SION): Exports must conform to sector-wise norms issued by DGFT. Exporters can also seek ad-hoc norms if SION doesn’t apply. Eligibility: Open to manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters linked with supporting manufacturers. Physical Incorporation Principle: Inputs must be physically consumed or used in the manufacture of the final export product.

• Duty-Free Import: Allows import of raw materials, packaging, fuel, oil, and catalysts without payment of Customs duties.

• Standard Input-Output Norms (SION): Exports must conform to sector-wise norms issued by DGFT. Exporters can also seek ad-hoc norms if SION doesn’t apply.

• Eligibility: Open to manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters linked with supporting manufacturers.

• Physical Incorporation Principle: Inputs must be physically consumed or used in the manufacture of the final export product.

• Recent Relaxation:

• Previous Rule: If goods were shipped before the AA licence was issued, duty exemption was denied even if the Bill of Entry was filed later. New Rule: Exporters can now avail benefits as long as the Bill of Entry is filed after licence issuance, regardless of shipment date. Restriction: Relaxation does not apply to restricted or canalised goods unless special DGFT approval is granted. Impact: Removes ambiguity, streamlines Customs clearance, and boosts exporter confidence amid rising logistics challenges.

• Previous Rule: If goods were shipped before the AA licence was issued, duty exemption was denied even if the Bill of Entry was filed later.

• New Rule: Exporters can now avail benefits as long as the Bill of Entry is filed after licence issuance, regardless of shipment date.

• Restriction: Relaxation does not apply to restricted or canalised goods unless special DGFT approval is granted.

• Impact: Removes ambiguity, streamlines Customs clearance, and boosts exporter confidence amid rising logistics challenges.

Solution: a)

About Advance Authorisation Scheme:

• What It Is?

• A foreign trade policy initiative allowing duty-free import of inputs used in manufacturing export products.

• Administered By: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• Aim: To reduce input costs for exporters, thereby improving the global competitiveness of Indian goods.

• Key Features of the Scheme:

• Duty-Free Import: Allows import of raw materials, packaging, fuel, oil, and catalysts without payment of Customs duties.

• Standard Input-Output Norms (SION): Exports must conform to sector-wise norms issued by DGFT. Exporters can also seek ad-hoc norms if SION doesn’t apply.

• Eligibility: Open to manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters linked with supporting manufacturers.

• Physical Incorporation Principle: Inputs must be physically consumed or used in the manufacture of the final export product.

• Recent Relaxation:

• Previous Rule: If goods were shipped before the AA licence was issued, duty exemption was denied even if the Bill of Entry was filed later.

• New Rule: Exporters can now avail benefits as long as the Bill of Entry is filed after licence issuance, regardless of shipment date.

• Restriction: Relaxation does not apply to restricted or canalised goods unless special DGFT approval is granted.

• Impact: Removes ambiguity, streamlines Customs clearance, and boosts exporter confidence amid rising logistics challenges.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) 2025: It is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to rank cities based on cleanliness. The survey relies exclusively on self-assessment reports submitted by District Collectors. A key component of the survey is the direct observation of infrastructure functionality, such as Plastic Waste Management Units and GOBARdhan plants. The survey incorporates a ‘Swachhata Green Leaf Rating’ system to track the quality of sanitation services. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) focuses on rural sanitation and is conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The urban counterpart is managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The survey is not based exclusively on self-assessment. It employs a multi-faceted approach that includes district self-assessment (Service-Level Progress), direct observation by an independent agency, and citizen feedback. This ensures data authenticity and a holistic assessment. Statement 3 is correct. A specific performance-based component of the survey is the Direct Observation of Infrastructure Functionality. This involves field visits to evaluate whether assets like Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, and GOBARdhan units are operational and effective. Statement 4 is correct. The SSG 2025 framework includes the Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR), a new feature designed to track and certify the quality and sustainability of sanitation services in villages, promoting long-term ODF Plus outcomes. About Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025: What It Is? A nationwide rural sanitation ranking survey covering 21,000 villages across 761 districts in 34 States/UTs. Anchored under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II to assess the sustainability of ODF Plus outcomes. Organisation & Ministry: Conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. An independent agency is engaged for field verification, ensuring data authenticity and transparency. Key Objectives: To measure sanitation progress in rural areas using structured and technology-driven methods. To strengthen citizen engagement and reward high-performing villages and states. To promote a people-led movement (Jan Bhagidari) towards a clean and healthy India. Survey Criteria & Components: SSG 2025 ranks rural regions based on four performance-based components: Service-Level Progress (SLP): Based on district self-assessment and desktop validation of ODF Plus Model Verified Villages. Direct Observation of Sanitation Status of Villages: Field visits to households, public places (schools, CSCs, Panchayat Bhavans) to verify cleanliness practices. Direct Observation – Infrastructure Functionality: Evaluation of Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, GOBARdhan units, etc. Citizen Feedback: Collected through mobile applications and face-to-face surveys, promoting inclusive participation. Key Features: Geo-fencing Enabled Data Collection: Ensures authenticity and location-verified entries. Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR): Tracks quality of sanitation services. Best Practices Documentation: Launch of Swachhata Chronicles Vol. III as a compendium of successful State interventions. Technology Integration: Mobile app for feedback, real-time data monitoring, and transparency. Inclusivity & Capacity Building: Mobilises Swachhagrahis, Training Units, and local governance structures. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) focuses on rural sanitation and is conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The urban counterpart is managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The survey is not based exclusively on self-assessment. It employs a multi-faceted approach that includes district self-assessment (Service-Level Progress), direct observation by an independent agency, and citizen feedback. This ensures data authenticity and a holistic assessment. Statement 3 is correct. A specific performance-based component of the survey is the Direct Observation of Infrastructure Functionality. This involves field visits to evaluate whether assets like Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, and GOBARdhan units are operational and effective. Statement 4 is correct. The SSG 2025 framework includes the Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR), a new feature designed to track and certify the quality and sustainability of sanitation services in villages, promoting long-term ODF Plus outcomes. About Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025: What It Is? A nationwide rural sanitation ranking survey covering 21,000 villages across 761 districts in 34 States/UTs. Anchored under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II to assess the sustainability of ODF Plus outcomes. Organisation & Ministry: Conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. An independent agency is engaged for field verification, ensuring data authenticity and transparency. Key Objectives: To measure sanitation progress in rural areas using structured and technology-driven methods. To strengthen citizen engagement and reward high-performing villages and states. To promote a people-led movement (Jan Bhagidari) towards a clean and healthy India. Survey Criteria & Components: SSG 2025 ranks rural regions based on four performance-based components: Service-Level Progress (SLP): Based on district self-assessment and desktop validation of ODF Plus Model Verified Villages. Direct Observation of Sanitation Status of Villages: Field visits to households, public places (schools, CSCs, Panchayat Bhavans) to verify cleanliness practices. Direct Observation – Infrastructure Functionality: Evaluation of Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, GOBARdhan units, etc. Citizen Feedback: Collected through mobile applications and face-to-face surveys, promoting inclusive participation. Key Features: Geo-fencing Enabled Data Collection: Ensures authenticity and location-verified entries. Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR): Tracks quality of sanitation services. Best Practices Documentation: Launch of Swachhata Chronicles Vol. III as a compendium of successful State interventions. Technology Integration: Mobile app for feedback, real-time data monitoring, and transparency. Inclusivity & Capacity Building: Mobilises Swachhagrahis, Training Units, and local governance structures.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) 2025:

• It is conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to rank cities based on cleanliness.

• The survey relies exclusively on self-assessment reports submitted by District Collectors.

• A key component of the survey is the direct observation of infrastructure functionality, such as Plastic Waste Management Units and GOBARdhan plants.

• The survey incorporates a ‘Swachhata Green Leaf Rating’ system to track the quality of sanitation services.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) focuses on rural sanitation and is conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The urban counterpart is managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The survey is not based exclusively on self-assessment. It employs a multi-faceted approach that includes district self-assessment (Service-Level Progress), direct observation by an independent agency, and citizen feedback. This ensures data authenticity and a holistic assessment.

• Statement 3 is correct. A specific performance-based component of the survey is the Direct Observation of Infrastructure Functionality. This involves field visits to evaluate whether assets like Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, and GOBARdhan units are operational and effective.

• Statement 4 is correct. The SSG 2025 framework includes the Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR), a new feature designed to track and certify the quality and sustainability of sanitation services in villages, promoting long-term ODF Plus outcomes.

About Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025:

• What It Is? A nationwide rural sanitation ranking survey covering 21,000 villages across 761 districts in 34 States/UTs. Anchored under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II to assess the sustainability of ODF Plus outcomes.

• A nationwide rural sanitation ranking survey covering 21,000 villages across 761 districts in 34 States/UTs.

• Anchored under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II to assess the sustainability of ODF Plus outcomes.

• Organisation & Ministry: Conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. An independent agency is engaged for field verification, ensuring data authenticity and transparency.

• An independent agency is engaged for field verification, ensuring data authenticity and transparency.

• Key Objectives: To measure sanitation progress in rural areas using structured and technology-driven methods. To strengthen citizen engagement and reward high-performing villages and states. To promote a people-led movement (Jan Bhagidari) towards a clean and healthy India.

• To measure sanitation progress in rural areas using structured and technology-driven methods.

• To strengthen citizen engagement and reward high-performing villages and states.

• To promote a people-led movement (Jan Bhagidari) towards a clean and healthy India.

• Survey Criteria & Components:

• SSG 2025 ranks rural regions based on four performance-based components: Service-Level Progress (SLP): Based on district self-assessment and desktop validation of ODF Plus Model Verified Villages. Direct Observation of Sanitation Status of Villages: Field visits to households, public places (schools, CSCs, Panchayat Bhavans) to verify cleanliness practices. Direct Observation – Infrastructure Functionality: Evaluation of Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, GOBARdhan units, etc. Citizen Feedback: Collected through mobile applications and face-to-face surveys, promoting inclusive participation.

• Service-Level Progress (SLP): Based on district self-assessment and desktop validation of ODF Plus Model Verified Villages.

• Direct Observation of Sanitation Status of Villages: Field visits to households, public places (schools, CSCs, Panchayat Bhavans) to verify cleanliness practices.

• Direct Observation – Infrastructure Functionality: Evaluation of Plastic Waste Management Units (PWMU), Faecal Sludge Management (FSM) plants, GOBARdhan units, etc.

• Citizen Feedback: Collected through mobile applications and face-to-face surveys, promoting inclusive participation.

• Key Features: Geo-fencing Enabled Data Collection: Ensures authenticity and location-verified entries. Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR): Tracks quality of sanitation services. Best Practices Documentation: Launch of Swachhata Chronicles Vol. III as a compendium of successful State interventions. Technology Integration: Mobile app for feedback, real-time data monitoring, and transparency. Inclusivity & Capacity Building: Mobilises Swachhagrahis, Training Units, and local governance structures.

• Geo-fencing Enabled Data Collection: Ensures authenticity and location-verified entries.

• Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR): Tracks quality of sanitation services.

• Best Practices Documentation: Launch of Swachhata Chronicles Vol. III as a compendium of successful State interventions.

• Technology Integration: Mobile app for feedback, real-time data monitoring, and transparency.

• Inclusivity & Capacity Building: Mobilises Swachhagrahis, Training Units, and local governance structures.